Female genital schistosomiasis burden and risk factors in two endemic areas in Malawi nested in the Morbidity Operational Research for Bilharziasis Implementation Decisions (MORBID) cross-sectional study.

BACKGROUND: Female genital schistosomiasis (FGS), caused by the parasite Schistosoma haematobium (Sh), is prevalent in Sub-Saharan Africa. FGS is associated with sexual dysfunction and reproductive morbidity, and increased prevalence of HIV and cervical precancerous lesions. Lack of approved guidelines for FGS screening and diagnosis hinder accurate disease burden estimation. This study evaluated FGS burden in two Sh-endemic areas in Southern Malawi by visual and molecular diagnostic methods. METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: Women aged 15-65, sexually active, not menstruating, or pregnant, were enrolled from the MORBID study. A midwife completed a questionnaire, obtained cervicovaginal swab and lavage, and assessed FGS-associated genital lesions using hand-held colposcopy. 'Visual-FGS' was defined as specific genital lesions. 'Molecular-FGS' was defined as Sh DNA detected by real-time PCR from swabs. Microscopy detected urinary Sh egg-patent infection. In total, 950 women completed the questionnaire (median age 27, [IQR] 20-38). Visual-and molecular-FGS prevalence were 26·9% (260/967) and 8·2% (78/942), respectively. 6·5% of women with available genital and urinary samples (38/584) had egg-patent Sh infection. There was a positive significant association between molecular- and visual-FGS (AOR = 2·9, 95%CI 1·7-5·0). 'Molecular-FGS' was associated with egg-patent Sh infection (AOR = 7·5, 95% CI 3·27-17·2). Some villages had high 'molecular-FGS' prevalence, despite <10% prevalence of urinary Sh among school-age children. CONCLUSIONS/SIGNIFICANCE: Southern Malawi carries an under-recognized FGS burden. FGS was detectable in villages not eligible for schistosomiasis control strategies, potentially leaving girls and women untreated under current WHO guidelines. Validated field-deployable methods could be considered for new control strategies.

Automating the Illumina DNA library preparation kit for whole genome sequencing applications on the flowbot ONE liquid handler robot.

Whole-genome sequencing (WGS) is currently making its transition from research tool into routine (clinical) diagnostic practice. The workflow for WGS includes the highly labor-intensive library preparations (LP), one of the most critical steps in the WGS procedure. Here, we describe the automation of the LP on the flowbot ONE robot to minimize the risk of human error and reduce hands-on time (HOT). For this, the robot was equipped, programmed, and optimized to perform the Illumina DNA Prep automatically. Results obtained from 16 LP that were performed both manually and automatically showed comparable library DNA yields (median of 1.5-fold difference), similar assembly quality values, and 100% concordance on the final core genome multilocus sequence typing results. In addition, reproducibility of results was confirmed by re-processing eight of the 16 LPs using the automated workflow. With the automated workflow, the HOT was reduced to 25 min compared to the 125 min needed when performing eight LPs using the manual workflow. The turn-around time was 170 and 200 min for the automated and manual workflow, respectively. In summary, the automated workflow on the flowbot ONE generates consistent results in terms of reliability and reproducibility, while significantly reducing HOT as compared to manual LP.

A multicenter evaluation of the QIAstat-Dx meningitis-encephalitis syndromic test kit as compared to the conventional diagnostic microbiology workflow.

PURPOSE: Rapid diagnosis and treatment of infectious meningitis and encephalitis (ME) is critical to minimize morbidity and mortality. Recently, Qiagen introduced the CE-IVD QIAstat-Dx ME panel (QS-ME) for syndromic diagnostic testing of meningitis and encephalitis. Some data on the performance of the QS-ME in comparison to the BioFire FilmArray ME panel are available. In this study, the performance of the QS-ME is compared to the current diagnostic workflow in two academic medical centers in the Netherlands. METHODS: A total of 110 cerebrospinal fluid samples were retrospectively tested with the QS-ME. The results obtained were compared to the results of laboratory-developed real-time PCR assays (LDTs), IS-pro, bacterial culture, and cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) testing. In addition, the accuracy of the QS-ME was also investigated using an external quality assessment (EQA) panel consisting of ten samples. RESULTS: Four of the 110 samples tested failed to produce a valid QS-ME result. In the remaining 106 samples, the QS-ME detected 53/53 viral targets, 38/40 bacterial targets, and 7/13 Cryptococcus neoformans targets. The discrepant bacterial results consisted of two samples that were previously tested positive for Listeria monocytogenes (CT 35.8) and Streptococcus pneumoniae (CT 40), respectively. The QS-ME detected one additional result, consisting of a varicella-zoster virus signal (CT 35.9), in a sample in which both techniques detected Streptococcus pyogenes. Finally, 100% concordance was achieved in testing a blinded bacterial ME EQA panel. CONCLUSION: The QS-ME is a relevant addition to the syndromic testing landscape to assist in diagnosing infectious ME.

A core-genome multilocus sequence typing scheme for the detection of genetically related Streptococcus pyogenes clusters.

The recently observed increase in invasive Streptococcus pyogenes infections causes concern in Europe. However, conventional molecular typing methods lack discriminatory power to aid investigations of outbreaks caused by S. pyogenes. Therefore, there is an urgent need for high-resolution molecular typing methods to assess genetic relatedness between S. pyogenes isolates. In the current study, we aimed to develop a novel high-resolution core-genome multilocus sequence typing (cgMLST) scheme for S. pyogenes and compared its discriminatory power to conventional molecular typing methods. The cgMLST scheme was designed with the commercial Ridom SeqSphere+ software package. To define a cluster threshold, the scheme was evaluated using publicly available data from nine defined S. pyogenes outbreaks in the United Kingdom. The cgMLST scheme was then applied to 23 isolates from a suspected S. pyogenes outbreak and 117 S. pyogenes surveillance isolates both from the Netherlands. MLST and emm-typing results were used for comparison to cgMLST results. The allelic differences between isolates from defined outbreaks ranged between 6 and 31 for isolates with the same emm-type, resulting in a proposed cluster threshold of <5 allelic differences out of 1,095 target loci. Seven out of twenty-three (30%) isolates from the suspected outbreak had an allelic difference of <2, thereby identifying a potential cluster that could not be linked to other isolates. The proposed cgMLST scheme shows a higher discriminatory ability when compared to conventional typing methods. The rapid and simple analysis workflow allows for extended detection of clusters of potential outbreak isolates and surveillance and may facilitate the sharing of sequencing results between (inter)national laboratories.

Multicenter performance evaluation of the Alinity m CMV assay for quantifying cytomegalovirus DNA in plasma samples.

Monitoring of cytomegalovirus (CMV) viral load is critical for informing treatment decisions in order to prevent the severe health consequences of CMV infection or reactivation of latent CMV in immunocompromised individuals. This first field evaluation examined the analytical and clinical performance of the Alinity m CMV assay. Analytical performance was assessed with a commercially available six-member panel, while the clinical performance evaluation compared the Alinity m CMV assay to the RealTime CMV assay and a laboratory-developed test (LDT) as the test of record at three large hospital-based clinical laboratories. Precision of the Alinity m CMV assay was demonstrated with total standard deviation (SD) between 0.08 and 0.28 Log IU/mL. A total of 457 plasma specimens were tested on the Alinity m CMV assay and compared to the test of record at each site (n = 304 with RealTime CMV and n = 153 with LDT CMV). The Alinity m CMV assay had excellent correlation (correlation coefficient r ≥0.942) in comparison to the RealTime CMV or LDT CMV assays. The mean observed bias ranged from -0.03 to 0.34 Log IU/mL. Median onboard turnaround time of Alinity m CMV was less than 3 h. When the CMV assay is run on the Alinity m system, it has the capacity to shorten time to result and, therefore, to therapy.

Multi-site performance evaluation of the Alinity m Molecular assay for quantifying Epstein-Barr virus DNA in plasma samples.

Detection and monitoring of acute infection or reactivation of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) are critical for treatment decision-making and to reduce the risk of EBV-related malignancies and other associated diseases in immunocompromised individuals. The analytical and clinical performance of the Alinity m EBV assay was evaluated at two independent study sites; analytical performance was assessed by evaluating precision with a commercially available 5-member EBV verification panel, while the clinical performance of the Alinity m EBV assay was compared to the RealTime EBV assay and a laboratory-developed test (LDT) as the routine test of record (TOR). Analytical analysis demonstrated standard deviation (SD) between 0.08 and 0.13 Log IU/mL. A total of 300 remnant plasma specimens were retested with the Alinity m EBV assay, and results were compared to those of the TOR at the respective study sites (n = 148 with the RealTime EBV assay and n = 152 with the LDT EBV assay). Agreement between Alinity m EBV and RealTime EBV or LDT EBV assays had kappa values of 0.88 and 0.84, respectively, with correlation coefficients r of 0.956 and 0.912, while the corresponding observed mean bias was -0.02 and -0.19 Log IU/mL. The Alinity m EBV assay had a short median onboard turnaround time of 2:40 h. Thus, the Alinity m system can shorten the time to results and, therefore, to therapy.

Causal chemoprophylactic activity of cabamiquine against Plasmodium falciparum in a controlled human malaria infection: a randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled study in the Netherlands.

BACKGROUND: Cabamiquine is a novel antimalarial that inhibits Plasmodium falciparum translation elongation factor 2. We investigated the causal chemoprophylactic activity and dose-exposure-response relationship of single oral doses of cabamiquine following the direct venous inoculation (DVI) of P falciparum sporozoites in malaria-naive, healthy volunteers. METHODS: This was a phase 1b, randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled, adaptive, dose-finding, single-centre study performed in Leiden, Netherlands. Malaria-naive, healthy adults aged 18-45 years were divided into five cohorts and randomly assigned (3:1) to receive cabamiquine or placebo. Randomisation was done by an independent statistician using codes in a permuted block schedule with a block size of four. Participants, investigators, and study personnel were masked to treatment allocation. A single, oral dose regimen of cabamiquine (200, 100, 80, 60, or 30 mg) or matching placebo was administered either at 2 h (early liver-stage) or 96 h (late liver-stage) after DVI. The primary endpoints based on a per-protocol analysis set were the number of participants who developed parasitaemia within 28 days of DVI, time to parasitaemia, number of participants with documented parasite blood-stage growth, clinical symptoms of malaria, and exposure-efficacy modelling. The impact of cabamiquine on liver stages was evaluated indirectly by the appearance of parasitaemia in the blood. The Clopper-Pearson CI (nominal 95%) was used to express the protection rate. The secondary outcomes were safety and tolerability, assessed in those who had received DVI and were administered one dose of the study intervention. The trial was prospectively registered on ClinicalTrials.gov (NCT04250363). FINDINGS: Between Feb 17, 2020 and April 29, 2021, 39 healthy participants were enrolled (early liver-stage: 30 mg [n=3], 60 mg [n=6], 80 mg [n=6], 100 mg [n=3], 200 mg [n=3], pooled placebo [n=6]; late liver-stage: 60 mg [n=3], 100 mg [n=3], 200 mg [n=3], pooled placebo [n=3]). A dose-dependent causal chemoprophylactic effect was observed, with four (67%) of six participants in the 60 mg, five (83%) of six participants in the 80 mg, and all three participants in the 100 and 200 mg cabamiquine dose groups protected from parasitaemia up to study day 28, whereas all participants in the pooled placebo and 30 mg cabamiquine dose group developed parasitaemia. A single, oral dose of 100 mg cabamiquine or higher provided 100% protection against parasitaemia when administered during early or late liver-stage malaria. The median time to parasitaemia in those with early liver-stage malaria was prolonged to 15, 22, and 24 days for the 30, 60, and 80 mg dose of cabamiquine, respectively, compared with 10 days for the pooled placebo. All participants with positive parasitaemia showed documented blood-stage parasite growth, apart from one participant in the pooled placebo group and one participant in the 30 mg cabamiquine group. Most participants did not exhibit any malaria symptoms in both the early and late liver-stage groups, and those reported were mild in severity. A positive dose-exposure-efficacy relationship was established across exposure metrics. The median maximum concentration time was 1-6 h, with a secondary peak observed between 6 h and 12 h in all cabamiquine dose groups (early liver-stage). All cabamiquine doses were safe and well tolerated. Overall, 26 (96%) of 27 participants in the early liver-stage group and ten (83·3%) of 12 participants in the late liver-stage group reported at least one treatment-emergent adverse event (TEAE) with cabamiquine or placebo. Most TEAEs were of mild severity, transient, and resolved without sequelae. The most frequently reported cabamiquine-related TEAE was headache. No dose-related trends were observed in the incidence, severity, or causality of TEAEs. INTERPRETATION: The results from this study show that cabamiquine has a dose-dependent causal chemoprophylactic activity. Together with previously demonstrated activity against the blood stages combined with a half-life of more than 150 h, these results indicate that cabamiquine could be developed as a single-dose monthly regimen for malaria prevention. FUNDING: The healthcare business of Merck KGaA, Darmstadt, Germany.

Improved Diagnostics in Bacterial Neonatal Meningitis Using a Next-Generation Sequencing Platform.

INTRODUCTION: Bacterial meningitis in infants is an infrequent but life-threatening condition. Empiric therapy should begin as soon as meningitis is thought likely. Consequently, the causative microorganisms may not always be detected using culturing techniques, as cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cultures are influenced by antibiotics. Nucleic acid amplification tests, such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR) (multiplex panels), may overcome this limitation but require a priori knowledge of the likely pathogen present within the sample. With this in mind, we investigated to what extent a culture-free, broad-range 16S rRNA gene next-generation sequencing (NGS) platform (MYcrobiota) could add to the microbiological diagnosis of meningitis. METHODS: Retrospective cohort study at level III neonatal intensive care unit. Included were all infants with suspected meningitis admitted between 10 November 2017 and 31 December 2020. A comparison was made of the bacterial pathogen detection rate between MYcrobiota and conventional bacterial culture. RESULTS: In a 3-year period, 37 CSF samples (diagnostic and follow-up) from 35 infants with proven or possible meningitis were available for MYcrobiota testing. MYcrobiota detected the presence of bacterial pathogens in 11 samples (30%), in contrast with the conventional CSF culture, which detected bacteria in 2 of 36 samples (5.6%). CONCLUSION: Addition of 16S rRNA sequencing to conventional culturing greatly improved the identification of the aetiology of bacterial meningitis compared to culturing of CSF samples alone.

Creation and preclinical evaluation of genetically attenuated malaria parasites arresting growth late in the liver.

Whole-sporozoite (WSp) malaria vaccines induce protective immune responses in animal malaria models and in humans. A recent clinical trial with a WSp vaccine comprising genetically attenuated parasites (GAP) which arrest growth early in the liver (PfSPZ-GA1), showed that GAPs can be safely administered to humans and immunogenicity is comparable to radiation-attenuated PfSPZ Vaccine. GAPs that arrest late in the liver stage (LA-GAP) have potential for increased potency as shown in rodent malaria models. Here we describe the generation of four putative P. falciparum LA-GAPs, generated by CRISPR/Cas9-mediated gene deletion. One out of four gene-deletion mutants produced sporozoites in sufficient numbers for further preclinical evaluation. This mutant, PfΔmei2, lacking the mei2-like RNA gene, showed late liver growth arrest in human liver-chimeric mice with human erythrocytes, absence of unwanted genetic alterations and sensitivity to antimalarial drugs. These features of PfΔmei2 make it a promising vaccine candidate, supporting further clinical evaluation. PfΔmei2 (GA2) has passed regulatory approval for safety and efficacy testing in humans based on the findings reported in this study.

Immune Determinants of Viral Clearance in Hospitalised COVID-19 Patients: Reduced Circulating Naïve CD4+ T Cell Counts Correspond with Delayed Viral Clearance.

Virus-specific cellular and humoral responses are major determinants for protection from critical illness after SARS-CoV-2 infection. However, the magnitude of the contribution of each of the components to viral clearance remains unclear. Here, we studied the timing of viral clearance in relation to 122 immune parameters in 102 hospitalised patients with moderate and severe COVID-19 in a longitudinal design. Delayed viral clearance was associated with more severe disease and was associated with higher levels of SARS-CoV-2-specific (neutralising) antibodies over time, increased numbers of neutrophils, monocytes, basophils, and a range of pro-inflammatory cyto-/chemokines illustrating ongoing, partially Th2 dominating, immune activation. In contrast, early viral clearance and less critical illness correlated with the peak of neutralising antibodies, higher levels of CD4 T cells, and in particular naïve CD4+ T cells, suggesting their role in early control of SARS-CoV-2 possibly by proving appropriate B cell help. Higher counts of naïve CD4+ T cells also correlated with lower levels of MIF, IL-9, and TNF-beta, suggesting an indirect role in averting prolonged virus-induced tissue damage. Collectively, our data show that naïve CD4+ T cell play a critical role in rapid viral T cell control, obviating aberrant antibody and cytokine profiles and disease deterioration. These data may help in guiding risk stratification for severe COVID-19.

How to prepare stool banks for an appropriate response to the ongoing COVID-19 pandemic: Experiences in the Netherlands and a retrospective comparative cohort study for faecal microbiota transplantation.

BACKGROUND: Faecal microbiota transplantation (FMT) is an efficacious treatment for patients with recurrent Clostridioides difficile infections (rCDI). Stool banks facilitate FMT by providing screened faecal suspensions from highly selected healthy donors. Due to the ongoing coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) pandemic and the potential risk of SARS coronavirus-2 (SARS-CoV-2) transmission via FMT, many stool banks were forced to temporarily halt and adjust donor activities. GOAL: The evaluation of a strategy to effectively continue stool banking activities during the ongoing COVID-19 pandemic. STUDY: To restart our stool banking activities after an initial halt, we implemented periodic SARS-CoV-2 screening in donor faeces and serum, and frequent donor assessment for COVID-19 related symptoms. FMT donor and recipient data obtained before (2016-2019) and during the COVID-19 pandemic (March 2020-August 2021) were compared to assess stool banking efficacy. RESULTS: Two out of ten donors developed COVID-19. No differences during versus before the COVID-19 pandemic were observed in the number of approved faeces donations (14 vs 22/month, p = 0.06), FMT requests for rCDI (3.9 vs 4.3/month, p = 0.6); rCDI patients eligible for FMT (80.6% vs 73.3%, p = 0.2); rCDI cure rate (90.3% vs 89.2%, p = 0.9); CDI-free survival (p = 0.7); the number of non-rCDI patients treated with FMT (0.5/month vs 0.4/month), and the number of possibly FMT related adverse events (9.5% vs 7.8%, p = 0.7). Two FMTs for rCDI were delayed due to COVID-19. CONCLUSIONS: There is a continued need for FMT treatment of rCDI during the COVID-19 pandemic. Appropriate donor screening and SARS-CoV-2 infection prevention measures can be implemented in existing protocols without increasing the burden for donors, and allow safe, effective and efficient FMT during the ongoing COVID-19 pandemic. Stool banks should evaluate their SARS-CoV-2 donor screening protocols for long-term sustainability and efficacy, and share their experiences to help the utilisation, standardisation and improvement of stool banks worldwide.

Many but small HIV-1 non-B transmission chains in the Netherlands.

OBJECTIVE: The aim of this study was to investigate introductions and spread of different HIV-1 subtypes in the Netherlands. DESIGN: We identified distinct HIV-1 transmission chains in the Netherlands within the global epidemic context through viral phylogenetic analysis of partial HIV-1 polymerase sequences from individuals enrolled in the ATHENA national HIV cohort of all persons in care since 1996, and publicly available international background sequences. METHODS: Viral lineages circulating in the Netherlands were identified through maximum parsimony phylogeographic analysis. The proportion of HIV-1 infections acquired in-country among heterosexuals and MSM was estimated from phylogenetically observed, national transmission chains using a branching process model that accounts for incomplete sampling. RESULTS: As of 1 January 2019, 2589 (24%) of 10 971 (41%) HIV-1 sequenced individuals in ATHENA had non-B subtypes (A1, C, D, F, G) or circulating recombinant forms (CRF01AE, CRF02AG, CRF06-cpx). The 1588 heterosexuals were in 1224, and 536 MSM in 270 phylogenetically observed transmission chains. After adjustments for incomplete sampling, most heterosexual (75%) and MSM (76%) transmission chains were estimated to include only the individual introducing the virus (size = 1). Onward transmission occurred mostly in chains size 2-5 amongst heterosexuals (62%) and in chains size at least 10 amongst MSM (64%). Considering some chains originated in-country from other risk-groups, 40% (95% confidence interval: 36-44) of non-B-infected heterosexuals and 62% (95% confidence interval: 49-73) of MSM-acquired infection in-country. CONCLUSION: Although most HIV-1 non-B introductions showed no or very little onward transmission, a considerable proportion of non-B infections amongst both heterosexuals and MSM in the Netherlands have been acquired in-country.

Increasing diagnostic possibilities using the geneLEAD VIII platform for detection of SARS-CoV-2.

At the time SARS-CoV-2 was identified as the cause of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) no in vitro diagnostic (IVD) tests were available since it was a new virus. Very shortly after the release of the genomic sequence of SARS-CoV-2, laboratory-developed tests (LDTs) were developed, made available and implemented in several laboratories in the Netherlands and globally. In this study, the performance of an E-gene Sarbeco specific real-time reverse-transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) was verified on the open modus of the geneLEAD VIII sample-to-answer platform. The results obtained from 134 clinical samples, of which 63 had been tested positive, showed almost complete concordance compared to the same PCR on the routine diagnostic systems and that was validated according to the national reference standard. The only discordant sample tested positive using the routine diagnostic workflow with a cycle threshold (CT) value of 37.7, while the sample tested negative using the geneLEAD VIII workflow. In addition, good performance was achieved in analyzing a blinded SARS-CoV-2 external quality assurance (EQA) panel. Implementation of the geneLEAD VIII platform as routine diagnostic tool resulted in testing 871 clinical samples with 115 positive results. In conclusion, the geneLEAD VIII SARS-CoV-2 workflow presented in this study showed excellent diagnostic performance and with a rapid turnaround time of approximately two hours it proved a valuable option for STAT SARS-CoV-2 testing in the absence of (rapid, CE-IVD) point-of-care testing platforms.

Erratum to: Direct-Acting Antiviral Treatment for Hepatitis C Genotypes Uncommon in High-Income Countries: A Dutch Nationwide Cohort Study.

[This corrects the article DOI: 10.1093/ofid/ofab006.].

Direct-Acting Antiviral Treatment for Hepatitis C Genotypes Uncommon in High-Income Countries: A Dutch Nationwide Cohort Study.

BACKGROUND: The majority of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infections are found in low- and middle-income countries, which harbor many region-specific HCV subtypes. Nevertheless, direct-acting antiviral (DAA) trials have almost exclusively been conducted in high-income countries, where mainly epidemically spread HCV subtypes are present. Recently, several studies have demonstrated suboptimal DAA efficacy for certain nonepidemic subtypes, which could hamper global HCV elimination. Therefore, we aimed to evaluate DAA efficacy in patients treated for a nonepidemic HCV genotype infection in the Netherlands. METHODS: We performed a nationwide retrospective study including patients treated with interferon-free DAAs for an HCV genotype other than 1a/1b/2a/2b/3a/4a/4d. The genotype was determined by NS5B region phylogenetic analysis. The primary end point was SVR-12. If stored samples were available, NS5A and NS5B sequences were obtained for resistance-associated substitutions (RAS) evaluation. RESULTS: We included 160 patients, mainly infected with nonepidemic genotype 2 (41%) and 4 (31%) subtypes. Most patients were from Africa (45%) or South America (24%); 51 (32%) were cirrhotic. SVR-12 was achieved in 92% (140/152) of patients with available SVR-12 data. Only 73% (8/11) genotype 3-infected patients achieved SVR-12, the majority being genotype 3b patients with 63% (5/8) SVR. Regardless of SVR, all genotype 3b patients had 30K and 31M RAS. CONCLUSIONS: The DAA efficacy we observed in most nonepidemic genotypes in the Netherlands seems reassuring. However, the low SVR-12 rate in subtype 3b infections is alarming, especially as it is common in several HCV-endemic countries. Alongside earlier results, our results indicate that a remaining challenge for global HCV elimination is confirming and monitoring DAA efficacy in nonepidemic genotypes.

Genital self-sampling compared with cervicovaginal lavage for the diagnosis of female genital schistosomiasis in Zambian women: The BILHIV study.

BACKGROUND: Given the potentially causal association of female genital schistosomiasis (FGS) with HIV-1 infection, improved diagnostics are urgently needed to scale-up FGS surveillance. The BILHIV (bilharzia and HIV) study assessed the performance of home-based self-collection methods (cervical and vaginal swabs) compared to cervicovaginal lavage (CVL) for the detection of Schistosoma DNA by real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR). METHODS: Between January and August 2018, a consecutive series of female participants from the Population-Cohort of the previous HIV prevention trial HPTN 071 (PopART), resident in Livingstone, Zambia were invited to take part in BILHIV if they were 18-31 years old, non-pregnant and sexually active. Genital self-collected swabs and a urine specimen were obtained and a questionnaire completed at home visits. CVL was obtained at clinic follow-up. RESULTS: 603 women self-collected genital swabs. Of these, 527 women had CVL performed by a mid-wife during clinic follow-up. Schistosoma DNA was more frequently detected in genital self-collected specimens (24/603, 4.0%) compared to CVL (14/527, 2.7%). Overall, 5.0% (30/603) women had female genital schistosomiasis, defined as a positive PCR by any genital sampling method (cervical swab PCR, vaginal swab PCR, or CVL PCR) and 95% (573/603) did not have a positive genital PCR. The sensitivity of any positive genital self-collected swab against CVL was 57.1% (95% CI 28.9-82.3%), specificity 97.3% (95.5-98.5%). In a subset of participants with active schistosome infection, determined by detectable urine Circulating Anodic Antigen (CAA) (15.1%, 91/601), positive PCR (4.3%, 26/601), or positive microscopy (5.5%, 33/603), the sensitivity of any positive self-collected specimen against CVL was 88.9% (51.8-99.7%). CONCLUSIONS: Genital self-sampling increased the overall number of PCR-based FGS diagnoses in a field setting, compared with CVL. Home-based sampling may represent a scalable alternative method for FGS community-based diagnosis in endemic resource limited settings.

A double-blind, placebo-controlled phase 1/2a trial of the genetically attenuated malaria vaccine PfSPZ-GA1.

Immunization with attenuated Plasmodium sporozoites can induce protection against malaria infection, as shown by Plasmodium falciparum (Pf) sporozoites attenuated by radiation in multiple clinical trials. As alternative attenuation strategy with a more homogeneous population of Pf sporozoites (PfSPZ), genetically engineered Plasmodium berghei sporozoites (SPZ) lacking the genes b9 and slarp induced sterile protection against malaria in mice. Consequently, PfSPZ-GA1 Vaccine, a Pf identical double knockout (Pf∆b9∆slarp), was generated as a genetically attenuated malaria parasite vaccine and tested for safety, immunogenicity, and preliminary efficacy in malaria-naïve Dutch volunteers. Dose-escalation immunizations up to 9.0 × 105 PfSPZ of PfSPZ-GA1 Vaccine were well tolerated without breakthrough blood-stage infection. Subsequently, groups of volunteers were immunized three times by direct venous inoculation with cryopreserved PfSPZ-GA1 Vaccine (9.0 × 105 or 4.5 × 105 PfSPZ, N = 13 each), PfSPZ Vaccine (radiation-attenuated PfSPZ, 4.5 × 105 PfSPZ, N = 13), or normal saline placebo at 8-week intervals, followed by exposure to mosquito bite controlled human malaria infection (CHMI). After CHMI, 3 of 25 volunteers from both PfSPZ-GA1 groups were sterilely protected, and the remaining 17 of 22 showed a patency ≥9 days (median patency in controls, 7 days; range, 7 to 9). All volunteers in the PfSPZ Vaccine control group developed parasitemia (median patency, 9 days; range, 7 to 12). Immunized groups exhibited a significant, dose-related increase in anti-Pf circumsporozoite protein (CSP) antibodies and Pf-specific interferon-γ (IFN-γ)-producing T cells. Although no definite conclusion can be drawn on the potential strength of protective efficacy of PfSPZ-GA1 Vaccine, the favorable safety profile and induced immune responses by PfSPZ-GA1 Vaccine warrant further clinical evaluation.

Performance of the QIAstat-Dx Gastrointestinal Panel for Diagnosing Infectious Gastroenteritis.

Detection and identification of enteropathogens that cause infectious gastroenteritis are essential steps for appropriate patient treatment and effective isolation precautions. Several syndrome-based tests have recently become available, with the gastrointestinal panel (GIP) assay on the QIAstat-Dx as the most recent addition to the syndromic testing landscape. The QIAstat-Dx GIP assay offers simultaneous testing for 24 bacterial, viral, and parasitic enteropathogens using a single test that reports the results in 70 min. In this study, we compared the performance of the GIP assay to laboratory-developed real-time PCR assays (LDTs), using 172 prospectively and retrospectively collected fecal samples from patients suspected to have infectious gastroenteritis. The GIP assay detected 97/107 enteropathogens (91%) that were detected by LDTs, and the overall agreement of results increased to 95% when excluding discrepant results with cycle threshold (CT ) values of >35. Further, the GIP assay detected 42 additional enteropathogens that were not detected, or tested, by LDTs. These included 35 diarrheagenic Escherichia coli targets for which the clinical relevance is unclear for most. The main advantage of the QIAstat-Dx system compared to other syndromic testing systems is the ability to generate CT values that could help with the interpretation of results. However, compared to LDTs, the GIP assay is limited by flexibility and high-throughput testing. In conclusion, the GIP assay offers an easy, sample-to-answer workflow with a rapid detection of the most common enteropathogens and therefore has the potential to direct appropriate therapy and infection control precautions.

The end of the laboratory developed test as we know it? Recommendations from a national multidisciplinary taskforce of laboratory specialists on the interpretation of the IVDR and its complications.

The in vitro diagnostic medical devices regulation (IVDR) will take effect in May 2022. This regulation has a large impact on both the manufacturers of in vitro diagnostic medical devices (IVD) and clinical laboratories. For clinical laboratories, the IVDR poses restrictions on the use of laboratory developed tests (LDTs). To provide a uniform interpretation of the IVDR for colleagues in clinical practice, the IVDR Task Force was created by the scientific societies of laboratory specialties in the Netherlands. A guidance document with explanations and interpretations of relevant passages of the IVDR was drafted to help laboratories prepare for the impact of this new legislation. Feedback from interested parties and stakeholders was collected and used to further improve the document. Here we would like to present our approach to our European colleagues and inform them about the impact of the IVDR and, importantly we would like to present potentially useful approaches to fulfill the requirements of the IVDR for LDTs.

Clinical implications of rapid ePlex® Respiratory Pathogen Panel testing compared to laboratory-developed real-time PCR.

Rapid diagnosis of respiratory infections is of great importance for adequate isolation and treatment. Due to the batch-wise testing, laboratory-developed real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assays (LDT) often result in a time to result of one day. Here, LDT was compared with rapid ePlex® Respiratory Pathogen (RP) Panel testing of GenMark Diagnostics (Carlsbad, CA, USA) with regard to time to result, installed isolation precautions, and antibacterial/antiviral treatment. Between January and March 2017, 68 specimens of 64 patients suspected of an acute respiratory infection were tested with LDT and the ePlex® RP panel. The time to result was calculated as the time between sample reception and result reporting. Information regarding isolation and antibacterial/antiviral treatment was obtained from the patient records. Thirty specimens tested LDT positive (47%) and 29 ePlex® RP panel positive (45%). The median time to result was 27.1 h (range 6.5-96.6) for LDT versus 3.4 h (range 1.5-23.6) for the RP panel, p-value < 0.001. In 14 out of 30 patients, isolation was discontinued based on the ePlex® RP panel results, saving 21 isolation days. ePlex® RP panel test results were available approximately one day ahead of the LDT results in the 19 patients receiving antiviral/antibacterial treatment. In addition, two bacterial pathogens, not requested by the physician, were detected using the RP panel. Analysis of respiratory infections with the ePlex® RP panel resulted in a significant decrease in time to result, enabling a reduction in isolation days in half of the patients. Furthermore, syndromic RP panel testing increased the identification of causative pathogens.