Central serous chorioretinopathy secondary to intramuscular testosterone therapy.

Summary: A patient treated with intramuscular testosterone replacement therapy for primary hypogonadism developed blurred vision shortly after receiving his testosterone injection. The symptom resolved over subsequent weeks and recurred after his next injection. A diagnosis of central serous chorioretinopathy (CSR) was confirmed following ophthalmology review. A decision was made to change the patient's testosterone regime from this 12-weekly intramuscular injection to a daily topical testosterone gel, given the possibility that peak blood levels of testosterone following intramuscular injection were causing his ocular complaint. His CSR did not recur after this change in treatment. CSR secondary to testosterone therapy is a rare finding but has been reported previously in the literature. Learning Points: Blurred vision in patients treated with testosterone replacement therapy (TRT) should prompt an ophthalmology review. The potential for reduced risk of central serous chorioretinopathy (CSR) with daily transdermal testosterone remains a matter of conjecture. CSR is a rare potential side effect of TRT.

Epidemiology of and risk factors for mortality due to carbapenemase-producing organisms (CPO) in healthcare facilities.

BACKGROUND: Carbapenemase-producing organisms (CPO) have been largely responsible for the extensive spread of carbapenem resistance, and their prevalence is increasing in many parts of the world. AIM: To evaluate clinical and molecular epidemiology and mortality associated with CPO among patients. METHODS: All CPO from clinical and long-term healthcare surveillance cultures across Scotland in 2003-2017 were reviewed retrospectively. Polymerase chain reaction was used to detect genes coding for carbapenemases. A generalized linear mixed model was used to identify risk factors for mortality. FINDINGS: In total, 290 individuals with CPO were identified. The overall incidence increased over time (P<0.001) from 0.02 to 1.38 per 100,000 population between 2003 and 2017. A total of 243 distinct CPO isolates were obtained from 269 isolations in 214 individuals with available metadata. The majority of the isolates were Enterobacterales (206/243, 84.8%), and Klebsiella pneumoniae (65/206, 31.6%) and Enterobacter cloacae (52/206, 25.2%) were the most common species. VIM (75/243, 30.9%) and NDM (56/243, 23.0%) were the most common carbapenemases. The crude 30-day mortality rate was 11.8% (25/211), while the case fatality rate was 5.7% (12/211). Age >60 years [adjusted odds ratio (aOR) 3.36, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.06-10.63; P=0.033], presence of non-fermenters (aOR 4.88, 95% CI 1.64-14.47; P=0.005), and systemic infection or organ failure (aOR 4.21, 95% CI 1.38-12.81; P=0.032) were independently associated with 30-day mortality. CONCLUSION: The incidence of CPO in Scotland is low but increasing. Awareness is required that inpatients aged >60 years, patients with systemic infection or organ failure, and patients presenting with non-fermenters are at higher risk of death from CPO.

A Phase 2a Randomized, Double-Blind, Dose-Optimizing Study to Evaluate the Immunogenicity and Safety of a Bivalent DNA Vaccine for Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome Delivered by Intramuscular Electroporation.

Hantaan virus (HTNV) and Puumala virus (PUUV) are pathogenic hantaviruses found in Asia and Europe, respectively. DNA vaccines targeting the envelope glycoproteins of these viruses have been constructed and found to elicit neutralizing antibodies when delivered to humans by various technologies including intramuscular electroporation. Here, we report findings from a Phase 2a clinical trial of a combined HTNV/PUUV DNA vaccine delivered at varying doses and administration schedules using the Ichor Medical Systems TriGrid intramuscular electroporation delivery technology. The study was designed to characterize the effects of DNA vaccine dose and number of administrations on the frequency and magnitude of immunological response. Subjects (n = 120) were divided into four cohorts. Cohorts 1 and 2 received a dose of 2 mg of DNA (1 mg per plasmid), and cohorts 3 and 4 received a dose of 1 mg of DNA (0.5 mg per plasmid) each vaccination. Each of the four cohorts received a series of four administrations (days 0, 28, 56 and 168). For cohorts 1 and 3, the DNA vaccine candidate was delivered at each of the four administrations. For cohorts 2 and 4, in order to maintain blinding, subjects received the DNA vaccine on days 0, 56 and 168, but on day 28 received only the phosphate buffered saline vehicle rather the DNA vaccine. Sera were collected on days 0, 28, 56, 84, 140, 168, 196, 252 and 365 and evaluated for the presence of neutralizing antibodies by PUUV and HTNV pseudovirion neutralization assays (PsVNAs). Day 84 was also evaluated by a plaque reduction neutralization test (PRNT). Overall the PsVNA50 geometric mean titers (GMTs) and seropositivity rates among cohorts were similar. Cohort 3 exhibited the highest frequency of subjects that became seropositive to both PUUV and HTNV after vaccination, the highest peak GMT against both viruses, and the highest median titers against both viruses.

Single-source dual-energy spectral multidetector CT of pancreatic adenocarcinoma: optimization of energy level viewing significantly increases lesion contrast.

AIM: To evaluate lesion contrast in pancreatic adenocarcinoma patients using spectral multidetector computed tomography (MDCT) analysis. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The present institutional review board-approved, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)-compliant retrospective study evaluated 64 consecutive adults with pancreatic adenocarcinoma examined using a standardized, multiphasic protocol on a single-source, dual-energy MDCT system. Pancreatic phase images (35 s) were acquired in dual-energy mode; unenhanced and portal venous phases used standard MDCT. Lesion contrast was evaluated on an independent workstation using dual-energy analysis software, comparing tumour to non-tumoural pancreas attenuation (HU) differences and tumour diameter at three energy levels: 70 keV; individual subject-optimized viewing energy level (based on the maximum contrast-to-noise ratio, CNR); and 45 keV. The image noise was measured for the same three energies. Differences in lesion contrast, diameter, and noise between the different energy levels were analysed using analysis of variance (ANOVA). Quantitative differences in contrast gain between 70 keV and CNR-optimized viewing energies, and between CNR-optimized and 45 keV were compared using the paired t-test. RESULTS: Thirty-four women and 30 men (mean age 68 years) had a mean tumour diameter of 3.6 cm. The median optimized energy level was 50 keV (range 40-77). The mean ± SD lesion contrast values (non-tumoural pancreas - tumour attenuation) were: 57 ± 29, 115 ± 70, and 146 ± 74 HU (p = 0.0005); the lengths of the tumours were: 3.6, 3.3, and 3.1 cm, respectively (p = 0.026); and the contrast to noise ratios were: 24 ± 7, 39 ± 12, and 59 ± 17 (p = 0.0005) for 70 keV, the optimized energy level, and 45 keV, respectively. For individuals, the mean ± SD contrast gain from 70 keV to the optimized energy level was 59 ± 45 HU; and the mean ± SD contrast gain from the optimized energy level to 45 keV was 31 ± 25 HU (p = 0.007). CONCLUSION: Significantly increased pancreatic lesion contrast was noted at lower viewing energies using spectral MDCT. Individual patient CNR-optimized energy level images have the potential to improve lesion conspicuity.

An analysis of Q fever patients 6 years after an outbreak in Newport, Wales, UK.

BACKGROUND: A cohort of 211 factory workers was exposed to a point source of Q fever in 2002. A total of 38 cases and 14 controls took part in a follow-up study 6 years after the outbreak. AIM: To compare Q fever serology, the presence of viable Coxiella burnetii, its DNA and fatigue between patients and controls. DESIGN: Laboratory case study. METHODS: Q fever serology was by microimmunofluroescence. Viable C. burnetii was detected by VERO cell culture and SCID mice inoculation with patient blood samples. Coxiella burnetii DNA was detected by qPCR (com1 gene) on patients' PBMC and on VERO cultures after 6 weeks incubation. Fatigue was measured by the Chalder Fatigue Scale. RESULT: At 6 years after the outbreak, 7 of the 38 patients had become seronegative and 4 of the 14 of the controls had become seropositive for Q fever. None of the patient/control peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) contained viable C. burnetii by VERO cell culture or by SCID mouse inoculation (death or splenomegaly) and none contained C. burnetii DNA by qPCR. CONCLUSION: Six years after acute Q fever, some patients had become seronegative but none contained viable C. burnetii or its DNA in their PBMC.

A comparison of methods for extracting DNA from Coxiella burnetii as measured by a duplex qPCR assay.

AIMS: To determine the optimal DNA extraction method for the detection of Coxiella burnetii including the small-cell variant (SCV) by real-time PCR (qPCR) in clinical samples. METHODS AND RESULTS: A duplex qPCR detecting two Coxiella burnetii gene targets (com1 and IS1111a genes) was developed. Each target in this PCR had a sensitivity of one copy number per reaction. DNA extraction methods were compared on spiked negative samples and included a silica column kit, a chloroform separation prior to a silica column method and a chloroform/phenol separation and DNA precipitation method. CONCLUSIONS: The silica column extraction method was more efficient at recovering C. burnetii DNA, from large-cell and small-cell variants, than a chloroform or chloroform/phenol method. The silica column method was useful on spiked human samples including serum, buffy coat and bone marrow samples. SIGNIFICANCE AND IMPACT OF STUDY: This study demonstrated that a simple column kit method is efficient to use for the detection of C. burnetii in clinical samples including the SCV.

Long-term persistence after acute Q fever of non-infective Coxiella burnetii cell components, including antigens.

BACKGROUND: Previous studies of inciting factors for a prolonged post-infection fatigue syndrome after Q fever (variously termed QFS or Q fever associated CFS/ME in the literature) showed that after the acute infection a high proportion of asymptomatic and QFS patients had Q fever antibody and also low levels in PBMC and bone marrow of Coxiella burnetii (C.b.) DNA with PCR assays directed against three different target sequences in different parts of the coxiella genome. Attempts to isolate a strain of C.b. in A/J mice, and cell culture from PCR positive PBMC and bone marrow were consistently negative. The detailed composition of the persisting coxiella residues remains to be defined. AIM: To retest and provide detailed results on selected PCR positive samples from the Birmingham Q fever outbreak patients tested by a highly sensitive method to detect viable organisms and to determine the nature of the residual coxiella cell components. DESIGN: Laboratory case study. METHODS: NOD/SCID mice were inoculated with samples from the 1989 Q fever outbreak in Birmingham and followed for evidence of infection and the presence of coxiella DNA and specific antigens in spleen and liver macrophages. A significant, unexpected finding of specific antigen was followed by assessment of its ability to provoke production of inflammatory and non-inflammatory cytokines in mice, in THP-1 human macrophage cell cultures and to induce inflammatory lesions in the skin of guinea pigs hyperimmunized against Q fever vaccine. RESULTS: Culture of samples from 10 Birmingham Q fever patients in NOD/SCID mice, 12 years from infection did not yield viable Coxiella burnetii, as shown earlier. However complexes of material with coxiella antigens were found in mouse spleens in all cases but in significantly greater amounts in samples from those with post Q fever fatigue syndrome. The antigenic complexes [now designated 'immunomodulatory complexes' (IMC)] were shown to stimulate cytokine release in the mice and in the THP-1 macrophages and to provoke an inflammatory reaction on intradermal injection into the skin of Q fever hyperimmunized guinea pigs. CONCLUSION: The study identifies a non-infective complex of C.b. antigens able to survive in the host and provoke aberrant humoral and cell medicated immunity responses - a possible pathogenic link between initial infection and a subsequent long-term post Q fever fatigue syndrome.

Size and albedo of Kuiper belt object 55636 from a stellar occultation.

The Kuiper belt is a collection of small bodies (Kuiper belt objects, KBOs) that lie beyond the orbit of Neptune and which are believed to have formed contemporaneously with the planets. Their small size and great distance make them difficult to study. KBO 55636 (2002 TX(300)) is a member of the water-ice-rich Haumea KBO collisional family. The Haumea family are among the most highly reflective objects in the Solar System. Dynamical calculations indicate that the collision that created KBO 55636 occurred at least 1 Gyr ago. Here we report observations of a multi-chord stellar occultation by KBO 55636, which occurred on 9 October 2009 ut. We find that it has a mean radius of 143 +/- 5 km (assuming a circular solution). Allowing for possible elliptical shapes, we find a geometric albedo of in the V photometric band, which establishes that KBO 55636 is smaller than previously thought and that, like its parent body, it is highly reflective. The dynamical age implies either that KBO 55636 has an active resurfacing mechanism, or that fresh water-ice in the outer Solar System can persist for gigayear timescales.

Q fever: persistence of antigenic non-viable cell residues of Coxiella burnetii in the host--implications for post Q fever infection fatigue syndrome and other chronic sequelae.

BACKGROUND: Our previous studies of persistence of Coxiella burnetii in humans after an initial acute Q fever infection revealed raised, maintained antibody levels and low levels of coxiella genomic DNA at the age of 5 years from onset in Australian patients and at 12 years in patients in the 1989 Birmingham UK Q fever outbreak. Attempts to isolate the coxiella in standard cell culture and susceptible mice by serial passage of PCR positive PBMC and bone marrow were negative. AIM: To retest PCR positive patient samples by more sensitive methods for viable coxiellas and for the coxiella cell components of antigen and specific lipopolysaccharide (LPS). To re-interpret the previous results in the light of the new information. To review the pertinent literature for a concept of an immuno-modulatory complex generated by the current studies. DESIGN: Laboratory case study. METHODS: Stored patient samples were inoculated into SCID mice that were followed for 60 days. Mouse spleen and liver samples were then examined by PCR assay for targets in the COM1 and IS1111a sequences and for antigens by IFA with a polyclonal rabbit antiserum to C. burnetii Phase 1 and a monoclonal antiserum to Phase 1 LPS (details; O. Sukocheva et al., unpublished data). RESULTS: All specimens, including a recently excised heart valve from a Birmingham patient with late developing endocarditis, were infection negative in SCID mice. Dilutions of SCID mouse spleen and liver homogenates titrated in PCR assays were negative at dilutions attained by control mice inoculated with an endpoint dilution of a viable prototype strain of C. burnetii. Sections of the spleens from all specimens showed a complex of coxiella antigen-LPS by IFA. DISCUSSION/REVIEW: We advance a concept of long-term persistence of a non-infective, non-biodegraded complex of coxiella cell components with its antigens and specific LPS [so called Immunomodulatory complex (IMC)] associated with traces of genomic DNA that signalled its presence in our earlier studies. The IMC's survival in patients for at least 12 years, and in one patient for 70 years implies a capacity for serial passage in macrophages with effective down-regulation of their biodegrading functions. The review assesses the compatibility of the IMC concept in relation to cogent literature on C. burnetii interactions with macrophage and cell-mediated immunity. Some remaining gaps in our knowledge of the organ sites and duration of carriage of viable coxiellas after initial infection are also identified.

Pseudoephedrine and guaifenesin urolithiasis: widening the differential diagnosis of radiolucent calculi on abdominal radiograph.

Unenhanced helical computed tomography has played an increasingly important role in the management of urinary tract stones, guiding diagnosis and control of calculus disease. We report computed tomographic and radiographic appearances of a renal calculus composed of pseudoephedrine and guaifenesin in a patient who abused over-the-counter allergy medication.

Effect of preoperative sonographic mapping on vascular access outcomes in hemodialysis patients.

BACKGROUND: Current DOQI guidelines encourage placing arteriovenous (AV) fistulas in more hemodialysis patients. However, many new fistulas fail to mature sufficiently to be usable for hemodialysis. Preoperative vascular mapping to identify suitable vessels may improve vascular access outcomes. The present study prospectively evaluated the effect of routine preoperative vascular mapping on the type of vascular accesses placed and their outcomes. METHODS: During a 17-month period, preoperative sonographic evaluation of the upper extremity arteries and veins was obtained routinely. The surgeons used the information obtained to plan the vascular access procedure. The types of access placed, their initial adequacy for dialysis, and their long-term outcomes were compared to institutional historical controls placed on the basis of physical examination alone. RESULTS: The proportion of fistulas placed increased from 34% during the historical control period to 64% with preoperative vascular mapping (P < 0.001). When all fistulas were assessed, the initial adequacy rate for dialysis increased mildly from 46 to 54% (P = 0.34). For the subset of forearm fistulas, the initial adequacy increased substantially from 34 to 54% (P = 0.06); the greatest improvement occurred among women (from 7 to 36%, P = 0.06) and diabetic patients (from 21 to 50%, P = 0.055). In contrast, the initial adequacy rate of upper arm fistulas was not improved by preoperative vascular mapping (59 vs. 56%, P = 0.75). Primary access failure was higher for fistulas than grafts (46.4 vs. 20.6%, P = 0.001), but the subsequent long-term failure rate was higher for grafts than fistulas (P < 0.05). Moreover, grafts required a threefold higher intervention rate (1.67 vs. 0.57 per year, P < 0.001) to maintain their patency. The overall effect of this strategy was to double the proportion of patients dialyzing with a fistula in our population from 16 to 34% (P < 0.001). CONCLUSIONS: Routine preoperative vascular mapping results in a marked increase in placement of AV fistulas, as well as an improvement in the adequacy of forearm fistulas for dialysis. This approach resulted in a substantial increase in the proportion of patients dialyzing with a fistula in our patient population. Fistulas have a higher primary failure rate than grafts, but have a lower subsequent failure rate and require fewer procedures to maintain their long-term patency.

Characterization of the immunophenotype and the metastatic properties of a murine T-lymphoma cell line. Unexpected expression of cytoplasmatic CD4.

We report the first characterization of a mouse T-lymphoma cell line that surprisingly expresses cytoplasmatic (cy) yCD4. Phenotypically, LBC cells are CD5+, CD8+, CD16+, CD24+, CD25+, CD2-/dim, CD3-/dim, TCRbeta-/dim, TCRgammadelta, CD154 , CD40-, and CD45R. Coexpress cyTCRbeta, cyCD3, cyCD4, and yet lack surface CD4 expression. Transplantation of LBC cells into mice resulted in an aggressive T-lymphoblastic lymphoma that infiltrated lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, liver, ovary, and uterus but not peripheral blood or bone marrow. LBC cells display a modal chromosome number of 39 and a near-diploid karyotype. Based on the characterization data, we demonstrated that the LBC cell line was derived from an early T-cell lymphocyte precursor. We propose that the malignant cell transformation of LBC cells could coincide with the transition stage from late double-negative, DN3 (CD4- CD8 CD44-/low, CD25+) or DN4 (CD4-low, CD8-/low, CD44-, CD25-) to double-positive (DP: CD4+CD8+) stage of T-cell development. LBC cells provide a T-lymphoblastic lymphoma model derived from a malignant early T-lymphocyte that can be potentially useful as a model to study both cellular regulation and differentiation of T-cells. In addition, LBC tumor provides a short latency neoplasm to study cellular regulation and to perform preclinical trials of lymphoma-relatel clisorders.

Dysfunction of endothelial protein C activation in severe meningococcal sepsis.

BACKGROUND: Impairment of the protein C anticoagulation pathway is critical to the thrombosis associated with sepsis and to the development of purpura fulminans in meningococcemia. We studied the expression of thrombomodulin and the endothelial protein C receptor in the dermal microvasculature of children with severe meningococcemia and purpuric or petechial lesions. METHODS: We assessed the integrity of the endothelium and the expression of thrombomodulin and the endothelial protein C receptor in biopsy specimens of purpuric lesions from 21 children with meningococcal sepsis (median age, 41 months), as compared with control skin-biopsy specimens. RESULTS: The expression of endothelial thrombomodulin and of the endothelial protein C receptor was lower in the patients with meningococcal sepsis than in the controls, both in vessels with thrombosis and in vessels without thrombosis. On electron microscopical examination, the endothelial cells were generally intact in both thrombosed and nonthrombosed vessels. Plasma thrombomodulin levels in the children with meningococcal sepsis (median, 6.4 ng per liter) were higher than those in the controls (median, 3.6 ng per liter; P=0.002). Plasma levels, protein C antigen, protein S antigen, and antithrombin antigen were lower than those in the controls. In two patients treated with unactivated protein C concentrate, activated protein C was undetectable at the time of admission, and plasma levels remained low. CONCLUSIONS: In severe meningococcal sepsis, protein C activation is impaired, a finding consistent with down-regulation of the endothelial thrombomodulin-endothelial protein C receptor pathway.

Expression of CD44 splice variants in spontaneous murine tumors.

CD44 is a widely distributed set of cell surface glycoproteins expressed in several types of cells and tissues, implicated in cell-cell and cell-substrate interactions. This molecule plays a major role in cell differentiation, development and activation and has also been described as a potential marker of malignancy and metastasis. In the present study we investigated by RT-PCR followed by exon specific amplification the expression of CD44 splice variants in four different murine tumors as well as in the invaded organs in order to correlate the expression of CD44 variants with potential tumor invasiveness and their implications for growth. Our data showed deregulation in the expression of CD44 isoforms but no discernible correlation in isoform expression pattern. However, in all tumors studied isoforms presented by the primary tumor were detected in the invaded organs before metastasis could be demonstrated by histopathological analysis.

Endothelial cell protein C receptor plays an important role in protein C activation in vivo.

Endothelial cell protein C receptor (EPCR) augments protein C activation by the thrombin-thrombomodulin complex about 5-fold in vitro. Augmentation is EPCR concentration dependent even when the EPCR concentration is in excess of the thrombomodulin. EPCR is expressed preferentially on large blood vessel endothelium, raising questions about the importance of protein C-EPCR interaction for augmenting systemic protein C activation. In these studies, this question was addressed directly by infusing thrombin into baboons in the presence or absence of a monoclonal antibody to EPCR that blocks protein C binding. Activated protein C levels were then measured directly by capturing the enzyme on a monoclonal antibody and assaying with chromogenic substrate. Blocking protein C-EPCR interaction resulted in about an 88% decrease in circulating activated protein C levels generated in response to thrombin infusion. Leukocyte changes, fibrinogen consumption, fibrin degradation products, and vital signs were similar between the animals infused with thrombin alone and those infused with thrombin and the anti-EPCR antibody. The results indicate that EPCR plays a major role in protein C activation and suggest that defects in the EPCR gene might contribute to increased risk of thrombosis.

Induction of apoptosis in murine lymphoma cells by cyclosporin A.

The aim of this study was to investigate if CsA could induce apoptosis in the murine T-lymphoma cell line LBC, whose growth is inhibited by this immunosuppressive drug. CsA induced programmed cell death in LBC cells with typical features of apoptosis demonstrated by exposure of phosphatidyl serine residues on the cell membrane, the decrease of cell DNA content, chromatin condensation, and nuclear fragmentation. Apoptosis was evident within 12 h after CsA incubation, with a maximal effect at 48 h, in a time and dose-dependent fashion. In addition, the role of apoptosis inhibitors (Bcl-2 and Bcl-x) and the apoptosis inducer (Bax) in CsA induced-apoptosis was evaluated. The expression of Bcl-2 and Bax proteins were high in LBC cells and following CsA treatment the expression of these proteins as well as Bcl-XL decreased. In this work we demonstrated that cell growth inhibition following CsA treatment in LBC was paralleled by the induction of apoptosis thus providing an interesting animal model to identify the mechanism participating in the regulation of apoptotic genes by CsA in T-cell neoplasms and to assess preclinical in vivo trials of T-cell lymphoma-related disorders.

Splice variant expression of CD44 in patients with breast and ovarian cancer.

CD44 is an adhesion molecule involved in many biological functions and has been described to play a role in tumor progression as well as in promotion of metastasis. It has also been suggested that expression of certain CD44 isoforms could be useful for breast and ovarian cancer screening, detection or staging. However, many other reports document no correlation between CD44 isoform expression and tumor malignancy. In light of such contradictory findings, we evaluated by exon-specific RT-PCR whether the expression of CD44 isoforms in breast and ovarian tumors correlated with any of the diagnostic criteria used to assess these diseases. We found a deregulation in the CD44 expression pattern in malignant tumors of both type of cancer compared with the one in benign tumors or normal tissue. However, we could not find a clear correlation between this deregulation or a given CD44 isoform and any diagnostic criteria evaluated, such as age, clinical data, tumor size, hormone receptor status, histological grade or aggressiveness.

Hemodialysis access ultrasound.

Maintenance of hemodialysis graft and fistula patency is becoming even more important as the number of patients with end-stage renal disease increases. There are two major categories of dialysis access: native arteriovenous fistula (AVF) and synthetic arteriovenous graft. Arteriovenous fistulas have superior longevity after maturation and are the recommended type of hemodialysis access, if possible. However, AVFs have a higher rate of primary failure as compared with grafts. Close monitoring has been shown to prolong access survival. Ultrasound is a noninvasive means of imaging for access complications. Ultrasound is sensitive in detection of access or draining vein stenosis. Ultrasound is also useful in the evaluation of other graft or fistula abnormalities, such as pseudoaneurysm, steal, or infection. Careful attention to technical detail is required, and avoidance of several diagnostic pitfalls is necessary.