Does the visceral fat area impact the histopathology specimen metrics after total mesorectal excision for distal rectal cancer?

BACKGROUND: The aim of this study was to evaluate whether the visceral fat area (VFA) has an impact on the histopathology specimen metrics of male patients undergoing robotic total mesorectal resection (rTME) for distal rectal cancer. METHODS: Prospectively collected data of patients undergoing rTME for resectable rectal cancer by five surgeons during a period of three years were extracted from the REgistry of Robotic SURgery for RECTal cancer (RESURRECT). VFA was measured in all patients at preoperative computed tomography. Distal rectal cancer was defined as <6cm from the anal verge. The histopathology metrics included circumferential resection margin (CRM) (in mm) and its involvement rate (if <1mm), distal resection margin (DRM), and quality of TME (complete, nearly-complete, incomplete). RESULTS: Of 839 patients who underwent rTME, 500 with distal rectal cancer were included. One hundred and six (21.2%) males with VFA>100cm2 were compared to 394 (78.8%) males or females with VFA≤100cm2. The mean CRM of males with VFA>100cm2 was not significantly different from its counterpart (6.6 ± 4.8 mm versus 7.1 ± 9.5mm; p=0.752). CRM involvement rates were 7.6% in both groups (p=1.000). The DRM was not significantly different: 1.8±1.9cm versus 1.8±2.6cm; p=0.996. The quality of TME did not significantly differ: complete TME 87.3% vs. 83.7%; nearly complete TME 8.9% vs. 12.8%; incomplete TME 3.8% vs. 3.6%. Complications and clinical outcomes did not significantly differ. CONCLUSION: This study did not find evidence to support that increased VFA would result in suboptimal histopathology specimen metrics when performing rTME in males with distal rectal cancer.

Molecular characterization and fluorescence analysis of HCV non-structural proteins NS3, NS3-4A and NS4A of genotype 3a.

Hepatitis C virus (HCV) chronically infects almost 2% of world's population. Chronic infection can lead to liver failure and hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). Approximately 10% of the Pakistani population is infected with HCV and type 3 is the most prevalent genotype with 75-90% prevalence. In this study we have developed transiently expressing cell culture based system for the expression of HCV non-structural NS3, NS3-4A and NS4A proteins of genotype 3a. HCV non-structural genes NS3, NS3-4A and NS4A were cloned in to pFLAG-CMV2 and pEGFP-C1vectors. All vectors were transfected separately to Huh-7 cells and their protein expression was analyzed by Western blot and immunofluorescence. All proteins were expressed correctly and in the transfection we have obtained 42-70% efficiency for all clones. This system can be used for the development of novel antiviral strategies to inhibit the viral replication, to study apoptosis pathways induced by HCV, for the evaluation of vaccine candidates and also to study the role of HCV different signaling pathways.

Sudden Vision Loss Secondary to Optic Nerve Infiltration as a Presenting Symptom of Metastatic Lung Adenocarcinoma.

Purpose: To report a rare case of left-sided metastatic optic nerve infiltration and right-sided choroidal mass with exudative retinal detachment caused by EGFR exon 19 deletion positive non-small-cell lung adenocarcinoma that responded to targeted therapy with osimertinib (EGFR-TKI). Our patient demonstrated an excellent response with reduced size of the metastatic choroidal mass of the right orbit and improved visual acuity, in addition to systemic disease control. Case: A 66-year-old male patient with a history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and tobacco use presented with sudden vision loss in the left eye secondary to optic nerve infiltration and subacute vision loss in the right eye secondary to exudative retinal detachment from a choroidal metastasis. He was found to have a right lung mass, multiple metastatic pulmonary nodules, and liver and bone metastases. Biopsy from a mediastinal lymph node confirmed the diagnosis of metastatic lung adenocarcinoma. He was found to have exon 19 deletion on next-generation sequencing. We treated him with local radiation therapy to the left eye and systemic osimertinib (EGFR-TKI). Conclusion: To our knowledge, our case is the first report of a patient who initially presented with acute vision loss and was found to have metastatic retrobulbar optic nerve infiltration in one eye and metastatic choroidal lesion with exudative retinal detachment in the fellow eye secondary to lung adenocarcinoma. Due to the rarity of this condition, literature regarding effective treatment is scarce. Our patient demonstrated significant improvement in visual acuity and resolution of exudative retinal detachment in the right eye following osimertinib treatment and radiation therapy to the left eye. Further investigation into the role of tyrosine kinase inhibitors and radiation therapy in treating intraocular metastasis involving the optic nerve is needed.

Serum anti-GM2 and anti-GalNAc-GD1a IgG antibodies are biomarkers for acute canine polyradiculoneuritis.

OBJECTIVES: A previous single-country pilot study indicated serum anti-GM2 and anti-GA1 anti-glycolipid antibodies as potential biomarkers for acute canine polyradiculoneuritis. This study aims to validate these findings in a large geographically heterogenous cohort. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Sera from 175 dogs clinically diagnosed with acute canine polyradiculoneuritis, 112 dogs with other peripheral nerve, cranial nerve or neuromuscular disorders and 226 neurologically normal dogs were screened for anti-glycolipid antibodies against 11 common glycolipid targets to determine the immunoglobulin G anti-glycolipid antibodies with the highest combined sensitivity and specificity for acute canine polyradiculoneuritis. RESULTS: Anti-GM2 anti-glycolipid antibodies reached the highest combined sensitivity and specificity (sensitivity: 65.1%, 95% confidence interval 57.6 to 72.2%; specificity: 90.2%, 95% confidence interval 83.1 to 95.0%), followed by anti-GalNAc-GD1a anti-glycolipid antibodies (sensitivity: 61.7%, 95% confidence interval 54.1 to 68.9%; specificity: 89.3%, 95% confidence interval 82.0 to 94.3%) and these anti-glycolipid antibodies were frequently present concomitantly. Anti-GA1 anti-glycolipid antibodies were detected in both acute canine polyradiculoneuritis and control animals. Both for anti-GM2 and anti-GalNAc-GD1a anti-glycolipid antibodies, sex was found a significantly associated factor with a female to male odds ratio of 2.55 (1.27 to 5.31) and 3.00 (1.22 to 7.89), respectively. Anti-GalNAc-GD1a anti-glycolipid antibodies were more commonly observed in dogs unable to walk (OR 4.56, 1.56 to 14.87). CLINICAL SIGNIFICANCE: Anti-GM2 and anti-GalNAc-GD1a immunoglobulin G anti-glycolipid antibodies represent serum biomarkers for acute canine polyradiculoneuritis.

Clinical and electrophysiological characterization of myokymia and neuromyotonia in Jack Russell Terriers.

BACKGROUND: Generalized myokymia and neuromyotonia (M/NM) in Jack Russell Terriers (JRTs) is related to peripheral nerve hyperexcitability syndrome in humans, a symptom complex resulting from diverse etiologies. OBJECTIVE: Clinical and electrodiagnostic evaluation is used to narrow the list of possible etiological diagnoses in JRTs with M/NM. ANIMALS: Nine healthy JRTs and 8 affected JRTs. METHODS: A prospective study was conducted comparing clinical and electrophysiological characteristics in 8 JRTs affected by M/NM with 9 healthy JRT controls. RESULTS: All affected dogs except 1 had clinical signs typical of hereditary ataxia (HA). In 6 dogs, neuromyotonic discharges were recorded during electromyogram. Motor nerve conduction studies showed an axonal neuropathy in only 1 affected dog. Compared with controls, brainstem auditory-evoked potentials (BAEP) showed prolonged latencies (P<.05) accompanied by the disappearance of wave components in 3 dogs. Onset latencies of tibial sensory-evoked potentials (SEP) recorded at the lumbar intervertebral level were delayed in the affected group (P<.001). The BAEP and SEP results of the only neuromyotonic dog without ataxia were normal. CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL IMPORTANCE: The BAEP and spinal SEP abnormalities observed in JRTs with M/NM were associated with the presence of HA. Therefore, these electrophysiological findings presumably arise from the neurodegenerative changes characterizing HA and do not directly elucidate the pathogenesis of M/NM. An underlying neuronal ion channel dysfunction is thought to be the cause of M/NM in JRTs.

Studying biological science does not lead to adoption of a healthy lifestyle.

AIMS: The lifestyle and physical activity (PA) habits of young people play a key role in the prevention of cardiovascular and metabolic diseases at older ages. The current generation of biological science students at university holds promise for better future medicine and medical technology. However, their physical fitness and lifestyle are often ignored. METHODS: Lifestyle, PAs and common risk factors for cardiovascular disease before, and at, university were collected from 408 students using self-completed, anonymous surveys between the academic years of 2017 and 2019 from the School of Biological Sciences, University of Reading. Statistical analysis was performed using SAS® 9.4 software. RESULTS: Among the 408 participants, 134 were male and 274 were female with a mean (SD) age of 19.6 (2.24). Approximately 19% of participants consumed alcohol beyond the safe limit of <14 units/week (112 g/week). Among them, 65% were males. Before university, 47% of students failed to meet the UK National Physical Activity Guidelines (NPAG) which increased to 56% during university with males exhibiting a steeper incline. Compared to their lifestyles before university, more students had insufficient sleep and displayed greater sedentariness during university. Moreover, 16% of students declared no engagement in PA which was greater than the value of 12% before university. Fitness perceptions worsened by 11% during university particularly for females. Statistical analysis revealed that gender, BMI and fitness perceptions were significantly correlated with PA levels. The most prevalent explanation for inadequacy in meeting NPAG was insufficient time. CONCLUSIONS: Compared to their pre-university lifestyles, biological science students at university are more likely to adopt unhealthier behaviours with less time for exercise and prolonged sedentary behaviours, which increases the risk for cardiovascular diseases. It is important to raise awareness of their fitness perceptions and to encourage health-promoting programmes at university.

Clinical presentation, diagnostic findings, prognostic factors, treatment and outcome in dogs with meningoencephalomyelitis of unknown origin: A review.

Meningoencephalomyelitis of unknown origin (MUO) encompasses a group of idiopathic, most likely immune mediated, inflammatory central nervous system diseases that cause clinical, diagnostic and treatment challenges to veterinary neurologists. Clinical criteria for obtaining this presumptive diagnosis are currently available, and multiple treatment protocols have previously been investigated in small (prospective or retrospective) case series. As this group of diseases is considered fatal if left untreated, the identification of clinically usable prognostic indices could be of great value. This review provides an overview of recent developments in the clinical presentation, diagnostic findings, possible prognostic factors, treatment and outcome in dogs diagnosed with MUO.

Cortical motor threshold determination in dogs.

In humans, determining the cortical motor threshold (CMT) is a critical step in successfully applying a transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) treatment. Stimulus intensity, safety and efficacy of a TMS treatment are dependent of the correct assessment of the CMT. Given that TMS in dogs could serve as a natural animal model, an accurate and reliable technique for the measurement of the CMT should be available for dogs. Using a visual descending staircase paradigm (Rossini paradigm), the CMT repeatability was assessed and compared to the electromyographic (EMG) variant. The influence of a HF-rTMS treatment on the CMT was examined. Subsequently, the CMT was measured under sedation and general anaesthesia. Finally, the coil-cortex distance was associated with the CMT, weight, age and gender. During one year the CMT was measured three times, during which it remained constant, although a higher CMT was measured (40% higher machine output) when using EMG (P-value < .001) and under general anaesthesia (P-value = .005). On average, a 40% and 12% higher machine output were registered. An aHF-rTMS protocol does not influence the CMT. Males have on average a 5.2 mm larger coil cortex distance and an 11.81% higher CMT. The CMT was positively linearly associated (P-value < .05) with the weight and age of the animals. Only within female subjects, a positive linear association was found between the CMT and the coil-cortex distance (P-value = .02). Using the visual Rossini paradigm, the CMT can be reliably used over time and during a TMS treatment. It has to be kept in mind that when using EMG or assessing the CMT under general anaesthesia, a higher CMT is to be expected. As in humans, every parameter that influences the coil-cortex distance may also influence the CMT.

Pulsatile plasma profiles of FSH and LH before and during medroxyprogesterone acetate treatment in the bitch.

The aim of this study was to investigate the effect of medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) on pulsatile secretion of gonadotropins in the bitch. Five intact Beagle bitches were treated with MPA in a dose of 10mg/kg body weight subcutaneously at intervals of 4 weeks for a total of 13 injections, starting during anestrus. The 6-h plasma profiles of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) were determined before, and 3, 6, 9, and 12 months after the start of MPA treatment. After 6 months of MPA treatment basal plasma LH concentration was transiently increased significantly. Basal plasma FSH concentration and the area under the curve above the zero level (AUC0) for FSH were significantly higher after 3 months of MPA treatment than before or after 9 and 12 months of treatment. MPA treatment did not significantly affect pulse frequency, pulse amplitude, or AUC above the baseline for either LH or FSH. During treatment 58 significant LH pulses were identified, and although each LH pulse coincided with an increase in plasma FSH concentration, in 17 cases the amplitude of the increase was too small to be recognized as a significant FSH pulse. In conclusion, MPA treatment did not suppress basal plasma gonadotropin levels in the bitches. On the contrary, it caused a temporary rise in the basal concentration of both FSH and LH, which may have been due to a direct effect of MPA on the ovary. In addition, several LH pulses were not accompanied by a significant FSH pulse, suggesting that MPA treatment attenuated the pulsatile pituitary release of FSH.

Hemifacial spasm associated with an intracranial mass in two dogs.

Two dogs were presented with hemifacial spasm. Computed tomography images of both the dogs revealed an intracranial mass. In the first dog, a lesion at the level of the medulla oblongata was thought to cause primary irritation of the facial nucleus, with consequently permanent contraction of the ipsilateral facial muscles. In the second dog, a mass seemingly arising from the middle cranial fossa presumably isolated the facial motor neurons from upper motor neuron control, which resulted in hemifacial spasm as a result of loss of inhibitory interneuronal activity.

Serotonin transporter (5-HTTLPR) genotypes and trinucleotide repeats of androgen receptor exert a combinatorial effect on hormonal milieu in patients with lifelong premature ejaculation.

Premature ejaculation is one of the most common sexual disorders in men due to uncontrolled modulation of spinal reflexes controlled by cortico-limbic centers in the brain. In this study, we investigate the combinatorial effects of trinucleotide repeats of androgen receptor and allelic variants of the 5-HTTLPR gene on sex steroids, hypophyseal hormones, sexual performance, and premature ejaculation assessment parameters among evidence-based lifelong premature ejaculation subjects. A total of 271 outpatients (age 26.6 ± 1.9) consulting for evidence-based lifelong premature ejaculatory dysfunction were selected in this study. The control group consists of 155 men with normal IELT (>4 min). The study revealed that the subjects who have the highest (≥26) CAG stretches depicted a significantly higher serum oxytocin levels (102.1 pg/ml; n = 126, p < 0.001) compared with the control group (71.2 pg/ml; n = 75, p = <0.001) and patients which have medium (22-25) and short (≤21) CAG stretches (76.63 ng/ml; n = 64, p < 0.001 vs. 77.4 ng/ml; n = 81, p < 0.001). Almost 33 (26.1%) lifelong premature ejaculatory patients had AR variant of longer (≥26) CAG repeats was homozygous for S alleles (SS), 45 (35.7%) was homozygous for L allele (LL), and 48 (38%) had the L/S or S/L genotype of 5-HTTLPR gene. Homozygous (SS) alleles have a significant positive correlation (r = 0.44, p < 0.0001) with the high score of BDI-II (39.1, n = 126, p < 0.001). However, LL alleles have shown a significant positive correlation with PEDT (r = 0.46, p < 0.001) and negative correlation with self-estimated IELT and intercourse satisfaction (r = -0.35, p < 0.001). The innovative study design elaborates that androgen receptor trinucleotide repeats and 5-HTTLPR genotypes have combinatorial impact on hormonal milieu and sexual function regarding evidence-based lifelong premature ejaculatory dysfunction patients.

Adenohypophyseal function in bitches treated with medroxyprogesterone acetate.

The aim of this study was to investigate the effects of treatment with medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) on canine adenohypophyseal function. Five Beagle bitches were treated with MPA (10mg/kg, every 4 weeks) and their adenohypophyseal function was assessed in a combined adenohypophyseal function test. Four hypophysiotropic hormones (CRH, GHRH, GnRH, and TRH) were administered before and 2, 5, 8, and 11 months after the start of MPA treatment, and blood samples for determination of the plasma concentrations of ACTH, cortisol, GH, IGF-1, LH, FSH, prolactin, alpha-MSH, and TSH were collected at -15, 0, 5, 10, 20, 30, and 45 min after suprapituitary stimulation. MPA successfully prevented the occurrence of estrus, ovulation, and a subsequent luteal phase. MPA treatment did not affect basal and GnRH-induced plasma LH concentrations. The basal plasma FSH concentration was significantly higher at 2 months after the start of MPA treatment than before or at 5, 8, and 11 months after the start of treatment. The maximal FSH increment and the AUC for FSH after suprapituitary stimulation were significantly higher before treatment than at 5, 8, and 11 months of MPA treatment. Differences in mean basal plasma GH concentrations before and during treatment were not significant, but MPA treatment resulted in significantly elevated basal plasma IGF-1 concentrations at 8 and 11 months. MPA treatment did not affect basal and stimulated plasma ACTH concentrations, with the exception of a decreased AUC for ACTH at 11 months. In contrast, the maximal cortisol increment and the AUC for cortisol after suprapituitary stimulation were significantly lower during MPA treatment than prior to treatment. MPA treatment did not affect basal plasma concentrations of prolactin, TSH, and alpha-MSH, with the exception of slightly increased basal plasma TSH concentrations at 8 months of treatment. MPA treatment did not affect TRH-induced plasma concentrations of prolactin and TSH. In conclusion, the effects of chronic MPA treatment on adenohypophyseal function included increased FSH secretion, unaffected LH secretion, activation of the mammary GH-induced IGF-I secretion, slightly activated TSH secretion, suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical axis, and unaffected secretion of prolactin and alpha-MSH.

Anhidrosis: a clue to an underlying autonomic disorder.

We describe a patient with Ross syndrome who had the classic triad of segmental anhidrosis, tonic pupils and hyporeflexia. Dilute pilocarpine (0.1%) instillation in both eyes revealed parasympathetic denervation hypersensitivity. There was evidence of cardiac dysautonomia in the form of a decrease in heart rate variability with deep breathing and an abnormal Valsalva response. A thermoregulatory sweat test showed the presence of sweating in the right cheek, neck and upper one-third of the left arm and shoulder only. Sympathetic skin responses were absent in the affected segments of the upper limb. Ross syndrome is a degenerative disorder that progressively involves different fibre populations, starting with autonomic fibres and then involving the unmyelinated and myelinated sensory fibres. A careful clinical examination and simple bedside autonomic tests can confirm the diagnosis.

Imepitoin withdrawal in dogs with idiopathic epilepsy well-controlled with imepitoin and phenobarbital and/or potassium bromide does not increase seizure frequency.

Phenobarbital or potassium bromide (KBr) add-on treatment decreases the average monthly seizure frequency in dogs with idiopathic epilepsy resistant to a maximum dose of imepitoin. The importance of continued administration of imepitoin in these dogs is currently unknown. The goal of this study was to assess whether imepitoin withdrawal would destabilize epileptic seizure control. In this prospective clinical trial epileptic seizure control was evaluated by comparing the monthly seizure frequency of 13 dogs with well-controlled idiopathic epilepsy receiving a combination of imepitoin and phenobarbital (n=4), imepitoin and KBr (n=7), and imepitoin, phenobarbital and KBr (n=2) during a period of 3-6 months (pre-withdrawal period), with a follow-up period of 9-12 months after withdrawal of imepitoin (post-withdrawal period). Adverse effects were also recorded before and after withdrawal of imepitoin. Imepitoin was tapered off over 3 months as follows: 20mg/kg twice daily for 1 month, then 10mg/kg twice daily for 1 month, then once daily for 1 month. Withdrawal of imepitoin did not increase monthly seizure frequency (P=0.9). Moreover, all owners reported improvement in the adverse effects experienced by their dog after withdrawal of imepitoin. Imepitoin withdrawal in epileptic dogs that were well-controlled with imepitoin and phenobarbital and/or KBr did not worsen epileptic seizure control, and possibly decreased antiepileptic treatment-related adverse effects. However, a worsening of seizure frequency could occur in individual cases.

Phenobarbital or potassium bromide as an add-on antiepileptic drug for the management of canine idiopathic epilepsy refractory to imepitoin.

Imepitoin has recently been approved in Europe for the management of dogs with idiopathic epilepsy. Currently, there is no evidence-based information available on the efficacy of antiepileptic drugs used as additions to the therapeutic regimen in dogs with idiopathic epilepsy that are not well controlled with imepitoin. The goal of this study was to evaluate the efficacy of phenobarbital or potassium bromide (KBr) as add-on antiepileptic drugs for controlling dogs refractory to a maximum dose of imepitoin (30 mg/kg twice daily). The study was performed as a prospective, randomised, controlled clinical trial. The efficacy of phenobarbital and KBr was evaluated by comparing monthly seizure frequency (MSF), monthly seizure day frequency (MSDF), the presence of cluster seizures during a retrospective 2-month period with a prospective follow-up of 6 months, and the overall responder rate. Twenty-seven dogs were included in the study, 14 dogs in the phenobarbital group and 13 dogs in the KBr group. Both median MSF and MSDF decreased in the phenobarbital group (both P = 0.001) and in the KBr group (P = 0.004 and P = 0.003, respectively). Overall, the number of dogs with cluster seizures decreased (P = 0.0005). The responder rate was 79% vs. 69% in the phenobarbital and KBr groups, respectively. We conclude that phenobarbital or KBr add-on treatment decreases median MSF and MSDF in epileptic dogs refractory to a maximum dose of imepitoin. Combination therapy was generally well tolerated and resulted in an improvement in seizure management in the majority of the dogs.

Intranasal Midazolam versus Rectal Diazepam for the Management of Canine Status Epilepticus: A Multicenter Randomized Parallel-Group Clinical Trial.

BACKGROUND: Intranasal administration of benzodiazepines has shown superiority over rectal administration for terminating emergency epileptic seizures in human trials. No such clinical trials have been performed in dogs. OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the clinical efficacy of intranasal midazolam (IN-MDZ), via a mucosal atomization device, as a first-line management option for canine status epilepticus and compare it to rectal administration of diazepam (R-DZP) for controlling status epilepticus before intravenous access is available. ANIMALS: Client-owned dogs with idiopathic or structural epilepsy manifesting status epilepticus within a hospital environment were used. Dogs were randomly allocated to treatment with IN-MDZ (n = 20) or R-DZP (n = 15). METHODS: Randomized parallel-group clinical trial. Seizure cessation time and adverse effects were recorded. For each dog, treatment was considered successful if the seizure ceased within 5 minutes and did not recur within 10 minutes after administration. The 95% confidence interval was used to detect the true population of dogs that were successfully treated. The Fisher's 2-tailed exact test was used to compare the 2 groups, and the results were considered statistically significant if P < .05. RESULTS: IN-MDZ and R-DZP terminated status epilepticus in 70% (14/20) and 20% (3/15) of cases, respectively (P = .0059). All dogs showed sedation and ataxia. CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL IMPORTANCE: IN-MDZ is a quick, safe and effective first-line medication for controlling status epilepticus in dogs and appears superior to R-DZP. IN-MDZ might be a valuable treatment option when intravenous access is not available and for treatment of status epilepticus in dogs at home.

Efficacy of isoniazid prophylaxis in renal allograft recipients.

The efficacy of isoniazid (INH) prophylaxis in renal allograft recipients who are on long-term immunosuppression in a region highly prevalent for tuberculosis (TB) was studied. INH (300 mg/d in patients weighing more than 35 kg and 5 mg/kg/d in patients with <35 kg body weight) together with Pyridoxine 50 mg/d for 1 year was started in randomly assigned renal allograft recipients. Occurrence of clinical tuberculosis during the initial 2 years posttransplantation was observed in the risk group and patients at no risk. Risks were defined as acute rejection episodes and exposure to antirejection therapy, past history of TB completely or incompletely treated, radiological evidence of past tuberculosis, history of tuberculosis in close contacts. Among 480 patients registered in the study, INH prophylaxis was given to 219 randomly assigned renal allograft recipients. Results were compared among patients developing TB during the initial 2 years posttransplantation in both the groups. Risk factors were analyzed for comparison in both groups. No significant difference was observed in terms of past history of TB, TB in close contacts, episodes of acute rejection during the initial 3 months, and comorbidities such as cytomegalovirus infection, hepatitis C virus infection, and posttransplant diabetes. One patient from the INH group and 10 patients from the non-INH group developed TB during the initial 2 years posttransplantation (P < .0001). None of patients required discontinuation of INH. INH was observed to be safe and effective as a chemoprophylactic agent in renal allograft recipients.

Treatment of growth hormone excess in dogs with the progesterone receptor antagonist aglépristone.

Acromegaly or hypersomatotropism in dogs is almost always due to progestin-induced hypersecretion of GH originating from the mammary gland. The aim of this study was to investigate whether aglépristone, a progesterone receptor antagonist, can be used to treat this form of canine acromegaly. In five Beagle bitches hypersomatotropism was induced by administration of MPA for over 1 year. Subsequently, aglépristone was administered. Blood samples were collected before MPA administration, immediately before, during, and 3.5 and 5.5 weeks after the last administration of aglépristone for determination of the plasma concentrations of GH and IGF-I. In addition, blood samples for the determination of the 6-h plasma profile of GH were collected before MPA administration, before aglépristone administration, and 1 week after the last aglépristone treatment. MPA administration resulted in a significant increase of the mean plasma IGF-I concentration, whereas analysis of the pulsatile plasma profile demonstrated a trend (P=0.06) for a higher mean basal plasma GH concentration and a higher mean AUC(0) for GH. Treatment with aglépristone resulted in a significant decrease of the mean plasma GH and IGF-I concentrations. Analysis of the pulsatile plasma profile showed a trend (P=0.06) for a lower mean basal plasma GH concentration and a lower mean AUC(0) for GH 1 week after the last aglépristone treatment compared with these values before aglépristone administration. Three and a half and 5.5 weeks after the last aglépristone administration the mean plasma IGF-I concentration increased again. In conclusion, aglépristone can be used successfully to treat dogs with progestin-induced hypersomatotropism.

Ghrelin-stimulation test in the diagnosis of canine pituitary dwarfism.

This study investigated whether ghrelin, a potent releaser of growth hormone (GH) secretion, is a valuable tool in the diagnosis of canine pituitary dwarfism. The effect of intravenous administration of ghrelin on the release of GH and other adenohypophyseal hormones was investigated in German shepherd dogs with congenital combined pituitary hormone deficiency and in healthy Beagles. Analysis of the maximal increment (i.e. difference between pre- and maximal post-ghrelin plasma hormone concentration) indicated that the GH response was significantly lower in the dwarf dogs compared with the healthy dogs. In none of the pituitary dwarfs, the ghrelin-induced plasma GH concentration exceeded 5 microg/l at any time. However, this was also true for 3 healthy dogs. In all dogs, ghrelin administration did not affect the plasma concentrations of ACTH, cortisol, TSH, LH and PRL . Thus, while a ghrelin-induced plasma GH concentration above 5 microg/l excludes GH deficiency, false-negative results may occur.