Positive outcomes following Autologous Matrix-Induced Chondrogenesis (AMIC) in the treatment of retropatellar chondral lesions: a retrospective analysis of a patient registry.

BACKGROUND: The patellofemoral joint is a challenging environment for treating chondral defects. Among the surgical options for the treatment of chondral defects, the single-stage Autologous Matrix-Induced Chondrogenesis (AMIC) procedure uses a porcine collagen I/III membrane to enhance bone-marrow stimulation. However, longer term outcomes data are rare for this specific indication. In order to provide real-world information, an ongoing registry has been established to record patient data and outcomes when AMIC is used to treat chondral and osteochondral lesions. METHODS: Patient data were retrieved from an ongoing, prospective, multisite registry of patients who had undergone AMIC treatment of chondral defects. We identified 64 patients who had undergone AMIC for patellofemoral chondral defects and for whom pre-operative and at least 1 post-operative score were available were included in this retrospective data analysis. Outcomes were assessed via the KOOS, VAS pain, and the Lysholm scores. Outcomes at the post-operative time-points were analysed using a factorial ANOVA with post-hoc testing while linear regression was used to assess associations between the change in the Lysholm score and lesion size. RESULTS: There was a significant improvement in Lysholm, VAS pain, and KOOS scores from pre-operative to the 1st year post-operative (p < 0.001), and this was maintained during the follow-up. CONCLUSIONS: The forces exerted on the patellofemoral joint make this a challenging scenario for chondral repair. Our data demonstrates that the AMIC procedure with a collagen I/III membrane is an effective treatment for retropatellar cartilage lesions, and provides reliable results, with decreased pain and improved function. Importantly, these improvements were maintained through the follow-up period.

Fine-mapping the immunodominant antibody epitopes on consensus sequence-based HIV-1 envelope trimer vaccine candidates.

The HIV-1 envelope glycoprotein (Env) trimer is the key target for vaccines aimed at inducing neutralizing antibodies (NAbs) against HIV-1. The clinical candidate immunogen ConM SOSIP.v7 is a stabilized native-like HIV-1 Env trimer based on an artificial consensus sequence of all HIV-1 isolates in group M. In preclinical studies ConM SOSIP.v7 trimers induced strong autologous NAb responses in non-human primates (NHPs). To fine-map these responses, we isolated monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) from six cynomolgus macaques that were immunized three times with ConM SOSIP.v7 protein and boosted twice with the closely related ConSOSL.UFO.664 immunogen. A total of 40 ConM and/or ConS-specific mAbs were isolated, of which 18 were retrieved after the three ConM SOSIP.v7 immunizations and 22 after the two immunizations with ConSOSL.UFO.664. 22 mAbs (55%) neutralized the ConM and/or ConS virus. Cross-neutralization of ConS virus by approximately one-third of the mAbs was seen prior to ConSOSL.UFO.664 immunization, albeit with modest potency. Neutralizing antibodies predominantly targeted the V1 and V2 regions of the immunogens, with an apparent extension towards the V3 region. Thus, the V1V2V3 region is immunodominant in the potent NAb response elicited by two consensus sequence native-like HIV-1 Env immunogens. Immunization with these soluble consensus Env proteins also elicited non-neutralizing mAbs targeting the trimer base. These results inform the use and improvement of consensus-based trimer immunogens in combinatorial vaccine strategies.

Outcome of Autologous Matrix Induced Chondrogenesis (AMIC) in cartilage knee surgery: data of the AMIC Registry.

INTRODUCTION: Autologous Matrix-Induced Chondrogenesis (AMIC) is an innovative treatment for localized full-thickness cartilage defects combining the well-known microfracturing with collagen I/III scaffold. The purpose of this analysis was to evaluate the medium-term results of this enhanced microfracture technique for the treatment of chondral lesions of the knee. METHODS AND MATERIALS: Patients treated with AMIC (Chondro-Gide, Geistlich Pharma, Switzerland) were followed using the AMIC Registry, an internet-based tool to longitudinally track changes in function and symptoms by the Lysholm score and VAS. RESULTS: A series of 57 patients was enrolled. The average age of patients (19 females, 38 males) was 37.3 years (range 17-61 years). The mean defect size of the chondral lesions was 3.4 cm(2) (range 1.0-12.0 cm(2)). All defects were classified as grade III (n = 20) or IV (n = 37) according to the Outerbridge classification. Defects were localized at the medial (n = 32) or lateral (n = 6) condyle, at the trochlea (n = 4) and at the patella (n = 15). The follow-up period was 2 years. The majority of patients were satisfied with the postoperative outcome, reporting a significant decrease of pain (mean VAS preop = 7.0; 1 year postop = 2.7; 2 years postop = 2.0). Significant improvement of the mean Lysholm score was observed as early as 1 year after AMIC and further increased values were noted up to 2 years postoperatively (preop. 50.1, 1 year postop. 79.9, 2 year postop. 85.2). CONCLUSIONS: AMIC is an effective and safe method of treating symptomatic chondral defects of the knee. However, further studies with long-term follow-up are needed to determine if the grafted area will maintain structural and functional integrity over time. LEVEL OF EVIDENCE: Prognostic study, Level IV.

Experimental murine hyalohyphomycosis with soil-derived isolates of Fusarium solani.

Two strains of soil-borne Fusarium solani, both characterized for their ability to produce cyclosporin A and C, were examined for their pathogenicity in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) and BALB/c male mice. Intravenous (i.v.) infections with F. solani conidia were performed. No mortality was observed after infection with 0.3-1.6 x 10(7) cfu per mouse in SCID and BALB/c mice. When mice were infected with 0.8-1.5 x 10(6) cfu per mouse and 2 days later with 1.2-1.9 x 10(6) cfu per mouse, 28.6-85.7% survival occurred over a 25-day period, depending on the F. solani strain and the inbred mouse line used. Death was preceded by renal insufficiency affecting both kidneys. Furthermore, i.v. injection with heat-killed conidia followed 2 days later by injecting viable conidia resulted in renal infection in both breeds of mice. F. solani isolated from infected organs was more virulent than the original isolate, and 3/8 (37.5%) of BALB/c and 4/7 (57.1%) of SCID mice died after receiving a single dose. Dissemination to the brain was found only in SCID mice, but torticollis was observed in both mouse breeds. Soil-borne F. solani isolates possess poor pathogenic potential for mice, but either two successive infective doses or a primary injection with heat-killed conidia followed by a single infective dose breaks through host defenses in normal and immunoincompetent mice. Mouse passage increased the pathogenicity of two soil-derived F. solani strains.

Genetic diversity of Histoplasma capsulatum strains isolated from soil, animals, and clinical specimens in Rio de Janeiro State, Brazil, by a PCR-based random amplified polymorphic DNA assay.

Little is known about the genetic strain diversity and geographical range of Histoplasma capsulatum isolated in Rio de Janeiro State, Brazil. We characterized 13 environmental, 7 animal, and 28 clinical H. capsulatum isolates by using a PCR-based random amplified polymorphic DNA (RAPD) assay. DNA fingerprinting of these soil, animal, and clinical specimens was performed with four primers (1253, 1281, D-9355, and D-10513) and generated amplicons with considerable polymorphism. Although all of the isolates exhibited more than 80% genetic relatedness, they could be clustered into four to six genotypes for each primer. The RAPD profiles of H. capsulatum isolated from Rio de Janeiro State could be distinguished from those of the U.S. strains included in this study (Downs, G222B, G-186B, and FLS1) by showing less than 70% similarity to each primer. The genetic polymorphisms between H. capsulatum strains isolated from animals and soil obtained in the same geographic areas were 100% similar, suggesting that an environmental microniche could be acting as a source of infection for animals and the local human population.

Molecular epidemiology of Candida albicans strains isolated from the oropharynx of HIV-positive patients at successive clinic visits.

Candida albicans strain diversity and fluconazole resistance were prospectively analyzed in oral strains from 29 adult human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients followed for > 1 year who had five or more culture-positive clinic visits. Molecular typing consisted of genomic blots probed with the Ca3 repetitive element. Sixteen patients had one or more episodes of oropharyngeal candidiasis (OPC), 12 (75%) maintained the original genotype, whereas the remaining four patients had a succession of 2-3 genotypes. The original genotype, either alone or mixed with another strain or with non-C. albicans Candida spp., was recovered from oral lesions in 13 of 15 evaluable (86.7%) patients. C. dubliniensis was the infecting yeast in the remaining two patients. Different patterns of fluconazole resistance occurred in three OPC patients. One patient's infecting strain became less susceptible. A second patient was infected with a resistant genotype and a progressively more susceptible minor genotype variant. C. dubliniensis isolates from the third patient varied in susceptibility. Thirteen colonized patients who never developed OPC harbored a greater variety of C. albicans genotypes (2-6) than their infected counterparts (P = 0.35). OPC patients maintained their original endogenous C. albicans strains for prolonged periods, whether or not they demonstrated decreased in vitro susceptibility to fluconazole. The adaptation and maintenance of an endogenous C. albicans strain within its host may be linked to as yet uncharacterized factors.

Use of a repetitive DNA probe to type clinical and environmental isolates of Aspergillus flavus from a cluster of cutaneous infections in a neonatal intensive care unit.

Aspergillus flavus is second to A. fumigatus as a cause of invasive aspergillosis, but no standard method exists for molecular typing of strains from human sources. A repetitive DNA sequence cloned from A. flavus and subcloned into a pUC19 vector, pAF28, was used to type 18 isolates from diverse clinical, environmental, and geographic sources. The restriction fragment length polymorphisms generated with EcoRI- or PstI-digested genomic DNA and probed with digoxigenin-labeled pAF28 revealed complete concordance between patterns. Eighteen distinct fingerprints were observed. The probe was used to investigate two cases of cutaneous A. flavus infection in low-birth-weight infants in a neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). Both infants were transported by the same ambulance and crew to the NICU on the same day. A. flavus strains of the same genotype were isolated from both infants, from a roll of tape used to fasten their umbilical catheters, from a canvas bag used to store the tape in the ambulance, and from the tape tray in the ambulance isolette. These cases highlight the need to consider exposures in critically ill neonates that might occur during their transport to the NICU and for stringent infection control practices. The hybridization profiles of strains from a second cluster of invasive A. flavus infections in two pediatric hematology-oncology patients revealed a genotype common to strains from a definite case patient and a health care worker. A probable case patient was infected with a strain with a genotype different from that of the strain from the definite case patient but highly related to that of an environmental isolate. The high degree of discrimination and reproducibility obtained with the pAF28 probe underscores its utility for typing clinical and environmental isolates of A. flavus.

Strain characterization of Candida parapsilosis fungemia by molecular typing methods.

The present study used two molecular typing methods to investigate a cluster of eight cases of Candida parapsilosis fungemia in a hospital in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. Candida parapsilosis is an important opportunistic pathogen that is frequently involved in outbreaks of nosocomial fungemia. Identification of a common source of infection and determination of genetic relatedness among the strains involved in outbreaks are important for infection control. Candida parapsilosis strains were isolated from the bloodstream of patients housed in an intensive-care unit (n=5) and in individual rooms (n=3). An additional strain of Candida parapsilosis was isolated from a hyperalimentation infusion flask, which was implicated by molecular typing to be the source of infection. All strains were identified using morphological and biochemical methods. The genetic relationship between patients' strains and the hyperalimentation infusion strain was assessed by electrophoretic karyotype (EK) analysis and random amplification of polymorphic DNA (RAPD). Both methods resulted in patterns that allowed differentiation of the isolates. Candida parapsilosis fungemia, in three of the eight patients, resulted from a common source of infection, as demonstrated by molecular typing methods. Image analysis of EK patterns indicated that these strains were closest to Candida parapsilosis Group II, a grouping that is a less frequent clinical isolate than the major Group I strains.

Comparison of commercial latex agglutination and sandwich enzyme immunoassays with a competitive binding inhibition enzyme immunoassay for detection of antigenemia and antigenuria in a rabbit model of invasive aspergillosis.

A commercial latex agglutination assay (LA) and a sandwich enzyme immunoassay (SEIA) (Sanofi Diagnostics Pasteur, Marnes-la-Coquette, France) were compared with a competitive binding inhibition assay (enzyme immunoassay [EIA]) to determine the potential uses and limitations of these antigen detection tests for the sensitive, specific, and rapid diagnosis of invasive aspergillosis (IA). Toward this end, well-characterized serum and urine specimens were obtained by using a rabbit model of IA. Serially collected serum or urine specimens were obtained daily from control rabbits or from rabbits immunosuppressed and infected systemically with Aspergillus fumigatus. By 4 days after infection, EIA, LA, and SEIA detected antigen in the sera of 93, 93, and 100% of A. fumigatus-infected rabbits, respectively, whereas antigen was detected in the urine of 93, 100, and 100% of the rabbits, respectively. False-positive results for non-A. fumigatus-infected rabbits for EIA, LA, and SEIA were as follows: for serum, 14, 11, and 23%, respectively; for urine, 14, 84, and 90%, respectively. Therefore, although the sensitivities of all three tests were similar, the specificity was generally greater for EIA than for LA or SEIA. Infection was also detected earlier by EIA, by which the serum of 53% of A. fumigatus-infected rabbits was positive as early as 1 day after infection, whereas the serum of only 27% of the rabbits tested by LA was positive. Although the serum of 92% of A. fumigatus-infected rabbits was positive by SEIA as early as 1 day after infection, the serum of a high percentage (50%) was false positive before infection. The urine of 21% of A. fumigatus-infected rabbits was positive by EIA as early as 1 day after infection, and the urine of none of the rabbits was false positive before infection. When EIA results for urine specimens were combined with those for serum, sensitivity was improved (i.e., 67% of rabbits were positive by 1 day after infection and only one rabbit gave a false-positive result). A total of 93% of A. fumigatus-infected rabbits were positive for antigen in urine as early as 1 day after infection and the urine of 100% of the rabbits was positive by SEIA. However, before infection, 79% of A. fumigatus-infected rabbits were false positive for antigen in urine by LA and 90% were false positive for antigen in urine by SEIA. These data indicate that the EIA has the potential to be used to diagnose IA with both serum and urine specimens and to detect a greater number of infections earlier with greater specificity than the specificities achieved with the commercial tests.

Non-culture based diagnostic tests for mycotic infections.

Non-culture methods being developed and evaluated for mycotic infections include polymerase chain reaction (PCR), galactomannan (GM) antigenemia, Western blot (WB) to detect antibodies, and detection of the fungal metabolites D-arabinitol and (1,3)-beta-D-glucan. Sample preparation for PCR from blood specimens depends on fractionation of peripheral blood, its pre-incubation in blood culture broth, or a total DNA method, which does not rely on fractionation, or pre-incubation. Targets for PCR of fungi in the 18S or ITS2 subunits of the ribosomal RNA genes facilitated the design of Aspergillus and Candida genus and species probes. Amplicons were identified using PCR-enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) or reverse line-blot formats. A pilot study indicated that PCR tests on blood specimens were positive at least once in patients with confirmed invasive aspergillosis (IA). When serum-PCR and serum-GM tests were compared in IA patients, antigenemia was more often positive. PCR detected Aspergillus DNA in bronchoalveolar lavage specimens from patients at risk even when cultures were negative. D-Arabinitol can be detected as a marker of candidiasis with gas chromatography-mass spectrometry or enzyme dependent-fluorometry. Each method can differentiate the microbial D- and host L-enantiomers. (1,3)-beta-D-Glucan is produced by most genera of pathogenic fungi and can be detected in plasma by the 'G-test'. In patients with febrile neutropenia the efficacy of azole therapy correlated with plasma (1,3)-beta-D-glucan concentrations of > or = 10 pg ml(-1). The diagnosis of early acute pulmonary histoplasmosis can be improved by a WB test utilizing deglycosylated M antigen, a 94-kDa glycoprotein. The identity of M antigen as a catalase was deduced from the sequence of the cloned gene. PCR identification of Histoplasma capsulatum cultures was accomplished with primer pairs selected from H and M antigen gene sequences.

Molecular cloning, characterization, and expression of the M antigen of Histoplasma capsulatum.

The major diagnostic antigens of Histoplasma capsulatum are the H and M antigens, pluripotent glycoproteins that elicit both humoral and T-cell-mediated immune responses. These antigens may play a role in the pathogenesis of histoplasmosis. M antigen is considered immunodominant because antibodies against it are the first precipitins to arise in acute histoplasmosis and are commonly present during all phases of infection. The biological activity of monomolecular M antigen and its ability to elicit a protective immune response to H. capsulatum are largely unknown. A molecular approach was used to identify the biological nature of M antigen, including its purification from histoplasmin, partial digestion with proteinases, and reverse-phase high-performance liquid chromatography to separate the released peptides. The amino acid sequences of the purified peptides were obtained by Edman degradation, and using degenerate oligonucleotide primers for PCR, a 321-bp fragment of the gene encoding the M antigen was amplified from genomic H. capsulatum DNA. This fragment was used to screen an H. capsulatum genomic DNA library, leading to the isolation, cloning, and sequencing of the full-length gene. The M gene consists of 2, 187-bp DNA encoding a protein of 80,719 Da, which has significant homology to catalases from Aspergillus fumigatus, Aspergillus niger, and Eimericella nidulans. A cDNA was generated by reverse transcription-PCR and cloned into the expression vector pQE40. The identity of the cloned, expressed protein was confirmed by Western blotting. The recombinant fusion protein was immunoreactive with monoclonal antibodies raised against M antigen, with polyclonal mouse anti-M antiserum, and with a serum sample from a patient with histoplasmosis. The gene encoding the major immunodominant M antigen of H. capsulatum is a presumptive catalase, and the recombinant protein retains serodiagnostic activity.

Evaluation of a western blot test in an outbreak of acute pulmonary histoplasmosis.

A western blot (WB) test was evaluated for detection of antibodies against native glycosylated and chemically deglycosylated M and H antigens of Histoplasma capsulatum in serum obtained from patients during the acute phase of pulmonary histoplasmosis that occurred during an outbreak. Of 275 serum samples tested by immunodiffusion and complement fixation (CF) samples from 40 patients affected during this outbreak and from 37 negative controls were tested by WB test. A group of patients whose sera were negative for CF antibodies and precipitins early in the acute stage of histoplasmosis but who all seroconverted during convalescence 6 weeks later were tested with the WB test. Antibodies against untreated H and M antigens were detected at a 1:100 dilution by WB test in 45% of the 20 acute-phase serum samples and in all 20 of the convalescent-phase specimens. The WB test's sensitivity for acute-phase specimens increased to 90% (18 of 20 specimens) when H and M antigens were treated by periodate oxidation to inactivate susceptible carbohydrate epitopes. When native glycosylated antigens were used in the WB test, positive reactions were observed in negative control serum specimens (3 of 37 specimens; 8%) and in serum specimens obtained from asymptomatic persons screened as part of the outbreak investigation (13 of 20 specimens; 65%). These positive reactions were also attributed to glycosidic epitopes since the specificity of the WB test increased from 78 to 100% when periodate-treated H and M antigens were used. WB test with deglycosylated H and M antigens of histoplasmin provides a rapid, sensitive, and specific test to diagnose acute pulmonary histoplasmosis before precipitins can be detected.

Rapid identification of Candida species with species-specific DNA probes.

Rapid identification of Candida species has become more important because of an increase in infections caused by species other than Candida albicans, including species innately resistant to azole antifungal drugs. We previously developed a PCR assay with an enzyme immunoassay (EIA) format to detect amplicons from the five most common Candida species by using universal fungal primers and species-specific probes directed to the ITS2 region of the gene for rRNA. We designed probes to detect seven additional Candida species (C. guilliermondii, C. kefyr, C. lambica, C. lusitaniae, C. pelliculosa, C. rugosa, and C. zeylanoides) included in the API 20C sugar assimilation panel, five probes for species not identified by API 20C (C. haemulonii, C. norvegica, C. norvegensis, C. utilis, and C. viswanathii), and a probe for the newly described species C. dubliniensis, creating a panel of 18 Candida species probes. The PCR-EIA correctly identified multiple strains of each species tested, including five identified as C. albicans by the currently available API 20C database but determined to be C. dubliniensis by genotypic and nonroutine phenotypic characteristics. Species identification time was reduced from a mean of 3.5 days by conventional identification methods to 7 h by the PCR-EIA. This method is simple, rapid, and feasible for identifying Candida species in clinical laboratories that utilize molecular identification techniques and provides a novel method to differentiate the new species, C. dubliniensis, from C. albicans.

Molecular size and net charge of pathogenesis-related enzymes from barley (Hordeum vulgare L., v. Karat) infected with Drechslera teres f. teres (Sacch.) Shoem.

Molecular size and net charge of isoforms of pathogenesis-related (PR) chitinase, beta-1,3-glucanase and peroxidase were studied in uninfected barley (Hordeum vulgare L., v. Karat) leaves and in barley leaves infected with the pathogenic fungus Drechslera teres f. teres (Sacch.) Shoem. Molecular characteristics were determined by time-dependent polyacrylamide gradient gel electrophoresis under native conditions and by applying an extended version of the computer program MOL-MASS (Rothe, G. M., Weidmann, H., Electrophoresis 1991, 12, 703-709). Uninfected barley leaves contained predominantly one peroxidase isozyme but also three very weak peroxidases. Activities of all of these three peroxidases increased considerably after infection with Drechslera teres. The molecular masses of peroxidases 1 and 3 were estimated to be 38 +/- 5 and 42 +/- 7 kDa and their apparent valences at pH 8.4 were Z = 3.13 and 3.20, respectively. Amongst the chitinase isoforms, chitinase 1 and chitinase 2 appeared after infection, while chitinase 3 was also observed in uninfected leaves of barley. The molecular mass of chitinase 3 (31 +/- 6 kDa; f/fo = 1.20) was larger than that of chitinase 1 (20 +/- 2 kDa; f/fo = 1.04) and chitinase 2 (23 +/- 3 kDa; f/fo = 1.06). The valence of constitutive chitinase 3 (Z = 1.44 +/- 0.81) at pH 8.4 was lower than that of adaptive chitinase 1 (Z = 3.27 +/- 1.02) and chitinase 2 (Z = 2.96 +/- 1.38). Infection of barley leaves with Drechslera teres also induced the hydrolytic enzyme beta-1,3-glucanase 1; beta-1,3-glucanase 2 appeared in uninfected and in infected leaves. Constitutive beta-1,3-glucanase 2 was smaller (molecular mass 19 +/- kDa; f/fo = 1.05) than adaptive beta-1,3-glucanase 1 (molecular mass 26 +/- 4 kDa; f/fo = 1.07). The valence of adaptive beta-1,3-glucanase 1 (Z = 9.58 +/- 4.17) was approximately threefold that of beta-1,3-glucanase 2 (Z = 2.80 +/- 0.93).

Sequence analysis of the internal transcribed spacer 2 (ITS2) from yeast species within the genus Candida.

Nucleotide sequences of the internal transcribed spacer 2 (ITS2) regions were determined for 13 species within the genus Candida, representing a collection of those species pathogenic for humans. No two species had identical sequences and the sizes of ITS2 varied fourfold, representing an apparent continuous gradient of nucleotides. When present, sequence homologies were observed in the 5' end of ITS2, and many species exhibited more limited homologies within three known conserved domains found in other yeasts. Cluster analysis of primary sequence revealed a concordance with a known taxonomic subfamily and suggests that certain species within the genus form a similar grouping. A majority of species exhibited similar presumptive RNA secondary structures, consistent with the hypothesis that these spacer regions are essential for correct processing of the 5.8S and 28S subunits.

Immunodominant Nocardia asteroides antigens: isolation and characterisation by enzyme-linked immunoelectrotransfer blotting, and the value of immunoblot strips.

Concentrated cell-free filtrates (nocardins) were prepared from Nocardia asteroides cultures grown on Sauton's synthetic broth. Nocardins from 10 strains of six N. asteroides serotypes were produced and the proteins separated by isoelectric focusing. N. asteroides antigens among these proteins were tested for specificity using rabbit antisera and monoclonal antibodies (MAbs) against N. asteroides and Mycobacterium tuberculosis by the enzyme-linked immunoelectrotransfer blot test. At least 15 protein antigens were identified from each of the 10 nocardins. The immunodominant antigens were one serotype-specific N. asteroides protein with an isoelectric point (pI) of 4.0 (factor 1) and two group antigens with pIs of 4.43 (factor 6) and 4.68 (factor 8). The nitrocellulose strips prepared with these antigens did not react with antibodies to M. tuberculosis, nor with normal sera from humans, rabbits, or mice, but reacted specifically with anti-N. asteroides MAbs and polyclonal antibodies. Four purified protein derivatives of tuberculin were tested and did not cross-react with the three anti-N. asteroides MAbs. These reactions suggest that the antigens identified as factors 1, 6 and 7 are specific to N. asteroides and that factor 1 is specific for serotype 2, while factors 6 and 8 are species-specific.

Molecular diagnosis and epidemiology of fungal infections.

A variety of methods are utilized for DNA strain subtyping of Candida spp. because no 'gold standard' exists. Random amplified polymorphic DNA (RAPD) or restriction enzyme analysis (REA) are useful to determine the source of an outbreak, but more reproducible and discriminatory methods such as Southern hybridization and pulsed field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) may be required. When applied to some nosocomial Candida infections, multiple strains and species have been identified. Microevolution of yeast species occurs and epidemiologically related isolates may show minor pattern differences, creating uncertainty as to whether they are distinct strains. Approximately 1000 isolates of Aspergillus fumigatus from environmental and clinical sources were typed by REA probed with an A. fumigatus-specific retrotransposon-like sequence. Patients with no symptom of aspergillosis may carry several strains, whereas patients with pulmonary aspergillosis may carry one or two strains; nocosomial transmission of aspergillosis was proven in 39% of the patients studied; any given environmental strain can be infectious; the environmental population of A. fumigatus is extremely diverse and no specific niche was found in the hospital. A PCR assay was designed to target conserved 18S-ribosomal DNA (rDNA) sequences shared by most fungi and a 687 bp product was amplified from 25 medically important fungal species. Studies with blood, cerebrospinal fluid and sputum specimens from patients with mycoses indicated that the PCR assay is more sensitive in diagnosing invasive fungal infections than blood culture methods. More specific identification is obtainable with genus/species-specif c probes designed from within the PCR-amplified sequences for C. albicans, C. krusei, C. lusitaniae, Pneumocystis carinii, Cryptococcus neoformans, Aspergillus/Penicillium spp. and C. glabrata/Saccharomyces cerevisiae. A. fumigatus and A. niger were differentiated by denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis. In situ hybridization (ISH) detected a 648 bp fragment of the 18S rDNA of C. neoformans and a 568 bp fragment of the alkaline proteinase gene of A. fumigatus in tissues from experimentally infected animals. In ISH, the entire process can be automated, making this procedure rapid and easy. The difficulty in establishing a diagnosis of invasive candidiasis has prompted the quest for a clinically useful PCR test for candidaemia. The universal fungal oligonucleotide primer pair, ITS3 and ITS4, amplifies portions of the 5.8S ad 28S rDNA subunits, and the ITS2 region. Although rRNA genes are highly conserved, the ITS regions are distinctive. DNA probes were designed from ITS2 that were specific for 16 different Candida species. Simple, rapid sample preparation was suitable for PCR analysis of BacT/Alert blood culture bottles. Sample preparation, PCR, and EIA detection of the amplicon from five different Candida species was accomplished in 7 h, 2.5 days sooner than by conventional culture methods. As well as saving time, minor yeast species among a major species, or among bacteria, were simultaneously detected. PCR-EIA using a microtitration plate format had sensitivity 10-times greater than that obtained with ethidium bromide-stained agarose gels. Taqman combines in one step PCR, probe hybridization, and fluorescent signal generation. Taqman PCR had sensitivity equivalent to PCR-EIA and required only 5 h, including sample preparation.

d-fenfluramine treatment of binge eating disorder.

OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study was to assess the efficacy of the appetite suppressant d-fenfluramine in the treatment of binge eating disorder. METHOD: The authors conducted an 8-week double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial of the drug with 28 severely obese female patients meeting full criteria for binge eating disorder. The primary outcome measure was number of binges per week, as recorded in binge diaries and reviewed weekly with the principal investigators. RESULTS: Random effects linear regression analysis showed that the rate of binge eating in the d-fenfluramine group fell three times more rapidly than that in the placebo group, a result that was both clinically and statistically significant. At 4-month follow-up the binge frequency of the d-fenfluramine group had increased to pretreatment levels and no longer differed from that of the placebo group. CONCLUSIONS: d-Fenfluramine reduced the frequency of binge eating by obese women with binge eating disorder.

Binge eating disorder and the night-eating syndrome.

OBJECTIVE: To determine in three samples of obese women the prevalence of two eating disorders--binge eating disorder and the night-eating syndrome. METHOD: Interviews utilizing standard criteria. For binge eating disorder: the consumption of large amounts of food in a discrete period of time together with a subjective sense of loss of control and no vomiting or laxative abuse. For the night-eating syndrome: morning anorexia, evening hyperphagia and insomnia. Determining the rate of binging among patients receiving a placebo. SUBJECTS: (1) 102 viewers of a television show describing binge eating disorder; (2) 50 participants in a trial of medication for this disorder and (3) 79 participants in a weight reduction program. RESULTS: In the television sample 19.6% of respondents and in the weight reduction sample 7.6% met criteria for binge eating disorder; all subjects in the medication sample met criteria. During a 4-week placebo period average binge frequency fell from 6.0 to 1.7 binges per week. The night-eating syndrome was manifested by 13.7% of the television sample, 8.9% of the weight reduction sample and 15.0% in the medication trial sample. There was little overlap between the two disorders. CONCLUSIONS: Binge eating disorder is far less frequent than has been believed on the basis of questionnaire studies and it is highly responsive to placebos. Frequency of the night-eating syndrome is comparable to that of binge eating disorder. Future studies should assess binge eating disorder by interview rather than by self-administered questionnaire.

Regiospecific intestinal absorption of the HIV protease inhibitor L-735,524 in beagle dogs.

PURPOSE: To evaluate regional intestinal absorption and the feasibility of sustained release dosage form development for an HIV protease inhibitor, L-735,524, METHODS: L-735,524 free base or sulfate salt was administered orally as suspension, solution or in solid dosage forms to fasted or fed Beagle dogs. Delayed-release dosage forms with "slow" or "fast" in vitro dissolution rates were evaluated in vivo to assess plasma concentration profiles. In addition, drug was administered directly into the jejunum or colon of animals, and drug concentrations determined in portal circulation to characterize absorption from these sites. RESULTS: L-735,524 sulfate was well absorbed orally form a solution or capsule formulation if fasted animals' stomachs were preacidified with citric acid solution. A free base suspension, delivered in divided doses to fed animals, was also well absorbed. Prototype extended release dosage forms of L-735,524 produced a reduction in peak plasma levels but failed to prolong absorption and extend plasma concentrations compared to an immediate release capsule. Administration of L-735,524 sulfate solution (pH < 3) as bolus solution or by infusion into the jejunum resulted in rapid but incomplete absorption compared to oral gavage. The free base suspension (pH 6.5) delivered into jejunal or colonic regions did not produce measurable systemic plasma concentrations. CONCLUSIONS: Extended release formulations did not prolong absorption of L-735,524 in dogs. Optimal L-735,524 absorption was dependent on solubility in an acidic environment in the duodenum.