Patient-reported outcome measures for physical function in cancer patients: content comparison of the EORTC CAT Core, EORTC QLQ-C30, SF-36, FACT-G, and PROMIS measures using the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health.

BACKGROUND: Patient-reported physical function (PF) is a key endpoint in cancer clinical trials. Using complex statistical methods, common metrics have been developed to compare scores from different patient-reported outcome (PRO) measures, but such methods do not account for possible differences in questionnaire content. Therefore, the aim of our study was a content comparison of frequently used PRO measures for PF in cancer patients. METHODS: Relying on the framework of the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF) we categorized the item content of the physical domains of the following measures: EORTC CAT Core, EORTC QLQ-C30, SF-36, PROMIS Cancer Item Bank for Physical Function, PROMIS Short Form for Physical Function 20a, and the FACT-G. Item content was linked to ICF categories by two independent reviewers. RESULTS: The 118 items investigated were assigned to 3 components ('d - Activities and Participation', 'b - Body Functions', and 'e - Environmental Factors') and 11 first-level ICF categories. All PF items of the EORTC measures but one were assigned to the first-level ICF categories 'd4 - Mobility' and 'd5 - Self-care', all within the component 'd - Activities and Participation'. The SF-36 additionally included item content related to 'd9 - Community, social and civic life' and the PROMIS Short Form for Physical Function 20a also included content related to 'd6 - domestic life'. The PROMIS Cancer Item Bank (v1.1) covered, in addition, two first-level categories within the component 'b - Body Functions'. The FACT-G Physical Well-being scale was found to be the most diverse scale with item content partly not covered by the ICF framework. DISCUSSION: Our results provide information about conceptual differences between common PRO measures for the assessment of PF in cancer patients. Our results complement quantitative information on psychometric characteristics of these measures and provide a better understanding of the possibilities of establishing common metrics.

The current use of the EORTC QLQ-NMIBC24 and QLQ-BLM30 questionnaires for the assessment of health-related quality of life in bladder cancer patients: a systematic review.

PURPOSE: Investigating the use of the EORTC bladder cancer (BC) modules by evaluating: (a) study contexts/designs; (b) languages/countries in which the modules were administered; (c) their acceptance by patients/investigators; and (d) their psychometric properties. METHODS: A systematic review was performed with studies from 1998 until 20/10/2021 in five databases. Articles/conference abstracts using the EORTC-QLQBLM30 (muscle invasive BC) and the EORTC-QLQNMIBC24 (previously referred to as QLQ-BLS24; non-muscle invasive BC) were included. Two authors independently screened titles/abstracts/full-texts and performed data extraction. RESULTS: A total of 76 eligible studies were identified. Most studies included the BLM30 (n = 53), were in a urological surgery context (n = 41) and were cross-sectional (n = 35) or prospective (n = 30) in design. The BC modules were administered in 14 languages across 19 countries. Missing data were low-moderate for all non-sex related questions (< 1% to 15%). Sex-related questions had higher rates of missing data (ranging from 6.9% to 84%). Most investigators did not use all scales of the questionnaires. One validation study for the original BLS24 led to the development of the NMIBC24, which adopted a new scale structure for which good structural validity was confirmed (n = 3). Good reliability and validity was shown for the NMIBC24 module, except for malaise and bloating/flatulence scales. Psychometric evidence for BLM30 is lacking. CONCLUSION: These results provide insight into how the EORTC BC quality of life modules could be further improved. Current work is ongoing to update the modules and to determine if the two modules can be combined into a single questionnaire that works well in both the NMIBC and MIBC settings.

Feasibility and safety of cangrelor in patients with suboptimal P2Y12 inhibition undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention: rationale of the Dutch Cangrelor Registry.

BACKGROUND: Despite the advances of potent oral P2Y12 inhibitors, their onset of action is delayed, which might have a negative impact on clinical outcome in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Trials conducted in the United States of America have identified cangrelor as a potent and rapid-acting intravenous P2Y12 inhibitor, which has the potential of reducing ischemic events in these patients without an increase in the bleeding. As cangrelor is rarely used in The Netherlands, we conducted a nationwide registry to provide an insight into the use of cangrelor in the management of patients with suboptimal platelet inhibition undergoing (primary) PCI (the Dutch Cangrelor Registry). STUDY DESIGN: The Cangrelor Registry is a prospective, observational, multicenter, single-arm registry with cangrelor administered pre-PCI in: (1) P2Y12 naive patients with ad-hoc PCI, (2) patients with STEMI/NSTEMI with suboptimal P2Y12 inhibition including (3) stable resuscitated/defibrillated patients with out-of-hospital cardiac arrest (OHCA) due to acute ischemia and (4) STEMI/NSTEMI patients with a high thrombotic burden. Primary endpoint is 48 h Net Adverse Clinical Events (NACE), which is a composite endpoint of all-cause death, recurrent myocardial infarction (MI), target vessel revascularization (TVR), stroke, stent thrombosis (ST) and BARC 2-3-5 bleeding. The Dutch Cangrelor Registry will assess the feasibility and safety of cangrelor in patients with suboptimal P2Y12 inhibition undergoing (primary) PCI in the setting of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) and stable coronary artery disease (CAD) in the Netherlands.

Functionality and prevalence of trehalose-based oligosaccharides as novel compatible solutes in ascospores of Neosartorya fischeri (Aspergillus fischeri) and other fungi.

Ascospores of Neosartorya, Byssochlamys and Talaromyces can be regarded as the most stress-resistant eukaryotic cells. They can survive exposure at temperatures as high as 85°C for 100 min or more. Neosartorya fischeri ascospores are more viscous and more resistant to the combined stress of heat and desiccation than the ascospores of Talaromyces macrosporus which contain predominantly trehalose. These ascospores contain trehalose-based oligosaccharides (TOS) that are novel compatible solutes, which are accumulated to high levels. These compounds are also found in other members of the genus Neosartorya and in some other genera within the order Eurotiales that also include Byssochlamys and Talaromyces. The presence of oligosaccharides was observed in species that had a relatively high growth temperature. TOS glasses have a higher glass transition temperature (Tg ) than trehalose, and they form a stable glass with crystallizing molecules, such as mannitol. Our data indicate that TOS are important for prolonged stabilization of cells against stress. The possible unique role of these solutes in protection against dry heat conditions is discussed.

Long-term efficacy of a 0.07% cetylpyridinium chloride mouth rinse in relation to plaque and gingivitis: a 6-month randomized, vehicle-controlled clinical trial.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the effectiveness of 0.07% cetylpyridinium chloride (CPC) mouth rinse for reduction of gingival inflammation and inhibition of plaque compared to a vehicle control (VC) mouth rinse over a 6-month period. MATERIALS & METHODS: Participants (n = 62) used their randomly assigned product as adjunct to toothbrushing. Bleeding, plaque and staining scores were assessed at baseline, 3 and 6 months. Plaque and saliva samples were taken at each assessment monitoring possible shifts in the composition of the microbiota. RESULTS: A significant difference (P = 0.002) in favour of the CPC mouth rinse, with respect to plaque scores, was found. Bleeding scores at 6 months were not significantly different (P = 0.089). However, when correcting for baseline values, a tendency towards a significant difference in bleeding scores at end trail was observed in favour of the CPC mouth rinse (P = 0.061). Regarding staining at 3 and 6 months, a small but significant difference (8.6% and 10.4%, respectively) (P < 0.0001) was observed with lower scores for the VC group. There was a significant reduction in total anaerobic count in the CPC group at 6 months (P < 0.05). The ratio of aerobes/anaerobes was markedly increased at 3 months, especially in the CPC group. No further differences were observed between groups at 6 months. CONCLUSIONS: The use of 0.07% CPC mouth rinse was significantly more effective in reducing plaque scores than the vehicle control. Bleeding scores were not different at 6 months. The test product was well accepted and did not cause any serious clinical side effects or negatively affected the microbiota.

Survival after cutaneous melanoma in kidney transplant recipients: a population-based matched cohort study.

Transplant recipients are at elevated risk of melanoma and may have poorer outcomes than nontransplant recipients. We conducted a national, population-based, matched cohort study of Australian kidney transplant recipients and randomly selected members of the general population matched for age, sex, state and year of diagnosis with invasive cutaneous melanoma (1982-2003). Melanoma histopathological characteristics were extracted from cancer registry notifications and death data were obtained from the National Death Index (1982-2011). Histopathology was compared using conditional logistic regression and overall survival analyzed using Cox proportional hazard models. Compared to melanomas in nontransplant recipients (n = 202), melanomas in transplant recipients (n = 75) had a higher Clark's level (p = 0.007) and higher American Joint Committee on Cancer pathologic stage (p = 0.002), but not Breslow thickness (p = 0.11). Posttransplant melanoma conferred higher risk of death (adjusted hazard ratio 4.26, 95% CI 2.71-6.72, p < 0.001) after adjustment for the matching variables, pathologic stage, histological type and anatomic site. This was not explained by transplantation alone. Melanomas in transplant recipients are more invasive than those in nonrecipients. More aggressive tumor behavior is also supported by a markedly poorer outcome. Treatment algorithms developed for the general population with melanoma may not apply to transplant recipients. A review of patient education and skin cancer screening guidelines is warranted.

Mannitol is essential for the development of stress-resistant ascospores in Neosartorya fischeri (Aspergillus fischeri).

The polyol mannitol is one of the main compatible solutes in Neosartorya fischeri and accumulates in conidia and ascospores. Here, it is shown that biosynthesis of mannitol in N. fischeri mainly depends on mannitol 1-phosphate dehydrogenase (MpdA). Reporter studies and qPCR analysis demonstrated that mpdA is moderately expressed in vegetative hyphae and conidiophores, while it is highly expressed during development of ascospores. Deletion of mpdA reduced mannitol in whole cultures as much as 85% of the wild type, while trehalose levels had increased more than 4-fold. Decreased mannitol accumulation had no effect on mycelial growth irrespective of heat- or oxidative stress. Notably, conidia of the ΔmpdA strain had higher mannitol and lower trehalose levels. They were more sensitive to heat stress. The most distinct phenotype of mpdA deletion was the absence of full development of ascospores. Formation of cleistothecia, and asci was not affected. The ascus cell wall, however, did not dissolve and asci contained incompletely formed or aborted ascospores. Addition of the Mpd inhibitor nitrophenide to the wild type strain also resulted in disturbed ascospore formation. Taken together, these results show that mannitol has a role in sexual development of N. fischeri and in stress resistance of conidia.

The effect of an essential-oils mouthrinse as compared to a vehicle solution on plaque and gingival inflammation: a systematic review and meta-analysis.

OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this review was to systematically evaluate the effects of an alcohol vehicle solution (V-Sol) compared with an essential-oils mouthwash (EOMW) and if available with a water-based control (WC) on plaque, gingival inflammation parameters and extrinsic tooth staining. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The PubMed-MEDLINE, Cochrane-CENTRAL and EMBASE databases were searched. Where appropriate, a meta-analysis was performed, and difference of means (DIFFM) as calculated. RESULTS: In total, 971 unique papers were found of which five met the eligibility criteria. The DIFFM of the meta-analysis of four 6-month studies showed that the EOMW provided significantly better plaque control (DIFFM = 0.39, P < 0.00001) and gingival inflammation reduction as measured by the Löe and Silness Index (DIFFM = 0.36, P = 0.00001) as compared to the V-Sol. Regarding extrinsic tooth staining, a small but significant difference (DIFFM = -0.08, P = 0.03) was observed. CONCLUSION: Limited data, but with a low risk of bias, were available to assess the potential benefit of the alcohol-containing V-Sol. 'High'- and 'moderate'-quality data were available for the analysis of plaque and gingivitis, respectively. Within these limitations, EOMW appears to provide a significant oral health benefit during the 6 months of use. The data retrieved for this review suggest that the essential oils produce an effect on plaque and gingivitis that extends beyond the V-Sol. Furthermore, the V-Sol proved to be no different from a WC.

Understanding quality of life issues in patients with advanced melanoma: Phase 1 and 2 in the development of the EORTC advanced melanoma module.

AIMS: We aimed to develop a European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer (EORTC) Quality of Life (QoL) module tailored for patients with advanced (resectable or unresectable stage III/IV) melanoma receiving immune checkpoint inhibitors or targeted therapy. METHODS: Following the EORTC QoL Group module development guidelines, we conducted phases 1 and 2 of the development process. In phase 1, we generated a list of health-related (HR)QoL issues through a systematic literature review and semi-structured interviews with healthcare professionals (HCPs) and patients with advanced melanoma. In phase 2, these issues were converted into questionnaire items to create the preliminary module. RESULTS: Phase 1: we retrieved 8006 articles for the literature review, of which 35 were deemed relevant, resulting in 84 HRQoL issues being extracted to create the initial issue list. Semi-structured interviews with 18 HCPs and 28 patients with advanced melanoma resulted in 28 issues being added to the initial issue list. Following EORTC module development criteria, 26 issues were removed, and two issues were added after review by patient advocates. Phase 2: To ensure uniformity and avoid duplication, 16 issues were consolidated into eight items. Additionally, an independent expert contributed one new item, resulting in a preliminary module comprising 80 HRQoL items. CONCLUSION: We identified a range of HRQoL issues (dry skin, xerostomia, and arthralgia) relevant to patients with stage III/IV melanoma. Future module development phases will refine the questionnaire. Once completed, this module will enable standardized assessment of HRQoL in patients with (locally) advanced melanoma.

Economic analysis of chromosome testing in couples with recurrent miscarriage to prevent handicapped offspring.

STUDY QUESTION: Which strategy is least expensive to prevent the birth of a handicapped child in couples with recurrent miscarriage (RM); parental chromosome analysis followed by amniocentesis in case of carrier status of one of the parents, or amniocentesis in all ongoing pregnancies without the knowledge of parental carrier status? SUMMARY ANSWER: For virtually all couples with RM amniocentesis in all ongoing pregnancies without the knowledge of parental carrier status is less expensive in preventing the birth of a handicapped child than parental chromosome analysis followed by amniocentesis in case of carrier status of one of the parents. WHAT IS KNOWN ALREADY: One of the causes of RM is a balanced chromosome abnormality in one of the partners. If one of the partners is carrier of a balanced structural chromosomal abnormality, the risk of offspring with an unbalanced structural chromosome abnormality is increased. Like all couples, couples with RM also have an age-dependent risk for fetal aneuploidy, of which trisomy 21 is most common. STUDY DESIGN, SIZE, DURATION: Model-based economic analysis to compare costs and effects of two strategies in couples with RM to prevent the birth of a handicapped child in case of ongoing pregnancy. PARTICIPANTS/MATERIALS, SETTING, METHODS: Comparison of two strategies in women with RM: strategy (I) parental chromosome analysis followed by amniocentesis in pregnancy in case of carrier status of one of the parents and strategy (II) amniocentesis in all ongoing pregnancies without the knowledge of carrier status. No testing was the reference strategy. Data on probabilities and costs were derived from the literature. Incremental costs and effects were calculated [incremental cost-effectiveness ratio (ICER)]. Effectiveness was expressed as the number of prevented births of handicapped child equivalents compared with no testing. In these calculations, the birth of a handicapped child was valued 10 times worse than the loss of a viable pregnancy due to amniocentesis. MAIN RESULTS AND THE ROLE OF CHANCE: Depending on the risk for carrier status, the ICER for Strategy I (parental chromosome analysis followed by amniocentesis in case of carrier status of one of the parents) varied between € 226,000 and € 6,556,000 per prevented handicapped child equivalent. For Strategy II (amniocentesis in all ongoing pregnancies without the knowledge of carrier status), the ICER varied between € 2000 and € 233 000 per prevented handicapped child equivalent. Strategy I was less expensive than Strategy II only for a small subgroup of couples with maternal age <23 years, three or more previous miscarriages and a family history of RM. LIMITATIONS, REASONS FOR CAUTION: Our analysis is not a plea for amniocentesis in all women with RM. Individual risk assessment with serum markers and nuchal translucency is probably more effective at lower cost. WIDER IMPLICATIONS OF THE FINDINGS: This analysis can be used by clinicians to explain the chances of adverse pregnancy outcome in couples with RM, as well as by policy makers in health-care economics. Future guidelines on RM might be more restrictive from the perspective of the limited health-care resources that we have available.

Efficient nucleus detector in histopathology images.

In traditional cancer diagnosis, (histo)pathological images of biopsy samples are visually analysed by pathologists. However, this judgment is subjective and leads to variability among pathologists. Digital scanners may enable automated objective assessment, improved quality and reduced throughput time. Nucleus detection is seen as the corner stone for a range of applications in automated assessment of (histo)pathological images. In this paper, we propose an efficient nucleus detector designed with machine learning. We applied colour deconvolution to reconstruct each applied stain. Next, we constructed a large feature set and modified AdaBoost to create two detectors, focused on different characteristics in appearance of nuclei. The proposed modification of AdaBoost enables inclusion of the computational cost of each feature during selection, thus improving the computational efficiency of the resulting detectors. The outputs of the two detectors are merged by a globally optimal active contour algorithm to refine the border of the detected nuclei. With a detection rate of 95% (on average 58 incorrectly found objects per field-of-view) based on 51 field-of-view images of Her2 immunohistochemistry stained breast tissue and a complete analysis in 1 s per field-of-view, our nucleus detector shows good performance and could enable a range of applications in automated assessment of (histo)pathological images.

Cytosolic streaming in vegetative mycelium and aerial structures of Aspergillus niger.

Aspergillus niger forms aerial hyphae and conidiophores after a period of vegetative growth. The hyphae within the mycelium of A. niger are divided by septa. The central pore in these septa allows for cytoplasmic streaming. Here, we studied inter- and intra-compartmental streaming of the reporter protein GFP in A. niger. Expression of the gene encoding nuclear targeted GFP from the gpdA or glaA promoter resulted in strong fluorescence of nuclei within the vegetative hyphae and weak fluorescence in nuclei within the aerial structures. These data and nuclear run on experiments showed that gpdA and glaA are higher expressed in the vegetative mycelium when compared to aerial hyphae, conidiophores and conidia. Notably, gpdA or glaA driven expression of the gene encoding cytosolic GFP resulted in strongly fluorescent vegetative hyphae and aerial structures. Apparently, GFP streams from vegetative hyphae into aerial structures. This was confirmed by monitoring fluorescence of photo-activatable GFP (PA-GFP). In contrast, PA-GFP did not stream from aerial structures to vegetative hyphae. Streaming of PA-GFP within vegetative hyphae or within aerial structures of A. niger occurred at a rate of 10-15 µm s(-1). Taken together, these results not only show that GFP streams from the vegetative mycelium to aerial structures but it also indicates that its encoding RNA is not streaming. Absence of RNA streaming would explain why distinct RNA profiles were found in aerial structures and the vegetative mycelium by nuclear run on analysis and micro-array analysis.

Germination of conidia of Aspergillus niger is accompanied by major changes in RNA profiles.

The transcriptome of conidia of Aspergillus niger was analysed during the first 8 h of germination. Dormant conidia started to grow isotropically two h after inoculation in liquid medium. Isotropic growth changed to polarised growth after 6 h, which coincided with one round of mitosis. Dormant conidia contained transcripts from 4 626 genes. The number of genes with transcripts decreased to 3 557 after 2 h of germination, after which an increase was observed with 4 780 expressed genes 8 h after inoculation. The RNA composition of dormant conidia was substantially different than all the subsequent stages of germination. The correlation coefficient between the RNA profiles of 0 h and 8 h was 0.46. They were between 0.76-0.93 when profiles of 2, 4 and 6 h were compared with that of 8 h. Dormant conidia were characterised by high levels of transcripts of genes involved in the formation of protecting components such as trehalose, mannitol, protective proteins (e.g. heat shock proteins and catalase). Transcripts belonging to the Functional Gene Categories (FunCat) protein synthesis, cell cycle and DNA processing and respiration were over-represented in the up-regulated genes at 2 h, whereas metabolism and cell cycle and DNA processing were over-represented in the up-regulated genes at 4 h. At 6 h and 8 h no functional gene classes were over- or under-represented in the differentially expressed genes. Taken together, it is concluded that the transcriptome of conidia changes dramatically during the first two h and that initiation of protein synthesis and respiration are important during early stages of germination.

The effect of natamycin on the transcriptome of conidia of Aspergillus niger.

The impact of natamycin on Aspergillus niger was analysed during the first 8 h of germination of conidia. Polarisation, germ tube formation, and mitosis were inhibited in the presence of 3 and 10 µM of the anti-fungal compound, while at 10 µM also isotropic growth was affected. Natamycin did not have an effect on the decrease of microviscosity during germination and the concomitant reduction in mannitol and trehalose levels. However, it did abolish the increase of intracellular levels of glycerol and glucose during the 8 h period of germination.Natamycin hardly affected the changes that occur in the RNA profile during the first 2 h of germination. During this time period, genes related to transcription, protein synthesis, energy and cell cycle and DNA processing were particularly up-regulated. Differential expression of 280 and 2586 genes was observed when 8 h old germlings were compared with conidia that had been exposed to 3 µM and 10 µM natamycin, respectively. For instance, genes involved in ergosterol biosynthesis were down-regulated. On the other hand, genes involved in endocytosis and the metabolism of compatible solutes, and genes encoding protective proteins were up-regulated in natamycin treated conidia.

Focal nodular hyperplasia: hepatobiliary enhancement patterns on gadoxetic-acid contrast-enhanced MRI.

OBJECTIVES: To assess the range of hepatobiliary enhancement patterns of focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH) after gadoxetic-acid injection, and to correlate these patterns to specific histological features. MATERIALS AND METHODS: FNH lesions, imaged with Gadoxetic-acid-enhanced MRI, with either typical imaging findings on T1, T2 and dynamic-enhanced sequences or histologically proven, were evaluated for hepatobiliary enhancement patterns and categorized as homogeneously hyperintense, inhomogeneously hyperintense, iso-intense, or hypo-intense-with-ring. Available histological specimens of FNHs (surgical resection or histological biopsy), were re-evaluated to correlate histological features with observed enhancement patterns. RESULTS: 26 FNHs in 20 patients were included; histology was available in six lesions (four resections, two biopsies). The following distribution of enhancement patterns was observed: 10/26 homogeneously hyperintense, 4/26 inhomogeneously hyperintense, 5/26 iso-intense, 6/26 hypointense-with-ring, and 1/26 hypointense, but without enhancing ring. The following histological features associated with gadoxetic-acid uptake were identified: number and type of bile-ducts (pre-existent bile-ducts, proliferation, and metaplasia), extent of fibrosis, the presence of inflammation and extent of vascular proliferation. CONCLUSION: FNH lesions can be categorized into different hepatobiliary enhancement patterns on Gadoxetic-acid-enhanced MRI, which appear to be associated with histological differences in number and type of bile-ducts, and varying the presence of fibrous tissue, inflammation, and vascularization.

[The nature, extent and judicial response to aggression and violence directed against care workers in psychiatry]. / Agressie en geweld tegen hulpverleners in de psychiatrie; aard, omvang en strafrechtelijke reactie.

BACKGROUND: The Dutch government and the Council for public prosecutions consider aggression against and violence directed against public officers and care workers as unacceptable. But what is the attitude of these official bodies to violence directed against mental health care workers? AIM: To examine the nature and the prevalence of violence against mental health care professionals and the possible judicial consequences of this violence. METHOD: Dutch mental health professionals who work in the psychiatric hospitals and clinics were asked to fill in an online questionnaire about their experiences, over the past five years, of violence perpetrated by patients. RESULTS: The 1534 respondents had encountered violence regularly in the course of their work. Some of the violence was of a very serious nature and sometimes had severe consequences. Only a small number of the violent incidents were reported to the police and ultimately brought to court. The victims were poorly informed about the possible judicial consequences of the violence they had encountered. CONCLUSION: Not only should the mental health institutes counsel and inform the employees who have been victims of violence, they should also promote the development and implementation of an effective prosecution policy.

MR liver imaging with Gd-EOB-DTPA: a delay time of 10 minutes is sufficient for lesion characterisation.

OBJECTIVES: To assess whether, in patients with normal liver function, a hepatobiliary delay time of 10 min after Gd-EOB-DTPA injection is sufficient for lesion characterisation. METHODS: In 42 consecutive patients with suspected focal liver lesions, dynamic MRI was performed after intravenous Gd-EOB-DTPA, followed by hepatobiliary phases at 5, 10 and 20 min. The following items were assessed at each hepatobiliary phase: parenchymal enhancement, contrast agent excretion in bile ducts, lesion enhancement characteristics (hypo-, iso-, or hyperintensity, rim enhancement, central non-enhancement), and contrast- and signal-to-noise ratios, separately for hypo- and hyperintense lesions. RESULTS: Following enhancement, parenchymal signal intensity increased significantly up to 10 min (86.3%, P < 0.001), and subsequently stabilised (86.5% after 20 min, P = 0.223). Biliary contrast agent excretion was first observed in 2, 32 and 5 patients after 5, 10 and 20 min respectively. Hepatobiliary lesion enhancement characteristics observed after 5 min persisted during later hepatobiliary phases. CNR and SNR ratios increased significantly (P < 0.05) up to 10 min after enhancement without further increase at 20 min, in hypo- and hyperintense lesions. CONCLUSIONS: If lesion characterisation is the primary reason for performing MRI, a hepatobiliary delay time of 10 min after Gd-EOB-DTPA injection is sufficient in patients with normal liver function. KEY POINTS : • Magnetic resonance imaging is now a first line of investigation of the liver. • Optimal CNR and SNR are achieved 10 min after Gd-EOB-DTPA injection. • Typical enhancement characteristics are observed early and do not change. • Ten-minute hepatobiliary delay is sufficient for characterisation of focal liver lesions.

Glucose challenge test for detecting gestational diabetes mellitus: a systematic review.

BACKGROUND: The best strategy to identify women with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is unclear. OBJECTIVES: To perform a systematic review to calculate summary estimates of the sensitivity and specificity of the 50-g glucose challenge test for GDM. SEARCH STRATEGY: Systematic search of MEDLINE, EMBASE and Web of Science. SELECTION CRITERIA: Articles that compared the 50-g glucose challenge test with the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT, with a 75- or 100-g reference standard) before 32 weeks of gestation. DATA COLLECTION AND ANALYSIS: Summary estimates of sensitivity and specificity, with 95% confidence intervals and summary receiver operating characteristic curves, were calculated using bivariate random-effects models. Two reviewers independently selected articles that compared the 50 g glucose challenge test to the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT, 75 or 100 gram, reference standard) before 32 weeks of gestation. MAIN RESULTS: Twenty-six studies were included (13,564 women). Studies that included women with risk factors showed a pooled sensitivity of the 50-g glucose challenge test of 0.74 (95% CI 0.62-0.87), a pooled specificity of 0.77 (95% CI 0.66-0.89) (threshold value of 7.8 mmol/l), a derived positive likelihood ratio (LR) of 3.2 (95% CI 2.0-5.2) and a negative LR of 0.34 (95% CI 0.22-0.53). In studies with consecutive recruitment, the pooled sensitivity was 0.74 (95% CI 0.62-0.87) for a specificity of 0.85 (95% CI 0.80-0.91), with a derived positive LR of 4.9 (95% CI 3.5-7.0) and negative LR of 0.31 (95% CI 0.20-0.47). Increasing the threshold for disease (OGTT result) increased the sensitivity of the challenge test, and decreased the specificity. AUTHOR'S CONCLUSIONS: The 50-g glucose challenge test is acceptable to screen for GDM, but cannot replace the OGTT. Further possibilities of combining the 50-g glucose challenge test with other screening strategies should be explored.

Low impact of staging EUS for determining surgical resectability in esophageal cancer.

BACKGROUND: Although studies have shown that EUS has a high sensitivity and specificity for T and N staging, the value of EUS for staging tumors as resectable or nonresectable after CT of the chest and abdomen and US neck assessment, is largely unknown. This study was designed to assess the diagnostic value of EUS for determining resectability of esophageal cancer. METHODS: A retrospective analysis of all consecutive patients with esophageal carcinoma who underwent staging EUS, CT, and US. Tumors were considered resectable when there was no evidence of metastases or ingrowth in adjacent structures. Sensitivity, specificity, positive (PPV), and negative (NPV) predictive value of CT/US neck and CT/US neck + EUS for predicting surgical resectability were calculated. PPVs of CT/US alone and CT/US + EUS together were compared for assessing the diagnostic value of EUS. RESULTS: In total, 211 patients (155 men; mean age of 64 ± 9.4 years) were included, of which 176 (83 %) underwent all three staging investigations. Based on preoperative staging, 173 (82 %) patients were considered resectable and 38 (18 %) nonresectable. Of all 173 initially resectable patients, 145 were operated on. Of these patients, five (3.4 %) tumors were found nonresectable during surgery. Postoperative sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV of CT/US and CT/US + EUS for predicting surgical resectability were 88 versus 87 %, 20 versus 40 %, 97 versus 98 %, and 6 versus 10 %, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: Although EUS adds to the specificity of preoperative esophageal cancer staging after CT chest and abdomen, and US of the neck have been performed, the overall added value of EUS is limited.

Home-based intravenous treatment with reslizumab for severe asthma in the Netherlands - An evaluation.

The anti-IL-5 biologic reslizumab for the treatment of severe eosinophilic asthma is administered intravenously. In the current study home administration of intravenous reslizumab was evaluated in 24 patients included between 2019 (July) and 2020 (July). This is the first study to show that intravenous reslizumab can be administered safely and successfully in an outpatient setting. Notably, not all patients prefer home administration and severe asthma patients may have different needs when it comes to choosing treatment at home or in the hospital.