Unusual presentations of chronic graft versus host disease.

Skin is commonly affected by graft versus host disease (GVHD), a complication of bone marrow transplantation (BMT). One-third of hematopoietic cell transplantation recipients develop acute eruption classically described as folliculocentric, maculopapular, or morbilliform, in contrast to the more common chronic presentations of sclerotic, poikilodermic, or lichenoid dermatitides. With the wider use of non-myeloablative (reduced-intensity) transplant therapy, various atypical presentations can occur, representing a diagnostic challenge. Herein, we report an unusual case of chronic GVHD manifested by two distinct clinical and histopathological features lacking the classical presentation. Five months after her BMT, the patient presented with a papulosquamous eruption on her neck, trunk, and arms showing a psoriasiform histopathological pattern of chronic GVHD. She also demonstrated multiple small flesh-colored papules on her distal extremities showing a solitary syringotropic pattern of GVHD, demonstrated by interface dermatitis involving the superficial eccrine duct, as the only diagnostic histopathological feature of GVHD. This report, with review of literature, highlights the uncommon psoriasiform GVHD and the novel description of isolated syringotropic chronic GVHD.

Subungual melanoma with cartilaginous differentiation: Molecular insights.

Melanoma's rare capacity to undergo heterologous differentiation can create significant diagnostic challenges. The molecular mechanisms underlying this phenomenon are not well understood. We present an unusual case of subungual melanoma exhibiting extensive cartilaginous differentiation and provide insights into its molecular and cytogenomic features. Histopathologically, the tumor was predominantly composed of nodules of malignant cartilage in association with a smaller population of nested epithelioid to rhabdoid cells. Immunohistochemically, the tumor cells in both components were positive for S100, SOX10, and PRAME, and were negative for Melan-A and HMB-45. Molecular analysis by whole exome DNA sequence did not detect any pathogenic variants in genes commonly implicated in melanoma. Additional analysis by SNP chromosomal microarray revealed a complex genome characterized by numerous chromosomal losses and gains, including a homozygous deletion of the CDKN2A locus and a heterozygous deletion of the locus containing EXT2, a tumor suppressor implicated in hereditary multiple osteochondromas and secondary chondrosarcomas. This case underscores the importance of recognizing cartilaginous differentiation as a rare manifestation of melanoma, particularly at subungual sites, and suggests that at least some of these melanomas may be driven by non-canonical molecular pathways.

Entrectinib in patients with advanced or metastatic NTRK fusion-positive solid tumours: integrated analysis of three phase 1-2 trials.

BACKGROUND: Entrectinib is a potent inhibitor of tropomyosin receptor kinase (TRK) A, B, and C, which has been shown to have anti-tumour activity against NTRK gene fusion-positive solid tumours, including CNS activity due to its ability to penetrate the blood-brain barrier. We present an integrated efficacy and safety analysis of patients with metastatic or locally advanced solid tumours harbouring oncogenic NTRK1, NTRK2, and NTRK3 gene fusions treated in three ongoing, early-phase trials. METHODS: An integrated database comprised the pivotal datasets of three, ongoing phase 1 or 2 clinical trials (ALKA-372-001, STARTRK-1, and STARTRK-2), which enrolled patients aged 18 years or older with metastatic or locally advanced NTRK fusion-positive solid tumours who received entrectinib orally at a dose of at least 600 mg once per day in a capsule. All patients had an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group performance status of 0-2 and could have received previous anti-cancer therapy (except previous TRK inhibitors). The primary endpoints, the proportion of patients with an objective response and median duration of response, were evaluated by blinded independent central review in the efficacy-evaluable population (ie, patients with NTRK fusion-positive solid tumours who were TRK inhibitor-naive and had received at least one dose of entrectinib). Overall safety evaluable population included patients from STARTRK-1, STARTRK-2, ALKA-372-001, and STARTRK-NG (NCT02650401; treating young adult and paediatric patients [aged ≤21 years]), who received at least one dose of entrectinib, regardless of tumour type or gene rearrangement. NTRK fusion-positive safety evaluable population comprised all patients who have received at least one dose of entrectinib regardless of dose or follow-up. These ongoing studies are registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, NCT02097810 (STARTRK-1) and NCT02568267 (STARTRK-2), and EudraCT, 2012-000148-88 (ALKA-372-001). FINDINGS: Patients were enrolled in ALKA-372-001 from Oct 26, 2012, to March 27, 2018; in STARTRK-1 from Aug 7, 2014, to May 10, 2018; and in STARTRK-2 from Nov 19, 2015 (enrolment is ongoing). At the data cutoff date for this analysis (May 31, 2018) the efficacy-evaluable population comprised 54 adults with advanced or metastatic NTRK fusion-positive solid tumours comprising ten different tumour types and 19 different histologies. Median follow-up was 12.9 months (IQR 8·77-18·76). 31 (57%; 95% CI 43·2-70·8) of 54 patients had an objective response, of which four (7%) were complete responses and 27 (50%) partial reponses. Median duration of response was 10 months (95% CI 7·1 to not estimable). The most common grade 3 or 4 treatment-related adverse events in both safety populations were increased weight (seven [10%] of 68 patients in the NTRK fusion-positive safety population and in 18 [5%] of 355 patients in the overall safety-evaluable population) and anaemia (8 [12%] and 16 [5%]). The most common serious treatment-related adverse events were nervous system disorders (three [4%] of 68 patients and ten [3%] of 355 patients). No treatment-related deaths occurred. INTERPRETATION: Entrectinib induced durable and clinically meaningful responses in patients with NTRK fusion-positive solid tumours, and was well tolerated with a manageable safety profile. These results show that entrectinib is a safe and active treatment option for patients with NTRK fusion-positive solid tumours. These data highlight the need to routinely test for NTRK fusions to broaden the therapeutic options available for patients with NTRK fusion-positive solid tumours. FUNDING: Ignyta/F Hoffmann-La Roche.

Entrectinib in ROS1 fusion-positive non-small-cell lung cancer: integrated analysis of three phase 1-2 trials.

BACKGROUND: Recurrent gene fusions, such as ROS1 fusions, are oncogenic drivers of various cancers, including non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC). Up to 36% of patients with ROS1 fusion-positive NSCLC have brain metastases at the diagnosis of advanced disease. Entrectinib is a ROS1 inhibitor that has been designed to effectively penetrate and remain in the CNS. We explored the use of entrectinib in patients with locally advanced or metastatic ROS1 fusion-positive NSCLC. METHODS: We did an integrated analysis of three ongoing phase 1 or 2 trials of entrectinib (ALKA-372-001, STARTRK-1, and STARTRK-2). The efficacy-evaluable population included adult patients (aged ≥18 years) with locally advanced or metastatic ROS1 fusion-positive NSCLC who received entrectinib at a dose of at least 600 mg orally once per day, with at least 12 months' follow-up. All patients had an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group performance status of 0-2, and previous cancer treatment (except for ROS1 inhibitors) was allowed. The primary endpoints were the proportion of patients with an objective response (complete or partial response according to Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors version 1.1) and duration of response, and were evaluated by blinded independent central review. The safety-evaluable population for the safety analysis included all patients with ROS1 fusion-positive NSCLC in the three trials who received at least one dose of entrectinib (irrespective of dose or duration of follow-up). These ongoing studies are registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, NCT02097810 (STARTRK-1) and NCT02568267 (STARTRK-2), and EudraCT, 2012-000148-88 (ALKA-372-001). FINDINGS: Patients were enrolled in ALKA-372-001 from Oct 26, 2012, to March 27, 2018; in STARTRK-1 from Aug 7, 2014, to May 10, 2018; and in STARTRK-2 from Nov 19, 2015 (enrolment is ongoing). At the data cutoff date for this analysis (May 31, 2018), 41 (77%; 95% CI 64-88) of 53 patients in the efficacy-evaluable population had an objective response. Median follow-up was 15·5 monhts (IQR 13·4-20·2). Median duration of response was 24·6 months (95% CI 11·4-34·8). In the safety-evaluable population, 79 (59%) of 134 patients had grade 1 or 2 treatment-related adverse events. 46 (34%) of 134 patients had grade 3 or 4 treatment-related adverse events, with the most common being weight increase (ten [8%]) and neutropenia (five [4%]). 15 (11%) patients had serious treatment-related adverse events, the most common of which were nervous system disorders (four [3%]) and cardiac disorders (three [2%]). No treatment-related deaths occurred. INTERPRETATION: Entrectinib is active with durable disease control in patients with ROS1 fusion-positive NSCLC, and is well tolerated with a manageable safety profile, making it amenable to long-term dosing in these patients. These data highlight the need to routinely test for ROS1 fusions to broaden therapeutic options for patients with ROS1 fusion-positive NSCLC. FUNDING: Ignyta/F Hoffmann-La Roche.

Sarcoidosis with small syringotropic granulomas presenting clinically as a pigmented purpuric dermatosis: Inconspicuous clinical and histopathological clues to systemic illness.

Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disease with a myriad of clinical manifestations and a predilection to involve the lungs, eyes, lymph nodes, and skin. A 38-year-old man presented to dermatology with a history of progressive dyspnea, pulmonary consolidations on chest X-ray, and hilar adenopathy on computed tomography scan. Skin exam revealed asymptomatic, yellow to brown macules on the right lower extremity. Biopsy of a lesion showed diminutive syringotropic granulomas and perivascular hemosiderin; stains for bacteria, mycobacteria, and fungi were negative. Subsequent fine needle aspiration of a hilar mass revealed non-necrotizing epithelioid granulomas further supporting a diagnosis of sarcoidosis. The patient was placed on systemic steroids and had improvement of his pulmonary symptoms and stabilization of his hilar lymphadenopathy without resolution of his pigmented purpuric dermatosis (PPD) like lesions. Only three prior cases of syringotropic sarcoidosis have been reported; however, the biopsies had revealed conspicuously large granulomas in contrast with the small granulomas in our case, and none of the prior patients had clinical examination findings that mimicked PPD. Recognition of rare dermatologic and histopathological appearances of sarcoidosis is paramount as cutaneous sarcoidosis may be the harbinger of a systemic illness, which requires a timely diagnosis.

Adjuvant vemurafenib in resected, BRAFV600 mutation-positive melanoma (BRIM8): a randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled, multicentre, phase 3 trial.

BACKGROUND: Systemic adjuvant treatment might mitigate the high risk of disease recurrence in patients with resected stage IIC-III melanoma. The BRIM8 study evaluated adjuvant vemurafenib monotherapy in patients with resected, BRAFV600 mutation-positive melanoma. METHODS: BRIM8 was a phase 3, international, double-blind, randomised, placebo-controlled study that enrolled 498 adults (aged ≥18 years) with histologically confirmed stage IIC-IIIA-IIIB (cohort 1) or stage IIIC (cohort 2) BRAFV600 mutation-positive melanoma that was fully resected. Patients were randomly assigned (1:1) by an interactive voice or web response system to receive twice-daily adjuvant oral vemurafenib 960 mg tablets or matching placebo for 52 weeks (13 × 28-day cycles). Randomisation was done by permuted blocks (block size 6) and was stratified by pathological stage and region in cohort 1 and by region in cohort 2. The investigators, patients, and sponsor were masked to treatment assignment. The primary endpoint was disease-free survival in the intention-to-treat population, evaluated separately in each cohort. Hierarchical analysis of cohort 2 before cohort 1 was prespecified. This trial is registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT01667419. FINDINGS: The study enrolled 184 patients in cohort 2 (93 were assigned to vemurafenib and 91 to placebo) and 314 patients in cohort 1 (157 were assigned to vemurafenib and 157 to placebo). At the time of data cutoff (April 17, 2017), median study follow-up was 33·5 months (IQR 25·9-41·6) in cohort 2 and 30·8 months (25·5-40·7) in cohort 1. In cohort 2 (patients with stage IIIC disease), median disease-free survival was 23·1 months (95% CI 18·6-26·5) in the vemurafenib group versus 15·4 months (11·1-35·9) in the placebo group (hazard ratio [HR] 0·80, 95% CI 0·54-1·18; log-rank p=0·26). In cohort 1 (patients with stage IIC-IIIA-IIIB disease) median disease-free survival was not reached (95% CI not estimable) in the vemurafenib group versus 36·9 months (21·4-not estimable) in the placebo group (HR 0·54 [95% CI 0·37-0·78]; log-rank p=0·0010); however, the result was not significant because of the prespecified hierarchical prerequisite for the primary disease-free survival analysis of cohort 2 to show a significant disease-free survival benefit. Grade 3-4 adverse events occurred in 141 (57%) of 247 patients in the vemurafenib group and 37 (15%) of 247 patients in the placebo group. The most common grade 3-4 adverse events in the vemurafenib group were keratoacanthoma (24 [10%] of 247 patients), arthralgia (17 [7%]), squamous cell carcinoma (17 [7%]), rash (14 [6%]), and elevated alanine aminotransferase (14 [6%]), although all keratoacanthoma events and most squamous cell carcinoma events were by default graded as grade 3. In the placebo group, grade 3-4 adverse events did not exceed 2% for any of the reported terms. Serious adverse events were reported in 40 (16%) of 247 patients in the vemurafenib group and 25 (10%) of 247 patients in the placebo group. The most common serious adverse event was basal cell carcinoma, which was reported in eight (3%) patients in each group. One patient in the vemurafenib group of cohort 2 died 2 months after admission to hospital for grade 3 hypertension; however, this death was not considered to be related to the study drug. INTERPRETATION: The primary endpoint of disease-free survival was not met in cohort 2, and therefore the analysis of cohort 1 showing a numerical benefit in disease-free survival with vemurafenib versus placebo in patients with resected stage IIC-IIIA-IIIB BRAFV600 mutation-positive melanoma must be considered exploratory only. 1 year of adjuvant vemurafenib was well tolerated, but might not be an optimal treatment regimen in this patient population. FUNDING: F Hoffman-La Roche Ltd.

Laboratory Focus on Improving the Culture of Biosafety: Statewide Risk Assessment of Clinical Laboratories That Process Specimens for Microbiologic Analysis.

The Wisconsin State Laboratory of Hygiene challenged Wisconsin laboratories to examine their biosafety practices and improve their culture of biosafety. One hundred three clinical and public health laboratories completed a questionnaire-based, microbiology-focused biosafety risk assessment. Greater than 96% of the respondents performed activities related to specimen processing, direct microscopic examination, and rapid nonmolecular testing, while approximately 60% performed culture interpretation. Although they are important to the assessment of risk, data specific to patient occupation, symptoms, and travel history were often unavailable to the laboratory and, therefore, less contributory to a microbiology-focused biosafety risk assessment than information on the specimen source and test requisition. Over 88% of the respondents complied with more than three-quarters of the mitigation control measures listed in the survey. Facility assessment revealed that subsets of laboratories that claim biosafety level 1, 2, or 3 status did not possess all of the biosafety elements considered minimally standard for their respective classifications. Many laboratories reported being able to quickly correct the minor deficiencies identified. Task assessment identified deficiencies that trended higher within the general (not microbiology-specific) laboratory for core activities, such as packaging and shipping, direct microscopic examination, and culture modalities solely involving screens for organism growth. For traditional microbiology departments, opportunities for improvement in the cultivation and management of highly infectious agents, such as acid-fast bacilli and systemic fungi, were revealed. These results derived from a survey of a large cohort of small- and large-scale laboratories suggest the necessity for continued microbiology-based understanding of biosafety practices, vigilance toward biosafety, and enforcement of biosafety practices throughout the laboratory setting.

Urinary 11-dehydro-thromboxane B2 levels are associated with vascular inflammation and prognosis in atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease.

Cyclooxygenase-derived thromboxane (TxA2) and prostacyclin (PGI2) regulate atherogenesis in preclinical models. However, the relationship between TxA2 and PGI2 biosynthesis, vascular inflammation, and atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) progression in humans remains unclear. The association between stable urine metabolites of thromboxane (TxA2-M) and prostacyclin (PGI2-M), circulating levels of cellular adhesion molecules (CAMs: E-selectin, P-selectin), chemokines and C-reactive protein, and the incidence of major adverse cardiovascular events (MACE) were evaluated in 120 patients with stable ASCVD on aspirin therapy. Urinary TxA2-M levels were significantly correlated with circulating P-selectin (r=0.319, p<0.001) and E-selectin (r=0.245, p=0.007) levels, and associated with higher risk of MACE (p=0.043). In contrast, PGI2-M levels were not significantly associated with CAM levels or MACE. These results provide insight into the contribution of TxA2 biosynthesis to ASCVD progression in humans, and suggest that patients with elevated TxA2-M levels may be predisposed to advanced platelet and endothelial activation and higher risk of adverse cardiovascular outcomes.

A review on laser and light-based therapies for alopecia areata.

Alopecia areata is a form of non-scarring alopecia that results from a hyperactive immune response of T cells against hair follicles. Many patients with visible hair loss experience psychological and emotional distress, as a result of their cosmetic disfigurement, and frequently seek treatment. However, existing treatment methods, such as corticosteroids, topical irritants, sensitizing agents, immunosuppressants, and psoralen plus ultraviolet light A, may result in various adverse effects and often lack efficacy. Laser and light treatments offer a safe and effective alternative. This review aims to provide clinicians with a comprehensive summary of laser and light-based modalities used for the treatment of alopecia areata. Currently, the excimer laser is the most widely studied device and has shown positive results thus far. However, the development of future randomized controlled clinical trials will help determine the appropriate treatment protocols necessary, in order to achieve superior clinical outcomes.

Significance of Objective Structured Clinical Examinations to Plastic Surgery Residency Training.

INTRODUCTION: Objective structured clinical examinations (OSCEs) have proven to be a powerful tool. They possess more than a 30-year track record in assessing the competency of medical students, residents, and fellows. Objective structured clinical examinations have been used successfully in a variety of medical specialties, including surgery. They have recently found their way into the subspecialty of plastic surgery. METHODS: This article uses a systematic review of the available literature on OSCEs and their recent use in plastic surgery. It incorporates survey results assessing program directors' views on the use of OSCEs. RESULTS: Approximately 40% of programs surveyed use OSCEs to assess the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education core competencies. We found that 40% use OSCEs to evaluate specific plastic surgery milestones. Objective structured clinical examinations are usually performed annually. They cost anywhere between $100 and more than $1000 per resident. Four milestones giving residents the most difficulties on OSCEs were congenital anomalies, noncancer breast surgery, breast reconstruction, and practice-based learning and improvement. It was determined that challenges with milestones were due to lack of adequate general knowledge and surgical ward patient care, as well as deficits in professionalism and system-based problems. Programs were able to remediate weakness found by OSCEs using a variety of methods. CONCLUSIONS: Objective structured clinical examinations offer a unique tool to objectively assess the proficiency of residents in key areas of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education core competencies. In addition, they can be used to assess the specific milestones that plastic surgery residents must meet. This allows programs to identify and improve identified areas of weakness.

Surveillance of Wisconsin Antibacterial Susceptibility Patterns.

BACKGROUND: Antimicrobial resistance presents a threat to quality patient care. Knowledge of localantibacterial susceptibility patterns can guide clinicians in empiric antibacterial administration andassist pharmacists and infectious disease physicians in development of appropriate therapeutic pathways. METHODS: To characterize Wisconsin antibacterial susceptibility patterns and elucidate geographicor temporal variation in antibacterial resistance, a retrospective, observational analysis of antibiogram data was performed. Seventy-two members of the Wisconsin Clinical Laboratory Network(WCLN) submitted antibiograms describing clinically significant isolates tested in calendar year 2013 to the WCLN Laboratory Technical Advisory Group. RESULTS: In the context of commonly reported antibacterial agents, data were compiled for approximately 75,800 isolates of Escherichia coi; 13,300 Klebsiella pneumoniae; 6300 Proteus mirobilis;2800 Enterobacter cloacae; 8400 Pseudomonas aeruginosa; 30,000 S aureus; 11,200 coagulase-negative Staphylococcus spp; and 13,800 Enterococcus spp. P mirobilis isolates from northern Wisconsin were more likely to demonstrate resistance than those in the southern region. In contrast, P aeruginosa isolates from southern Wisconsin had decreased susceptibility to a number ofagents when compared to other regions. Temporal trending in decreased E coli and P mirabilis susceptibility to fluoroquinolones and trimethoprimsulfamethoxazole was observed. Increased methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus oureus (MRSA) rates were observed in northwest and southeastWisconsin. In general, northeast Wisconsin exhibited less frequency of antibacterial resistance. CONCLUSIONS: Geographic variation exists with respect to antibacterial resistance, particularly inareas of Wisconsin adjacent to large population centers of neighboring states. Antibacterial surveillance in Wisconsin is indicated on a regular basis to assess emerging trends in antibacterial resistance. Existing WCLN infrastructure allows for such investigations.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by anti-Wright (anti-Wra): case report and review of literature.

Antibodies to red cell antigens that are found at low frequency in the general population are rare causes of hemolytic disease of the newborn. To understand how to detect these cases, we provide a basic review of routine antenatal maternal antibody testing and report a case of a neonate with severe HDN caused by anti-Wright (anti-Wra), successfully managed with transfusion, phototherapy, and high-dose intravenous immunoglobulin. When hemolysis in a newborn is suspected in the absence of major blood group incompatibility or commonly detected maternal red cell antibodies, a direct antiglobulin test should be performed. A positive DAT should alert the clinician to the presence of maternal antibodies against low-incidence antigens. Antibodies to the Wra antigen are one such rare cause of HDN.

Pre- and post-treatment blood-based genomic landscape of patients with ROS1 or NTRK fusion-positive solid tumours treated with entrectinib.

Genomic tumour profiling informs targeted treatment options. Entrectinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor with efficacy in NTRK fusion-positive (-fp) solid tumours and ROS1-fp non-small cell lung cancer. FoundationOne® Liquid CDx (F1L CDx), a non-invasive in vitro next-generation sequencing (NGS)-based diagnostic, detects genomic alterations in plasma circulating tumour DNA (ctDNA). We evaluated the clinical validity of F1L CDx as an aid in identifying patients with NTRK-fp or ROS1-fp tumours and assessed the genomic landscape pre- and post-entrectinib treatment. Among evaluable pre-treatment clinical samples (N = 85), positive percentage agreements between F1L CDx and clinical trial assays (CTAs) were 47.4% (NTRK fusions) and 64.5% (ROS1 fusions); positive predictive value was 100% for both. The objective response rate for CTA+ F1L CDx+ patients was 72.2% in both cohorts. The median duration of response significantly differed between F1L CDx+ and F1L CDx- samples in ROS1-fp (5.6 vs. 17.3 months) but not NTRK-fp (9.2 vs. 12.9 months) patients. Fifteen acquired resistance mutations were detected. We conclude that F1L CDx is a clinically valid complement to tissue-based testing to identify patients who may benefit from entrectinib and those with acquired resistance mutations associated with disease progression.

MET gene amplification is a mechanism of resistance to entrectinib in ROS1+ NSCLC.

BACKGROUND: ROS1 tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) have demonstrated significant clinical benefit for ROS1+ NSCLC patients. However, TKI resistance inevitably develops through ROS1 kinase domain (KD) modification or another kinase driving bypass signaling. While multiple TKIs have been designed to target ROS1 KD mutations, less is known about bypass signaling in TKI-resistant ROS1+ lung cancers. METHODS: Utilizing a primary, patient-derived TPM3-ROS1 cell line (CUTO28), we derived an entrectinib-resistant line (CUTO28-ER). We evaluated proliferation and signaling responses to TKIs, and utilized RNA sequencing, whole exome sequencing, and fluorescence in situ hybridization to detect transcriptional, mutational, and copy number alterations, respectively. We substantiated in vitro findings using a CD74-ROS1 NSCLC patient's tumor samples. Last, we analyzed circulating tumor DNA (ctDNA) from ROS1+ NSCLC patients in the STARTRK-2 entrectinib trial to determine the prevalence of MET amplification. RESULTS: CUTO28-ER cells did not exhibit ROS1 KD mutations. MET TKIs inhibited proliferation and downstream signaling and MET transcription was elevated in CUTO28-ER cells. CUTO28-ER cells displayed extrachromosomal (ecDNA) MET amplification without MET activating mutations, exon 14 skipping, or fusions. The CD74-ROS1 patient samples illustrated MET amplification while receiving ROS1 TKI. Finally, two of 105 (1.9%) entrectinib-resistant ROS1+ NSCLC STARTRK-2 patients with ctDNA analysis at enrollment and disease progression displayed MET amplification. CONCLUSIONS: Treatment with ROS1-selective inhibitors may lead to MET-mediated resistance. The discovery of ecDNA MET amplification is noteworthy, as ecDNA is associated with more aggressive cancers. Following progression on ROS1-selective inhibitors, MET gene testing and treatments targeting MET should be explored to overcome MET-driven resistance.

Assessment of multiple physician competencies in postgraduate training: utility of the structured oral examination.

Competency based medical education involves assessing physicians-in-training in multiple roles. Training programs are challenged by the need to introduce appropriate yet feasible assessment methods. We therefore examined the utility of a structured oral examination (SOE) in the assessment of the 7 CanMEDS roles (Medical Expert, Communicator, Collaborator, Manager, Health Advocate, Scholar and Professional) in a Neonatal-Perinatal Medicine subspecialty training program. Between 2004 and 2008, 68 trainees participated in an annual SOE. Each SOE consisted of 4 1st year and 4 2nd year clinical scenarios with standardized questions written by neonatologists that addressed all 7 CanMEDS roles. Examiners assigned a checklist score and global rating scores for knowledge and organization. A satisfaction survey was completed at the end of 3 examinations. Across the 5 SOEs, questions related to each competency were tabulated and an overall checklist score for each competency calculated. Inter-station reliability was determined for each CanMEDS role. Values for Cronbach's alpha were 0.62 ± 0.2 (Medical Expert), 0.43 (Communicator), 0.40 ± 0.34 (Collaborator), 0.19 ± 0.17 (Manager), 0.46 ± 0.32 (Advocate), 0.67 ± 0.18 (Scholar) and 0.79 (Professional). Inter-rater reliability, determined for the first examination when there were 2 examiners per case, was moderate to substantial for 67% of cases. Participant satisfaction was high. Electronic communication facilitated exam development and costs were minimal. The SOE demonstrates psychometric properties suitable for a formative, in-training assessment as well as low cost, ease of administration and acceptability. It may be a useful way to assess physician competencies in training programs.

Development and validation of the interprofessional collaborator assessment rubric (ICAR).

There have been increasing calls for a competency-based approach in interprofessional education (IPE). The purpose of this multi-site research project was to develop a validated set of interprofessional collaborator competencies and an associated competency-based assessment rubric, in both English and French languages. The first phase involved a detailed comparative analysis of peer-reviewed and grey literature using typological analysis to construct a draft list of interprofessional collaborator competency categories and statements. A two-round Delphi survey of experts was undertaken to validate these competencies. In the second phase, an assessment rubric was developed based on the validated competencies and then evaluated for utility, clarity, practicality and fairness through multi-site focus groups with students and faculty at both college and university levels. The paper outlines an approach to developing, constructing and validating a bilingual instrument for interprofessional learning and assessment. The approach was collaborative in nature, involving an interprofessional project team and respondents from across multiple health profession education programs. The Delphi survey ratings indicate a high level of agreement with the importance of the competency statements and focus group participants rated the rubric positively and felt it had value. The focus group results were also useful in pre-piloting the contextual application of the instrument across multiple health profession education programs. This rubric instrument may be used across a variety of professions and learning contexts. Future work includes evaluation of further dimensions of validity and reliability for this tool across a variety of settings.