Heller's myotomy and pneumatic dilatation in the treatment of achalasia: a population-based case-control study assessing long-term quality of life.

Long-term health-related quality-of-life (HRQL) outcomes have not been widely reported in the treatment of achalasia. The aims of this study were to examine long-term disease-specific and general HRQL in achalasia patients using a population-based case-control method, and to assess HRQL between treatment interventions. Manometrically diagnosed achalasia cases (n = 120) were identified and matched with controls (n = 115) using a population-based approach. Participants completed general (SF-12) and disease-specific (Achalasia Severity Questionnaire [ASQ]) HRQL questionnaires, as appropriate, in a structured interview. Mean composite scores for SF-12 (Mental Component Summary score [MCS-12] and Physical Component Summary score [PCS-12]) and ASQ were compared between cases and controls, or between intervention groups, using an independent t-test. Adjusted mean differences in HRQL scores were evaluated using a linear regression model. Achalasia cases were treated with a Heller's myotomy (n = 43), pneumatic dilatation (n = 44), or both modalities (n = 33). The median time from last treatment to HRQL assessment was 5.7 years (interquartile range 2.4-11.5). Comparing achalasia patients with controls, PCS-12 was significantly worse (40.9 vs. 44.2, P = 0.01), but MCS-12 was similar. However, both PCS-12 (39.9 vs. 44.2, P = 0.03) and MCS-12 (46.7 vs. 53.5, P = 0.004) were significantly impaired in those requiring dual treatment compared with controls. Overall however, there was no difference in adjusted HRQL between patients treated with Heller's myotomy, pneumatic dilatation or both treatment modalities. In summary, despite treatment achalasia patients have significantly worse long-term physical HRQL compared with population controls. No HRQL differences were observed between the treatment modalities to suggest a benefit of one treatment over another.

Management of pinna haematoma study (MaPHaeS): A multicentre retrospective observational study.

OBJECTIVES: To assess current variation in the management of pinna haematoma (PH) and its effect on outcomes. DESIGN: Multicentre retrospective observational record-based study. SETTING: Eleven hospitals around the UK. PARTICIPANTS: Eighty-three patients above the age of 16 with PH. OUTCOME MEASURES: The primary outcome measure was recurrence rate of PH over a 6-month period post-treatment, assessed by treatment type (scalpel incision vs needle aspiration). Secondary outcome measures assessed the impact of other factors on recurrence, infection and cosmetic complications of PH over a period of 6 months. RESULTS: After adjusting for confounding factors, involvement of the whole ear, and management within an operating theatre were associated with a lower rate of recurrence of pinna haematoma. The drainage technique, suspected aetiology, choice of post-drainage management, grade and specialty of practitioner performing drainage, the use of antibiotic cover and hospital admission did not affect the rate of haematoma recurrence, infection or cosmetic complications. CONCLUSIONS: Where possible PH should be drained in an operating theatre. Multicentre randomized controlled trials are required to further investigate the impact of drainage technique and post-drainage management on outcome.

Mycoplasma hominis and Gardnerella vaginalis display a significant synergistic relationship in bacterial vaginosis.

Gardnerella vaginalis plays an important role in bacterial vaginosis (BV,) while the role of genital Mollicutes is less obvious. The diagnosis of BV by use of the current Gram stain Nugent score is also suboptimal for defining the role of Mollicutes that lack a cell wall. Since bacterial load and diversity is an important prerequisite for BV, real-time quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR) assays enable these to be assessed. The purpose of this study was to define the role of genital Mollicutes and potential patterns of synergy with G. vaginalis in women with BV. Vaginal swabs from 130 women categorised by Nugent score as BV (n = 28), intermediate (n = 22) and non-BV (n = 80) were tested against four qPCR TaqMan assays targeting G. vaginalis, Mycoplasma hominis, M. genitalium, Ureaplasma urealyticum and U. parvum. Statistical analyses were used to compare bacterial prevalence and load between the three groups of women. Mycoplasma hominis and G. vaginalis co-infection was significantly more common in BV (60.7 %) compared to intermediate (36.4 %) and non-BV (8.8 %) Nugent scores (p < 0.001). Significantly higher loads of M. hominis (p = 0.001) and G. vaginalis (p < 0.001) were detected in women with BV and the respective loads in M. hominis and G. vaginalis co-infections displayed a significant positive correlation (p < 0.001; r = 0.60). No significant associations were seen with the other Mollicutes. The findings strengthen the evidence of a role for M. hominis in BV and a potential synergy with G. vaginalis. This synergy could be an important trigger of the condition and sexual contact the conduit for the transmission of an otherwise commensal bacterium that could initiate it.

A comparison of the efficiency of ELISA and selected primer sets to detect Norovirus isolates in southern Ireland over a four-year period (2002-2006): variation in detection rates and evidence for continuing predominance of NoV GII.4 genotype.

Norovirus (NoV) gastroenteritis occurs in all age groups and is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in the community. However, detection methods and rates vary widely, and few data are available to compare these, particularly in Ireland. Detection of noroviruses through antigen and molecular-based strategies was carried out on 135 suspected NoV-positive samples, collected over the course of three NoV outbreaks, from 2002 to 2006, in the southern region of Ireland. A commercially available ELISA and a panel of six primer sets were evaluated to determine their suitability for NoV detection in Irish clinical samples. The key findings of this study were the detection of both GGI and GGII noroviruses by ELISA, but the detection of only GGII noroviruses by RT-PCR. In addition to this, a variation in the levels of detection from 9.4 % to 17.3 % was observed for conventional PCR assays, while a detection rate of 46.3 % was observed for the real-time PCR assay. A proportion (17.8 %) of samples were found to be negative by all detection strategies, suggesting the possibility of reporting false positives for these samples or low-copy positives that do not often repeat. Sequencing information from selected samples also revealed nucleotide polymorphisms, compromising efficient primer binding in the case of one primer pairing. Phylogenetic analysis of the partial polymerase gene identified NoV GII.4 as the dominant genotype, in accordance with previous NoV studies in Ireland. Investigating the NoV diversity of the circulating strains and the dynamics of strain replacement is important to better assess the efficacy of future NoV vaccines and to facilitate the early detection of changes in circulating NoV strains.

Neurodevelopmental and neuropsychiatric behaviour defects arise from 14-3-3ζ deficiency.

Complex neuropsychiatric disorders are believed to arise from multiple synergistic deficiencies within connected biological networks controlling neuronal migration, axonal pathfinding and synapse formation. Here, we show that deletion of 14-3-3ζ causes neurodevelopmental anomalies similar to those seen in neuropsychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia, autism spectrum disorder and bipolar disorder. 14-3-3ζ-deficient mice displayed striking behavioural and cognitive deficiencies including a reduced capacity to learn and remember, hyperactivity and disrupted sensorimotor gating. These deficits are accompanied by subtle developmental abnormalities of the hippocampus that are underpinned by aberrant neuronal migration. Significantly, 14-3-3ζ-deficient mice exhibited abnormal mossy fibre navigation and glutamatergic synapse formation. The molecular basis of these defects involves the schizophrenia risk factor, DISC1, which interacts isoform specifically with 14-3-3ζ. Our data provide the first evidence of a direct role for 14-3-3ζ deficiency in the aetiology of neurodevelopmental disorders and identifies 14-3-3ζ as a central risk factor in the schizophrenia protein interaction network.

Common Neurologic Features of Lyme Disease That May Present to a Rheumatologist.

Lyme disease, caused by Borrelia burgdorferi (Bb) infection, has a broad spectrum of clinical manifestations and severity. Patients with possible Lyme disease may seek out or be referred to rheumatologists. Today, the most common reason to engage a rheumatologist is due to complaints of arthralgia. After skin, neurologic manifestations of Lyme disease are now among the most common. Therefore, it is important for rheumatologists to be aware of clues that suggest neurologic Lyme disease and prompt help from a neurologist experienced with Lyme disease.

Molecular characterization of group A rotavirus found in elderly patients in Ireland; predominance of G1P[8], continued presence of G9P[8], and emergence of G2P[4].

Rotavirus is a major cause of gastroenteritis in young children worldwide. There have been several recent reports concerning rotavirus isolation from adults, particularly in the elderly, presenting with gastroenteritis. In this study, the authors report on rotavirus outbreaks in five separate elderly care facilities between April, and June 2011 in Ireland. The following genotypes were detected; G1P[8] (n = 5/11), G2P[4] (n = 2/11), and G9P[8] (n = 2/11). Thus, similarities to previous reports were found in that G1P[8] predominated, G9P[8] was still detected but G2P[4] was detected for the first time in a geriatric population in Ireland. Here also described is the detection of Group 2 lineage IIC rotavirus in Ireland for the first time.

Development and clinical validation of multiplex TaqMan® assays for rapid diagnosis of viral gastroenteritis.

There is a need to provide rapid, sensitive, and often high throughput detection of pathogens in diagnostic virology. Viral gastroenteritis is a serious health issue often leading to hospitalization in the young, the immunocompromised and the elderly. The common causes of viral gastroenteritis include rotavirus, norovirus (genogroups I and II), astrovirus, and group F adenoviruses (serotypes 40 and 41). This article describes the work-up of two internally controlled multiplex, probe-based PCR assays and reports on the clinical validation over a 3-year period, March 2007 to February 2010. Multiplex assays were developed using a combination of TaqMan™ and minor groove binder (MGB™) hydrolysis probes. The assays were validated using a panel of 137 specimens, previously positive via a nested gel-based assay. The assays had improved sensitivity for adenovirus, rotavirus, and norovirus (97.3% vs. 86.1%, 100% vs. 87.8%, and 95.1% vs. 79.5%, respectively) and also more specific for targets adenovirus, rotavirus, and norovirus (99% vs. 95.2%, 100% vs. 93.6%, and 97.9% vs. 92.3%, respectively). For the specimens tested, both assays had equal sensitivity and specificity for astrovirus (100%). Overall the probe-based assays detected 16 more positive specimens than the nested gel-based assay. Post-introduction to the routine diagnostic service, a total of 9,846 specimens were processed with multiplex 1 and 2 (7,053 pediatric, 2,793 adult) over the 3-year study period. This clinically validated, probe-based multiplex testing algorithm allows highly sensitive and timely diagnosis of the four most prominent causes of viral gastroenteritis.

Coxiella burnetii (Q fever) seroprevalence in cattle.

Human cases of Q fever appear to be common in Northern Ireland compared to the rest of the British Isles. The purpose of this study was to describe the seroepidemiology of Coxiella burnetii infection in cattle in Northern Ireland in terms of seroprevalence and determinants of infection. A total of 5182 animals (from a stratified systematic random sample of 273 herds) were tested with a commercial C. burnetii phase 2 IgG ELISA. A total of 6.2% of animals and 48.4% of herds tested positively. Results from a multilevel logistic regression model indicated that the odds of cattle being infected with Q fever increased with age, Friesian breed, being from large herds and from dairy herds. Large dairy herd animal prevalence was 12.5% compared to 2.1% for small beef herds. Preliminary seroprevalence in sheep (12.3%), goats (9.3%), pigs (0%) rats (9.7%) and mice (3.2%) using indirect immunofluorescence is reported.

Respiratory viral infection in lower airways of asymptomatic children.

AIM: The aim of this study was to determine if asthmatic children have viruses more commonly detected in lower airways during asymptomatic periods than normal children. METHODS: Fifty-five asymptomatic children attending elective surgical procedures (14 with stable asthma, 41 normal controls) underwent non-bronchoscopic bronchoalveolar lavage. Differential cell count and PCR for 13 common viruses were performed. RESULTS: Nineteen (35%) children were positive for at least one virus, with adenovirus being most common. No differences in the proportion of viruses detected were seen between asthmatic and normal 'control' children. Viruses other than adenovirus were associated with higher neutrophil counts, suggesting that they caused an inflammatory response in both asthmatics and controls (median BAL neutrophil count, 6.9% for virus detected vs. 1.5% for virus not detected, p = 0.03). CONCLUSIONS: Over one-third of asymptomatic children have a detectable virus (most commonly adenovirus) in the lower airway; however, this was not more common in asthmatics. Viruses other than adenovirus were associated with elevated neutrophils suggesting that viral infection can be present during relatively asymptomatic periods in asthmatic children.

Reducing the rate of fistula: does a fibrin sealant act as an adjunct in pharyngeal closure? A two-centre experience.

BACKGROUND: Pharyngocutaneous fistula is a troublesome complication. Recently, synthetic materials such as fibrin sealant have been used as a secondary measure to treat fistula. This work assessed whether the primary use of fibrin sealant can reduce the rate of fistula. METHOD: A retrospective review of 50 cases from 2 centres was completed. Tisseel was an adjunct to primary closure in all cases. RESULTS: In the first centre, 3 out of 34 cases developed pharyngocutaneous fistula (fistula rate of 9 per cent). All three were salvage cases. In the second centre, 0 out of 16 cases developed a fistula. CONCLUSION: The incidence of pharyngocutaneous fistula post-radiation and post-chemoradiotherapy in laryngectomy cases has been quoted as 23 per cent and 34 per cent respectively. This study represents the first patient series on the use of fibrin sealant as an adjunct in primary closure following laryngectomy. The results are promising, encouraging the use of Tisseel as an adjunct to meticulous closure.

Sleep disordered breathing and dysphonia in a pediatric patient - Laryngeal amyloidosis as an unusual diagnosis.

Primary laryngeal amyloidosis is an uncommon condition, and cases in the pediatric population are even rarer. We present a case of a nine year old female patient who presented with sleep disordered breathing and dysphonia to our outpatient clinic. The patient underwent Microlaryngoscopy and Bronchoscopy for diagnosis which identified a large soft tissue mass in the supraglottis. After Histological diagnosis was made, she had subtotal debridement of the mass and has maintained a good exercise tolerance with no airway compromise.

Evaluating nasal cautery techniques in epistaxis.

BACKGROUND: Silver nitrate cautery and bipolar electrocautery are commonly used in the treatment of epistaxis. Currently, there are no recommendations on optimum contact times or power for nasal cautery. ENT consultant practice in the UK has not previously been evaluated. METHODS: This study examined the burn depth associated with silver nitrate (75 per cent concentration) cautery and bipolar electrocautery on porcine septum samples, using varying contact times and power. ENT consultants completed a survey evaluating their practice. RESULTS AND CONCLUSION: ENT consultant practice of nasal cautery was shown to vary widely. Silver nitrate cautery with a contact time of less than 30 seconds does not cause a full thickness burn. The findings lend some support to bilateral cauterisation with silver nitrate. Bipolar electrocautery should be set at lower than 10 W and with a contact time of less than 4 seconds to reduce the risk of complications associated with a full thickness burn.

A prospective clinical trial of a real-time polymerase chain reaction assay for the diagnosis of candidemia in nonneutropenic, critically ill adults.

BACKGROUND: Invasive Candida infection among nonneutropenic, critically ill adults is a clinical problem that has received increasing attention in recent years. Poor performance of extant diagnostic modalities has promoted risk-based, preemptive prescribing in view of the poor outcomes associated with inadequate or delayed antifungal therapy; this risks unnecessary overtreatment. A rapid, reliable diagnostic test could have a substantial impact on therapeutic practice in this patient population. METHODS: Three TaqMan-based real-time polymerase chain reaction assays were developed that are capable of detecting the main medically important Candida species, categorized according to the likelihood of fluconazole susceptibility. Assay 1 detected Candida albicans, Candida parapsilosis, Candida tropicalis, and Candida dubliniensis. Assays 2 and 3 detected Candida glabrata and Candida krusei, respectively. The clinical performance of these assays, applied to serum, was evaluated in a prospective trial of nonneutropenic adults in a single intensive care unit. RESULTS: In all, 527 specimens were obtained from 157 participants. All 3 assays were run in parallel for each specimen; they could be completed within 1 working day. Of these, 23 specimens were obtained from 23 participants categorized as having proven Candida infection at the time of sampling. If a single episode of Candida famata candidemia was excluded, the estimated clinical sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values of the assays in this trial were 90.9%, 100%, 100% and 99.8%, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: These data suggest that the described assays perform well in this population for enhancing the diagnosis of candidemia. The extent to which they may affect clinical outcomes, prescribing practice, and cost-effectiveness of care remains to be ascertained.

High levels of Epstein-Barr virus in COPD.

Latent viral infection has been implicated in the pathophysiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is known to be important in pulmonary fibrosis. The current authors hypothesised that EBV is associated with the pathogenesis of COPD. Sputum samples were collected from patients both during exacerbations of COPD and when stable. A control group of smokers who did not have airways obstruction also had their sputum examined. The presence of EBV DNA was established and quantified using a real-time nucleic acid amplification assay. A total of 136 patients with COPD were recruited during an acute exacerbation and a total of 68 when stable. EBV was detected in 65 (48%) exacerbation cases and 31 (46%) stable patients. In the comparison group of 16 nonobstructed smokers, EBV was demonstrated in only one (6%) case. Risk of COPD in patients with EBV and who are smokers confers an odds ratio of 12.6. Epstein-Barr virus DNA is more frequently identified in the respiratory tract of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease patients in comparison with unaffected smokers. It is present both during exacerbation and when stable, suggesting that infection is persistent. Smokers who do not develop chronic obstructive pulmonary disease rarely have Epstein-Barr virus in their sputum. This finding may be of importance in the pathogenesis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

Improving molecular detection of Candida DNA in whole blood: comparison of seven fungal DNA extraction protocols using real-time PCR.

The limitations of classical diagnostic methods for invasive Candida infections have led to the development of molecular techniques such as real-time PCR to improve diagnosis. However, the detection of low titres of Candida DNA in blood from patients with candidaemia requires the use of extraction methods that efficiently lyse yeast cells and recover small amounts of DNA suitable for amplification. In this study, a Candida-specific real-time PCR assay was used to detect Candida albicans DNA in inoculated whole blood specimens extracted using seven different extraction protocols. The yield and quality of total nucleic acids were estimated using UV absorbance, and specific recovery of C. albicans genomic DNA was estimated quantitatively in comparison with a reference (Qiagen kit/lyticase) method currently in use in our laboratory. The extraction protocols were also compared with respect to sensitivity, cost and time required for completion. The TaqMan PCR assay used to amplify the DNA extracts achieved high levels of specificity, sensitivity and reproducibility. Of the seven extraction protocols evaluated, only the MasterPure yeast DNA extraction reagent kit gave significantly higher total nucleic acid yields than the reference method, although nucleic acid purity was highest using either the reference or YeaStar genomic DNA kit methods. More importantly, the YeaStar method enabled C. albicans DNA to be detected with highest sensitivity over the entire range of copy numbers evaluated, and appears to be an optimal method for extracting Candida DNA from whole blood.

Comparison of serum and whole-blood specimens for the detection of Candida DNA in critically ill, non-neutropenic patients.

In contrast to the multitude of studies on fungal PCR assay methods, little work has been reported evaluating Candida PCR performance when using whole blood compared with serum in candidaemic patients. Here, a comparison of the performance of whole-blood and serum specimens using a set of real-time PCR Candida species assays is described. Specimens were collected prospectively from non-neutropenic adults who were recruited to a diagnostic clinical trial, the primary purpose of which was to verify the performance of the assays using serum; in all, 104 participants also had whole-blood specimens submitted for analysis in addition to the serum specimen. Of these participants, 10 had laboratory-confirmed candidaemia and 94 were categorized as being 'unlikely' to have invasive Candida infection. PCR results from the whole-blood specimens are presented here and compared with the results from serum specimens in this subgroup among whom both specimen types were obtained contemporaneously. All participants with candidaemia were PCR-positive from serum samples; however, only seven were PCR-positive from whole blood. All specimens from patients in the 'unlikely' category were PCR-negative in both types of specimen. Moreover, DNA extraction from serum required 1 h; extraction from whole blood required approximately 3 h. These data tentatively suggest that, overall, serum is an appropriate specimen for Candida PCR for detection of candidaemia in non-neutropenic adults.

The cosmic ray shadow of the Moon observed with the ANTARES neutrino telescope.

One of the main objectives of the ANTARES telescope is the search for point-like neutrino sources. Both the pointing accuracy and the angular resolution of the detector are important in this context and a reliable way to evaluate this performance is needed. In order to measure the pointing accuracy of the detector, one possibility is to study the shadow of the Moon, i.e. the deficit of the atmospheric muon flux from the direction of the Moon induced by the absorption of cosmic rays. Analysing the data taken between 2007 and 2016, the Moon shadow is observed with 3.5 σ statistical significance. The detector angular resolution for downward-going muons is 0 . 73 ∘ ± 0 . 14 ∘ . The resulting pointing performance is consistent with the expectations. An independent check of the telescope pointing accuracy is realised with the data collected by a shower array detector onboard of a ship temporarily moving around the ANTARES location.

Early and specific antibody response to OspA in Lyme Disease.

Borrelia burgdorferi (Bb), the cause of Lyme disease, has appeared not to evoke a detectable specific antibody response in humans until long after infection. This delayed response has been a biologic puzzle and has hampered early diagnosis. Antibody to the abundant organism-specific outer surface proteins, such as the 31-kD OspA, has rarely been detected less than 6 mo after infection. Antibody to a less organism-specific 41-kD flagellin protein, sharing common determinants with other bacteria and thus limiting its diagnostic potential, may appear after 4 to 6 wks. To investigate our hypothesis that specific antibody to OspA may actually be formed early but remain at low levels or bound in immune complexes, we analyzed serum samples from patients with concurrent erythema migrans (EM). This is the earliest sign of Lyme disease and occurs in 60-70% of patients, generally 4-14 d after infection. We used less conventional but more sensitive methods: biotin-avidin Western blots and immune complex dissociation techniques. Antibody specificity was confirmed with recombinant OspA. Specific complexed antibody to whole Bb and recombinant OspA was detected in 10 of 11 of the EM patients compared to 0 of 20 endemic area controls. IgM was the predominant isotype to OspA in these EM patients. Free IgM to OspA was found in half the EM cases. IgM to OspA was also detected in 10 of 10 European patients with EM who also had reactive T cells to recombinant OspA. In conclusion a specific antibody response to OspA occurs early in Lyme disease. This is likely to have diagnostic implications.