Multi-signal regulation of the GSK-3ß homolog Rim11 controls meiosis entry in budding yeast.

Starvation in diploid budding yeast cells triggers a cell-fate program culminating in meiosis and spore formation. Transcriptional activation of early meiotic genes (EMGs) hinges on the master regulator Ime1, its DNA-binding partner Ume6, and GSK-3ß kinase Rim11. Phosphorylation of Ume6 by Rim11 is required for EMG activation. We report here that Rim11 functions as the central signal integrator for controlling Ume6 phosphorylation and EMG transcription. In nutrient-rich conditions, PKA suppresses Rim11 levels, while TORC1 retains Rim11 in the cytoplasm. Inhibition of PKA and TORC1 induces Rim11 expression and nuclear localization. Remarkably, nuclear Rim11 is required, but not sufficient, for Rim11-dependent Ume6 phosphorylation. In addition, Ime1 is an anchor protein enabling Ume6 phosphorylation by Rim11. Subsequently, Ume6-Ime1 coactivator complexes form and induce EMG transcription. Our results demonstrate how various signaling inputs (PKA/TORC1/Ime1) converge through Rim11 to regulate EMG expression and meiosis initiation. We posit that the signaling-regulatory network elucidated here generates robustness in cell-fate control.

Molecular MRD is strongly prognostic in patients with NPM1-mutated AML receiving venetoclax-based nonintensive therapy.

ABSTRACT: Assessment of measurable residual disease (MRD) by quantitative reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction is strongly prognostic in patients with NPM1-mutated acute myeloid leukemia (AML) treated with intensive chemotherapy; however, there are no data regarding its utility in venetoclax-based nonintensive therapy, despite high efficacy in this genotype. We analyzed the prognostic impact of NPM1 MRD in an international real-world cohort of 76 previously untreated patients with NPM1-mutated AML who achieved complete remission (CR)/CR with incomplete hematological recovery following treatment with venetoclax and hypomethylating agents (HMAs) or low-dose cytarabine (LDAC). A total of 44 patients (58%) achieved bone marrow (BM) MRD negativity, and a further 14 (18%) achieved a reduction of ≥4 log10 from baseline as their best response, with no difference between HMAs and LDAC. The cumulative rates of BM MRD negativity by the end of cycles 2, 4, and 6 were 25%, 47%, and 50%, respectively. Patients achieving BM MRD negativity by the end of cycle 4 had 2-year overall of 84% compared with 46% if MRD was positive. On multivariable analyses, MRD negativity was the strongest prognostic factor. A total of 22 patients electively stopped therapy in BM MRD-negative remission after a median of 8 cycles, with 2-year treatment-free remission of 88%. In patients with NPM1-mutated AML attaining remission with venetoclax combination therapies, NPM1 MRD provides valuable prognostic information.

Budding yeast as an ideal model for elucidating the role of N6-methyladenosine in regulating gene expression.

N6-methyladenosine (m6A) is a highly abundant and evolutionarily conserved messenger RNA (mRNA) modification. This modification is installed on RRACH motifs on mRNAs by a hetero-multimeric holoenzyme known as m6A methyltransferase complex (MTC). The m6A mark is then recognised by a group of conserved proteins known as the YTH domain family proteins which guide the mRNA for subsequent downstream processes that determine its fate. In yeast, m6A is installed on thousands of mRNAs during early meiosis by a conserved MTC and the m6A-modified mRNAs are read by the YTH domain-containing protein Mrb1/Pho92. In this review, we aim to delve into the recent advances in our understanding of the regulation and roles of m6A in yeast meiosis. We will discuss the potential functions of m6A in mRNA translation and decay, unravelling their significance in regulating gene expression. We propose that yeast serves as an exceptional model organism for the study of fundamental molecular mechanisms related to the function and regulation of m6A-modified mRNAs. The insights gained from yeast research not only expand our knowledge of mRNA modifications and their molecular roles but also offer valuable insights into the broader landscape of eukaryotic posttranscriptional regulation of gene expression.

Clinical outcomes and risk factors for severe COVID-19 in patients with haematological disorders receiving chemo- or immunotherapy.

Haematology patients receiving chemo- or immunotherapy are considered to be at greater risk of COVID-19-related morbidity and mortality. We aimed to identify risk factors for COVID-19 severity and assess outcomes in patients where COVID-19 complicated the treatment of their haematological disorder. A retrospective cohort study was conducted in 55 patients with haematological disorders and COVID-19, including 52 with malignancy, two with bone marrow failure and one immune-mediated thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). COVID-19 diagnosis coincided with a new diagnosis of a haematological malignancy in four patients. Among patients, 82% were on systemic anti-cancer therapy (SACT) at the time of COVID-19 diagnosis. Of hospitalised patients, 37% (19/51) died while all four outpatients recovered. Risk factors for severe disease or mortality were similar to those in other published cohorts. Raised C-reactive protein at diagnosis predicted an aggressive clinical course. The majority of patients recovered from COVID-19, despite receiving recent SACT. This suggests that SACT, where urgent, should be administered despite intercurrent COVID-19 infection, which should be managed according to standard pathways. Delay or modification of therapy should be considered on an individual basis. Long-term follow-up studies in larger patient cohorts are required to assess the efficacy of treatment strategies employed during the pandemic.

Anticholinergic drugs and incident dementia, mild cognitive impairment and cognitive decline: a meta-analysis.

BACKGROUND: the long-term effect of the use of drugs with anticholinergic activity on cognitive function remains unclear. METHODS: we conducted a systematic review and meta-analysis of the relationship between anticholinergic drugs and risk of dementia, mild cognitive impairment (MCI) and cognitive decline in the older population. We identified studies published between January 2002 and April 2018 with ≥12 weeks follow-up between strongly anticholinergic drug exposure and the study outcome measurement. We pooled adjusted odds ratios (OR) for studies reporting any, and at least short-term (90+ days) or long-term (365+ days) anticholinergic use for dementia and MCI outcomes, and standardised mean differences (SMD) in global cognition test scores for cognitive decline outcomes. Statistical heterogeneity was measured using the I2 statistic and risk of bias using ROBINS-I. RESULTS: twenty-six studies (including 621,548 participants) met our inclusion criteria. 'Any' anticholinergic use was associated with incident dementia (OR 1.20, 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.09-1.32, I2 = 86%). Short-term and long-term use were also associated with incident dementia (OR 1.23, 95% CI 1.17-1.29, I2 = 2%; and OR 1.50, 95% CI 1.22-1.85, I2 = 90%). 'Any' anticholinergic use was associated with cognitive decline (SMD 0.15; 95% CI 0.09-0.21, I2 = 3%) but showed no statistically significant difference for MCI (OR 1.24, 95% CI 0.97-1.59, I2 = 0%). CONCLUSIONS: anticholinergic drug use is associated with increased dementia incidence and cognitive decline in observational studies. However, a causal link cannot yet be inferred, as studies were observational with considerable risk of bias. Stronger evidence from high-quality studies is needed to guide the management of long-term use.

In vitro antimicrobial activity of narasin and monensin in combination with adjuvants against pathogens associated with canine otitis externa.

BACKGROUND: The emergence of antimicrobial resistance represents a serious human and animal health risk. Good antimicrobial stewardship is essential to prolong the lifespan of existing antibiotics, and new strategies are required to combat infections in man and animals. HYPOTHESIS/OBJECTIVES: To determine the in vitro interaction of ionophores (narasin or monensin) with antimicrobial adjuvants (N-acetylcysteine (NAC), Tris-EDTA or disodium EDTA) against bacterial strains representing pathogens associated with canine otitis externa (OE). ANIMAL/ISOLATES: American Type Culture Collection (ATCC) strains Staphylococcus aureus 29213, Pseudomonas aeruginosa 27853 and P. aeruginosa biofilm producer PAO1, and a clinical isolate of Proteus mirabilis from a case of canine OE were tested. METHODS AND MATERIALS: A 2D microdilution checkerboard method was used, allowing calculation of fractional inhibitory concentration index (FICI), dose reduction index (DRI) and plotting of isobolograms. RESULTS: The combination of narasin with either Tris-EDTA or disodium EDTA produced additive effects (FICI = 0.75) against P. aeruginosa ATCC 27853 and P. aeruginosa biofilm producer ATCC PAO1. An additive effect (FICI = 0.53-0.75) was found against S. aureus ATCC 29213 when narasin or monensin were combined with NAC. The highest DRI (32-fold) was found with monensin/NAC where the MIC of monensin was reduced from 4 to 0.125 µg/mL. CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL IMPORTANCE: The combination of narasin with Tris-EDTA or disodium EDTA is a promising strategy to inhibit the intrinsic resistance elements of Gram-negative bacteria. These novel combinations potentially could be useful as a multimodal approach to treat mixed infections in canine OE.

Antimicrobial activity of thyme oil, oregano oil, thymol and carvacrol against sensitive and resistant microbial isolates from dogs with otitis externa.

BACKGROUND: Multidrug-resistant pathogens present a major global challenge in antimicrobial therapy and frequently complicate otitis externa in dogs. HYPOTHESIS/OBJECTIVES: In vitro efficacy of oregano oil, thyme oil and their main phenolic constituents against bacterial and fungal isolates associated with canine otitis externa were investigated. It was hypothesized that the main phenolic components would have greater antimicrobial activity compared to the relative essential oil. METHODS AND MATERIALS: Antimicrobial susceptibility testing was performed using broth microdilution with spot-plating technique to determine minimum inhibitory and bactericidal/fungicidal concentrations (MICs, MBCs and MFCs). A time-kill kinetics assay was performed to confirm the bactericidal and fungicidal activity of the oils and their phenolic constituents. One hundred bacterial and fungal isolates, including meticillin-susceptible Staphylococcus pseudintermedius (n = 10), meticillin-resistant S. pseudintermedius (n = 10), ß-haemolytic Streptococcus spp. (n = 20), Pseudomonas aeruginosa (n = 20; including 10 isolates resistant to one or two antimicrobials), Proteus mirabilis (n = 20) and Malassezia pachydermatis (n = 20) from dogs with otitis externa were used. RESULTS: Oregano oil, thyme oil, carvacrol and thymol exhibited antibacterial activity against all bacterial and fungal isolates tested. MIC90 values ranged from 0.015 to 0.03% (146-292 µg/mL) for the Gram-positive bacteria and P. mirabilis. For P. aeruginosa and M. pachydermatis, MIC90 values ranged from 0.09 to 0.25% (800-2,292 µg/mL). CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL SIGNIFICANCE: Oregano oil, thyme oil, carvacrol and thymol showed good in vitro bactericidal and fungicidal activity against 100 isolates from dogs with otitis externa, including some highly drug-resistant isolates. These essential oils and their main phenolic constituents have the potential to be further investigated in vivo for the treatment of canine otitis externa.

Biofilm production by pathogens associated with canine otitis externa, and the antibiofilm activity of ionophores and antimicrobial adjuvants.

Otitis externa (OE) is a frequently reported disorder in dogs associated with secondary infections by Staphylococcus, Pseudomonas and yeast pathogens. The presence of biofilms may play an important role in the resistance of otic pathogens to antimicrobial agents. Biofilm production of twenty Staphylococcus pseudintermedius and twenty Pseudomonas aeruginosa canine otic isolates was determined quantitatively using a microtiter plate assay, and each isolate was classified as a strong, moderate, weak or nonbiofilm producer. Minimum biofilm eradication concentration (MBEC) of two ionophores (narasin and monensin) and three adjuvants (N-acetylcysteine (NAC), Tris-EDTA and disodium EDTA) were investigated spectrophotometrically (OD570nm ) and quantitatively (CFU/ml) against selected Staphylococcus and Pseudomonas biofilm cultures. Concurrently, minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) and minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) of planktonic cultures were assessed. 16/20 of the S. pseudintermedius clinical isolates were weak biofilm producers. 19/20 P. aeruginosa clinical isolates produced biofilms and were distributed almost equally as weak, moderate and strong biofilm producers. While significant antibiofilm activity was observed, no MBEC was achieved with narasin or monensin. The MBEC for NAC ranged from 5,000-10,000 µg/ml and from 20,000-80,000 µg/ml against S. pseudintermedius and P. aeruginosa, respectively. Tris-EDTA eradicated P. aeruginosa biofilms at concentrations ranging from 6,000/1,900 to 12,000/3,800 µg/ml. The MBEC was up to 16-fold and eightfold higher than the MIC/MBC of NAC and Tris-EDTA, respectively. Disodium EDTA reduced biofilm growth of both strains at concentrations of 470 µg/ml and higher. It can be concluded that biofilm production is common in pathogens associated with canine OE. NAC and Tris-EDTA are effective antibiofilm agents in vitro that could be considered for the treatment of biofilm-associated OE in dogs.

In vitro antimicrobial activity of seven adjuvants against common pathogens associated with canine otitis externa.

BACKGROUND: An antibiotic adjuvant is a chemical substance used to modify or augment the effectiveness of primary antimicrobial agents against drug-resistant micro-organisms. Its use provides an alternative approach to address the global issue of antimicrobial resistance and enhance antimicrobial stewardship. HYPOTHESIS/OBJECTIVES: To determine the antimicrobial activity of a panel of potential antimicrobial adjuvants against common pathogens associated with canine otitis externa (OE). ANIMALS/ISOLATES: A number of type strains and clinical isolates (n = 110) from canine OE were tested including Staphylococcus pseudintermedius, ß-haemolytic Streptococcus spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Proteus mirabilis and Malassezia pachydermatis. METHODS AND MATERIALS: Antimicrobial activities of monolaurin, monocaprin, N-acetylcysteine (NAC), polymyxin B nonapeptide, Tris-EDTA, Tris-HCL and disodium EDTA were tested using microdilution methodology according to CLSI guidelines. RESULTS: N-acetylcysteine, Tris-EDTA and disodium EDTA had antimicrobial activity against both type strains and otic pathogens. The other adjuvants tested had limited to no efficacy. NAC had a minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) range of 2,500-10,000 µg/mL for the various organisms. Pseudomonas aeruginosa isolates were eight times more susceptible to disodium EDTA in the presence of Tris-HCL in comparison to disodium EDTA alone. Malassezia pachydermatis isolates were most susceptible to Tris-EDTA (MIC90  = 190/60 µg/mL) and disodium EDTA (MIC90  = 120 µg/mL). CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE: N-acetylcysteine, Tris-EDTA and disodium EDTA have intrinsic antimicrobial activity and represent promising adjuvants that could be used to enhance the efficacy of existing antibiotics against Gram-negative and multidrug-resistant bacterial infections. These agents could be combined with other antimicrobial agents in a multimodal approach for mixed ear infections in dogs.

In vitro antimicrobial activity of narasin against common clinical isolates associated with canine otitis externa.

BACKGROUND: Antimicrobial resistance and antimicrobial stewardship are of ever-increasing importance in veterinary medicine. Re-purposing of old drugs that are not used in human medicine is one approach that addresses the emergence of multidrug resistance in canine skin and ear infections, and can reduce the use of critically important human antibiotic classes. HYPOTHESIS/OBJECTIVES: To determine the antimicrobial activity of narasin, a polyether ionophore conventionally used as a rumen modifier and anticoccidial agent in production animals, against common clinical isolates of canine otitis externa (OE). ANIMALS/ISOLATES: Clinical isolates (n = 110) from canine OE were tested, including 17 meticillin-susceptible Staphylococcus pseudintermedius (MSSP), 13 multidrug-resistant Staphylococcus pseudintermedius (MDRSP), and 20 each of ß-haemolytic Streptococcus spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Proteus mirabilis and Malassezia pachydermatis. METHODS: Bacterial and yeast isolates were subcultured, suspended in broth and inoculated into 96-well plates. Organisms were tested against concentrations of narasin ranging from 0.03 to 128 µg/mL. Minimal inhibitory concentrations (MICs) were determined after overnight incubation. RESULTS: Narasin MICs for staphylococcal and streptococcal isolates ranged from 0.06 to 0.25 µg/mL; MIC50 and MIC90 values for both organisms were 0.125 µg/mL. No MICs were achieved for Pseudomonas or Proteus isolates. There was a weak antifungal effect against M. pachydermatis isolates (MIC 32 to >128 µg/mL). CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE: Narasin was effective against Gram-positive bacteria and had antifungal activity at higher concentrations against M. pachydermatis. However, the lack of Gram-negative activity would prevent its use as a sole antimicrobial agent in cases of canine OE.

The effect of co-trimoxazole on serum potassium concentration: safety evaluation of a randomized controlled trial.

AIMS: Co-trimoxazole maintains a well-established role in the treatment of Pneumocystis jirovecii and Toxoplasma gondii, as well as urinary tract infections. Observational studies report hyperkalaemia to be associated with co-trimoxazole, which may stem from an amiloride-like potassium-sparing effect. The current study investigated changes in serum potassium in patients without acute infections, and the influence of concomitant antikaliuretic drugs on this effect. METHODS: A post hoc analysis was carried out of a randomized controlled trial in patients with interstitial lung disease who were assigned to placebo or 960 mg co-trimoxazole twice daily. Serum potassium and creatinine were measured at baseline, 6 weeks, and 6, 9 and 12 months. The primary outcome was the difference in mean serum potassium concentrations between co-trimoxazole and placebo at 6 weeks. RESULTS: Mean serum potassium levels were similar at baseline: 4.24 (± 0.44) mmol l-1 in the 87 co-trimoxazole group participants and 4.25 (± 0.39) mmol l-1 in the 83 control participants. Co-trimoxazole significantly increased mean serum potassium levels at 6 weeks, with a difference between means compared with placebo of 0.21 mmol l-1 [95% confidence interval (CI) 0.09, 0.34; P = 0.001). This significant increase in serum potassium was detectable even after exclusion of patients on antikaliuretic drugs, with a difference between means for co-trimoxazole compared with placebo of 0.23 mmol l-1 (95% CI 0.09, 0.38; P = 0.002). There were 5/87 (5.7%) patients on co-trimoxazole whose serum potassium concentrations reached ≥5.5 mmol l-1 during the study period. CONCLUSIONS: Co-trimoxazole significantly increases serum potassium concentration, even in participants not using antikaliuretic drugs. While the magnitude of increase was often minor, a small proportion in our outpatient cohort developed hyperkalaemia of clinical importance.

Survival of Staphylococcus pseudintermedius in modified Romanowsky staining solutions.

BACKGROUND: Stains that are used regularly for patient-side diagnosis to rapidly identify bacterial and fungal infections could become contaminated by common pathogens, such as Staphylococcus pseudintermedius, during slide immersion. HYPOTHESIS/OBJECTIVES: To determine whether the inoculation of S. pseudintermedius into modified Romanowsky type stains (Quick Dip® ) results in viable bacterial contamination and whether this is influenced by the addition of organic debris (canine hair and skin). METHODS: A clinical isolate of S. pseudintermedius was inoculated into clean and organically contaminated Quick Dip® solutions (methanol fixative, eosin, methylene blue), and positive (broth) and negative (bleach) controls. Each solution was tested for the presence of viable bacteria by counting the number of colony forming units (CFU/mL) at various time points. Solutions also were examined under high power microscopy to count the number of visible bacteria at each time point. RESULTS: Staphylococcus pseudintermedius was able to survive in the clean and contaminated Quick Dip® stains for at least one hour, but by 24 h no viable bacteria remained. Survival of the bacteria was not supported in the fixative at any time point. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius remained visible under high power microscopy for up to 2 weeks in all organically contaminated solutions of the Quick Dip® set. CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL IMPORTANCE: Staphylococcus pseudintermedius only remains viable in eosin and methylene blue for short periods of time, but the prolonged visibility of dead organisms could theoretically lead to the misdiagnosis of cytology samples.

Effect of medications with anti-cholinergic properties on cognitive function, delirium, physical function and mortality: a systematic review.

OBJECTIVES: to determine the effect of drugs with anti-cholinergic properties on relevant health outcomes. DESIGN: electronic published and unpublished literature/trial registries were systematically reviewed. Studies evaluating medications with anti-cholinergic activity on cognitive function, delirium, physical function or mortality were eligible. RESULTS: forty-six studies including 60,944 participants were included. Seventy-seven percent of included studies evaluating cognitive function (n = 33) reported a significant decline in cognitive ability with increasing anti-cholinergic load (P < 0.05). Four of five included studies reported no association with delirium and increasing anti-cholinergic drug load (P > 0.05). Five of the eight included studies reported a decline in physical function in users of anti-cholinergics (P < 0.05). Three of nine studies evaluating mortality reported that the use of drugs with anti-cholinergic properties was associated with a trend towards increased mortality, but this was not statistically significant. The methodological quality of the evidence-base ranged from poor to very good. CONCLUSION: medicines with anti-cholinergic properties have a significant adverse effect on cognitive and physical function, but limited evidence exists for delirium or mortality outcomes.

Evaluating the delay prior to primary care presentation in patients with lung cancer: a cohort study.

BACKGROUND: Little is known about 'within-patient delay', which is the time from first symptom of lung cancer to contacting primary care. AIM: Primary outcomes were length of within-patient delay and the proportion of total delay it represents. Secondary outcomes were factors causing delay and survival. DESIGN & SETTING: A cohort study of newly diagnosed patients with lung cancer at two hospitals in Norfolk. METHOD: Patients completed questionnaires regarding onset of symptoms, whether they had delayed, and their reasons. GPs completed correlating questionnaires. Pathway times and other data were extracted from cancer registry and hospital records, and outcomes obtained prospectively. Factors causing delay were compared using ratios of geometric means. RESULTS: In 379 patients, mean within-patient delay and pre-secondary care delay were 188.6 days and 241 days (61.4% and 78.5% of total delay, respectively). It was found that 38.8% of patients felt they had delayed. Patient-related causes of delay were denial (ratio of means [ROM] = 4.36; P = 0.002, 95% confidence interval [CI] = 1.71 to 11.1); anxiety (ROM = 3.36; P = 0.026; 95% CI = 1.16 to 9.76); non-recognition of symptoms (ROM = 2.80; P = 0.004; 95% CI = 1.41 to 5.59); and smoking (ROM = 1.76; P = 0.021; 95% CI = 1.09 to 2.86), respectively. These symptoms were associated with delay: finger swelling or discomfort (ROM = 2.72; P = 0.009, 95% CI = 1.29 to 5.74); cough (ROM = 2.53; P<0.001; 95% CI = 1.52 to 4.19); weight loss (ROM = 2.41; P<0.001; 95% CI = 1.49 to 3.88); weakness (ROM = 2.35; P = 0.001; 95% CI = 1.45 to 3.83); dyspnoea (ROM = 2.30; P = 0.001; 95% CI = 1.40 to 3.80); voice change (ROM = 1.90; P = 0.010; 95% CI = 1.17 to 3.10); and sputum (ROM = 1.66; P = 0.039; 95% CI = 1.03 to 2.67), respectively, also having more than five symptoms (compared with 1-3) (ROM = 3.69; P<0.001; 95% CI = 2.05 to 6.64). No overall relation between within-patient delay and survival was seen. CONCLUSION: Using smoking registers, awareness literature, and self-care manuals, primary care staff could liaise with people who have ever smoked regarding their symptoms to ensure early referral to secondary care.

The detection of house dust mite Dermatophagoides farinae, Der f 2 and Zen-1 allergen-specific immunoglobulin E antibodies in dogs with atopic Dermatitis in Malaysia.

Canine atopic dermatitis (AD) is a chronic, inflammatory and pruritic allergic skin disease in dogs. House dust mites such as Dermatophagoides farinae are one of the known causative agents for the induction of canine AD worldwide. D. farinae protein Der f 2 is known as an important allergen involved in canine AD and recently, Zen-1 has also been identified as an allergenic protein. There is limited information on the prevalence and role of allergen sensitization to crude D. farinae extract (CDF), Der f 2 and Zen-1 among dogs diagnosed with AD in Malaysia. The aim of this study was to determine the proportion of CDF-, Der f 2- and Zen-1-specific reactive sera among dogs diagnosed with AD in Malaysia using an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). Serum samples were collected from dogs diagnosed with AD from several veterinary clinics in Malaysia. The canine case records were retrieved and information on signalment, dermatological and non-dermatological histories, clinical presentation, food allergies, and exclusion of ectoparasitic, microbial and fungal skin infections were obtained through a survey form. All serum samples were evaluated to quantify the CDF-, Der f 2- and Zen-1-specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) levels. A total of 24.6%, 48.4% and 29.8% of dogs diagnosed with AD were positive for CDF-, Der f 2- and Zen-1-specific IgE, respectively. These results suggest that CDF-, Der f 2- and Zen-1 are important allergens that can contribute to AD in dogs in Malaysia, and serological testing can be performed to provide additional treatment options involving specific immunotherapies.