Liquid biopsy assay for lung carcinoma using centrifuged supernatants from fine-needle aspiration specimens.

INTRODUCTION: Tumor mutation profiling is standard-of-care in lung carcinoma patients. However, comprehensive molecular profiling of small specimens, including core needle biopsy (CNB) and fine-needle aspiration (FNA) specimens, may often be inadequate due to limited tissue. Centrifuged FNA supernatants, which are typically discarded, have emerged recently as a novel liquid-based biopsy for molecular testing. In this study, we evaluate the use of lung carcinoma FNA supernatants for detecting clinically relevant mutations. METHODS: Supernatants from lung carcinoma FNA samples (n = 150) were evaluated. Samples were further analyzed using next-generation sequencing (NGS) and ultrasensitive droplet digital PCR (ddPCR). Mutation profiles in a subset of samples were compared with results derived from paired tissue samples from the same patient (n = 67) and available plasma liquid biopsy assay (n = 45). RESULTS: All 150 samples yielded adequate DNA and NGS were carried out successfully on 104 (90%) of 116 selected samples. Somatic mutations were detected in 82% of the samples and in 50% of these patients a clinically relevant mutation was identified that would qualify them for targeted therapy or a clinical trial. There was high overall concordance between the mutation profiles of supernatants and the corresponding tissue samples, with 100% concordance with concurrent FNA and 96% with concurrent CNB samples. Comparison of actionable driver mutations detected in supernatant versus plasma samples showed 84% concordance. CONCLUSIONS: FNA supernatants can provide a valuable specimen source for genotyping lung carcinoma especially in patients with insufficient tumor tissue, thereby reducing multigene mutation profiling failure rates, improving turnaround times, and avoiding repeat biopsies.

Suppressed immune microenvironment and repertoire in brain metastases from patients with resected non-small-cell lung cancer.

BACKGROUND: The tumor immune microenvironment (TIME) of lung cancer brain metastasis is largely unexplored. We carried out immune profiling and sequencing analysis of paired resected primary tumors and brain metastases of non-small-cell lung carcinoma (NSCLC). PATIENTS AND METHODS: TIME profiling of archival formalin-fixed and paraffin-embedded specimens of paired primary tumors and brain metastases from 39 patients with surgically resected NSCLCs was carried out using a 770 immune gene expression panel and by T-cell receptor beta repertoire (TCRß) sequencing. Immunohistochemistry was carried out for validation. Targeted sequencing was carried out to catalog hot spot mutations in cancer genes. RESULTS: Somatic hot spot mutations were mostly shared between both tumor sites (28/39 patients; 71%). We identified 161 differentially expressed genes, indicating inhibition of dendritic cell maturation, Th1, and leukocyte extravasation signaling pathways, in brain metastases compared with primary tumors (P < 0.01). The proinflammatory cell adhesion molecule vascular cell adhesion protein 1 was significantly suppressed in brain metastases compared with primary tumors. Brain metastases exhibited lower T cell and elevated macrophage infiltration compared with primary tumors (P < 0.001). T-cell clones were expanded in 64% of brain metastases compared with their corresponding primary tumors. Furthermore, while TCR repertoires were largely shared between paired brain metastases and primary tumors, T-cell densities were sparse in the metastases. CONCLUSION: We present findings that suggest that the TIME in brain metastases from NSCLC is immunosuppressed and comprises immune phenotypes (e.g. immunosuppressive tumor-associated macrophages) that may help guide immunotherapeutic strategies for NSCLC brain metastases.

Multiplex KRASG12/G13 mutation testing of unamplified cell-free DNA from the plasma of patients with advanced cancers using droplet digital polymerase chain reaction.

Background: Cell-free DNA (cfDNA) from plasma offers easily obtainable material for KRAS mutation analysis. Novel, multiplex, and accurate diagnostic systems using small amounts of DNA are needed to further the use of plasma cfDNA testing in personalized therapy. Patients and methods: Samples of 16 ng of unamplified plasma cfDNA from 121 patients with diverse progressing advanced cancers were tested with a KRASG12/G13 multiplex assay to detect the seven most common mutations in the hotspot of exon 2 using droplet digital polymerase chain reaction (ddPCR). The results were retrospectively compared to mutation analysis of archival primary or metastatic tumor tissue obtained at different points of clinical care. Results: Eighty-eight patients (73%) had KRASG12/G13 mutations in archival tumor specimens collected on average 18.5 months before plasma analysis, and 78 patients (64%) had KRASG12/G13 mutations in plasma cfDNA samples. The two methods had initial overall agreement in 103 (85%) patients (kappa, 0.66; ddPCR sensitivity, 84%; ddPCR specificity, 88%). Of the 18 discordant cases, 12 (67%) were resolved by increasing the amount of cfDNA, using mutation-specific probes, or re-testing the tumor tissue, yielding overall agreement in 115 patients (95%; kappa 0.87; ddPCR sensitivity, 96%; ddPCR specificity, 94%). The presence of ≥ 6.2% of KRASG12/G13 cfDNA in the wild-type background was associated with shorter survival (P = 0.001). Conclusion(s): Multiplex detection of KRASG12/G13 mutations in a small amount of unamplified plasma cfDNA using ddPCR has good sensitivity and specificity and good concordance with conventional clinical mutation testing of archival specimens. A higher percentage of mutant KRASG12/G13 in cfDNA corresponded with shorter survival.

Clinical massively parallel next-generation sequencing analysis of 409 cancer-related genes for mutations and copy number variations in solid tumours.

BACKGROUND: In a clinical diagnostic laboratory, we evaluated the applicability of the Ion Proton sequencer for screening 409 cancer-related genes in solid tumours. METHODS: DNA was extracted from formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue biopsy specimens of 55 solid tumours (20 with matched normal tissue) and four cell lines and screened for mutations in 409 genes using the Ion Proton system. The mutation profiles of these samples were known based on prior testing using the Ion Torrent Personal Genome Machine (46-gene hotspot panel), Sanger sequencing, or fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH). Concordance with retrospective findings and additional mutations were evaluated. Assay sensitivity and reproducibility were established. Gene copy number variations (CNVs) detected were confirmed by molecular inversion probe (MIP) array. RESULTS: The average Ion Proton (409-gene panel) sequencing output per run was 8 gigabases with 128 million sequencing reads. Of the 15,992 amplicons in the 409-gene panel, 90% achieved a minimum average sequencing depth of 100X. In 59 samples, the Ion Proton detected 100 of 105 expected single-nucleotide variants (SNVs) and all expected deletions (n=8), insertions (n=5), and CNVs (n=7). Five SNVs were not detected due to failed amplification of targeted regions. In 20 tumours with paired normal tissue, Ion Proton detected 37 additional somatic mutations, several in genes of high prognostic or therapeutic significance, such as MET, ALK, TP53, APC, and PTEN. MIP array analysis confirmed all CNVs detected by Ion Proton. CONCLUSIONS: The Ion Proton (409-gene panel) system was found to be well suited for use in a clinical molecular diagnostic laboratory. It can simultaneously screen 409 genes for a variety of sequence variants in multiple samples using a low input of FFPE DNA with high reproducibility and sensitivity.

Clinicopathologic characteristics and gene expression analyses of non-KRAS 12/13, RAS-mutated metastatic colorectal cancer.

BACKGROUND: KRAS mutations in codons 12 and 13 are present in ∼40% of all colorectal cancers (CRC). Activating mutations in codons 61 and 146 of KRAS and in codons 12, 13, and 61 of NRAS also occur but are less frequent. The clinicopathologic features and gene expression profiles of this latter subpopulation of RAS-mutant colorectal tumors have not yet been clearly defined but in general are treated similarly to those with KRAS 12 or 13 mutations. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Records of patients with metastatic CRC (mCRC) treated at MD Anderson Cancer Center between December 2000 and August 2012 were reviewed for RAS (KRAS or NRAS) and BRAF mutation status, clinical characteristics, and survival outcomes. To study further with an independent cohort, data from The Cancer Genome Atlas were analyzed to define a gene expression signature for patients whose tumors feature these atypical RAS mutations and explore differences with KRAS 12/13-mutated colorectal tumors. RESULTS: Among the 484 patients reviewed, KRAS 12/13, KRAS 61/146, NRAS, and BRAF mutations were detected in 47.7%, 3.0%, 4.1%, and 7.4%, respectively, of patients who were tested for each of these aberrations. Lung metastases were more common in both the KRAS 12/13-mutated and atypical RAS-mutated cohorts relative to patients with RAS/BRAF wild-type tumors. Gene expression analyses revealed similar patterns regardless of the site of RAS mutation, and in silico functional algorithms predicted that KRAS and NRAS mutations in codons 12, 13, 61, and 146 alter the protein function and drive tumorgenesis. CONCLUSIONS: Clinicopathologic characteristics, survival outcomes, functional impact, and gene expression profiling were similar between patients with KRAS 12/13 and those with NRAS or KRAS 61/146-mutated mCRC. These clinical and bioinformatic findings support the notion that colorectal tumors driven by these RAS mutations are phenotypically similar.

MYC translocation in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is associated with increased prolymphocytes and a poor prognosis.

Chromosomal translocations that involve MYC, characteristic of Burkitt lymphoma, are rare in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). We report the clinical, morphological, immunophenotypic, cytogenetic and molecular genetic features of eight CLL cases with MYC rearrangement. The patients, five men and three women (median age, 71 years) had bone marrow involvement and an absolute peripheral blood lymphocytosis; five had lymphadenopathy; seven had splenomegaly. Prolymphocytes were increased (>/=10%) in all cases. Six cases were classified as CLL with increased prolymphocytes (CLL/PL; prolymphocytes 10-55%), and two were classified as CLL in prolymphocytic transformation (CLL/PT; prolymphocytes >55%). All cases co-expressed CD5, CD19, and CD23; five of eight expressed ZAP-70. Of seven cases tested, four had mutated and three had unmutated IGHV genes. Conventional cytogenetic studies demonstrated t(8;14)(q24.1;q32) in five cases, t(8;22)(q24.1;q11) in two cases, and t(2;8)(p12;q24.1) in one case. Seven cases contained additional chromosomal abnormalities. All patients received combination chemotherapy. Two developed Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-associated diffuse large B-cell lymphomas (DLBCL) that were clonally unrelated to the CLL. At follow-up, two patients are alive, four died of underlying disease, one died of EBV-associated DLBCL, and one died of an unrelated cancer. In summary, MYC rearrangement, which occurs rarely in CLL patients, is associated with increased prolymphocytes, complex cytogenetic abnormalities, and a poor prognosis.

Frequency and clinical significance of BCR-ABL mutations in patients with chronic myeloid leukemia treated with imatinib mesylate.

Mutations of the BCR-ABL kinase domain are a common mechanism of resistance to imatinib in chronic myeloid leukemia. We screened for mutations 171 patients failing imatinib therapy. Sixty-six mutations in 23 amino acids were identified in 62 (36%) patients not responding to imatinib. Phosphate-binding loop (P-loop) mutations were the most frequent (n=24; 36%). By multivariate analysis, factors associated with development of mutations were older age (P=0.026) prior interferon therapy (P=0.026), and accelerated phase or blast phase at time of imatinib failure (P=0.001). After a median follow-up of 38 months (range, 4-68 months) from the start of imatinib therapy, seven patients with non-P-loop and two with P-loop mutation died. By multivariate analysis, development of clonal evolution and higher percentage of peripheral blood basophils were associated with worse survival from the time of imatinib failure. Mutation status had no impact on survival. When survival was measured from the time therapy started, non-P-loop mutations together with duration of response and transformation at the time of failure to imatinib were associated with shorter survival. In conclusion, P-loop mutations were not associated with poor outcome, suggesting that the prognosis of patients who fail imatinib is multifactorial.

Effects of cyclin D1 polymorphism on age of onset of hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer.

A common polymorphism in the cyclin D1 gene enhances the gene's alternate splicing. The alternatively spliced product encodes an altered protein that does not contain sequences involved in the turnover of the protein. We found that hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal carcinoma patients who were homozygous or heterozygous for the mutant allele developed colorectal cancer an average of 11 years earlier than patients who were homozygous for the normal alleles. This is the first report indicating that the cyclin D1 polymorphism influences age of onset of cancer. Because cyclin D1 plays an important role in the G1 to S phase transition of the cell cycle, our findings suggest that cells with the mutant allele accumulate mutations as a result of defective mismatch repair and may also bypass the G1-S checkpoint of the cell cycle more easily than in cells not carrying the polymorphism. The polymorphism has a dominant phenotype.

Age-associated risk of cancer among individuals with N-acetyltransferase 2 (NAT2) mutations and mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes.

Mutations in N-acetyltransferase 2 (NAT2), a highly polymorphic enzyme involved in the metabolism of xenobiotics and carcinogens, may affect risk for colorectal cancer (CRC), especially among individuals with germ-line mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes. We determined the NAT2 genotypes and allele frequencies for 86 individuals with CRC who had mutations in hMLH1, hMSH2, or hPMS1. No significant difference in time to onset was observed between rapid (NAT2*4) and slow (NAT2*5, NAT2*6, and NAT2*7) acetylators. However, when individuals were stratified separately by NAT2 polymorphism (NAT2*5, NAT2*6, and NAT2*7), those who were heterozygous at the mutant locus NAT2*7 after adjustment for the NAT2 mutant loci NAT2*5 and NAT2*6 had a significantly higher risk of CRC (hazard ratio, 2.96; P = 0.012) and all of the cancers (hazard ratio, 3.37; P = 0.00004) than individuals homozygous for wild type at the NAT2*7 allele. These findings suggest that NAT2 genotype may be an important factor in tumorigenesis of CRC and cancers related to hereditary nonpolyposis CRC among individuals with mismatch repair defects.

An insight into current concepts and techniques in resin bonding to high strength ceramics.

BACKGROUND: Reliable bonding between high strength ceramics and resin composite cement is difficult to achieve because of their chemical inertness and lack of silica content. The aim of this review was to assess the current literature describing methods for resin bonding to ceramics with high flexural strength such as glass-infiltrated alumina and zirconia, densely sintered alumina and yttria-partially stabilized tetragonal zirconia polycrystalline ceramic (Y-TZP) with respect to bond strength and bond durability. METHODS: Suitable peer reviewed publications in the English language were identified through searches performed in PubMed, Google Search and handsearches. The keywords or phrases used were 'resin-ceramic bond', 'silane coupling agents', 'air particle abrasion', 'zirconia ceramic' and 'resin composite cements'. Studies from January 1989 to June 2015 were included. RESULTS: The literature demonstrated that there are multiple techniques available for surface treatments but bond strength testing under different investigations have produced conflicting results. CONCLUSIONS: Within the scope of this review, there is no evidence to support a universal technique of ceramic surface treatment for adhesive cementation. A combination of chemical and mechanical treatments might be the recommended solution. The hydrolytic stability of the resin ceramic bond should be enhanced.

Study on development of accessory sex glands in prepubertal kids using two-dimensional ultrasonography.

AIM: The present study was undertaken to study growth pattern of accessory sex glands in prepubertal kids from 2 weeks to 6 months of age using two-dimensional ultrasonography. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The study was conducted on six Beetal kids. The scanning of accessory sex glands was done in standing position using rectal probe and measurements were recorded. Data collected were statistically analyzed using one-way ANOVA followed by Duncan multiple range test was performed using the SPSS (16.0) system for windows. RESULTS: With the advancement of age all the dimensions of glands increased. Both the lobes of prostate gland showed an increase in width with advancement of age. Width of prostate above the urethra (W1) showed a significant increase at 2, 10, and 20 weeks of age, whereas non-significant increase from 2 to 8, 10 to 19, and 20 to 24 weeks of age was recorded. Width of prostate below the urethra (W2) showed a significant increase at 20 weeks of age, whereas non-significant increase was recorded during rest of period of growth. Left and right bulbourethral gland showed a similar pattern of growth with the advancement of age. The circumference dimensions increased significantly at 2, 16, 20, and 21 weeks of age for both glands. The increase was non-significant from 4 to 14, 16 to 19, and 20 to 23 weeks of age. The same pattern was observed for left and right seminal vesicular gland. CONCLUSION: Significant growth in three accessory sex glands in prepubertal kids was not observed at the same age. The trend observed was that the prostate was the first gland to show significant growth at 10 weeks of age followed by a significant increase in seminal vesicles and bulbourethral gland at 14 and 16 weeks of age, respectively.

Superimposed histologic and genetic mapping of chromosome 9 in progression of human urinary bladder neoplasia: implications for a genetic model of multistep urothelial carcinogenesis and early detection of urinary bladder cancer.

The evolution of alterations on chromosome 9, including the putative tumor suppressor genes mapped to the 9p21-22 region (the MTS genes), was studied in relation to the progression of human urinary bladder neoplasia by using whole organ superimposed histologic and genetic mapping in cystectomy specimens and was verified in urinary bladder tumors of various pathogenetic subsets with longterm follow-up. The applicability of chromosome 9 allelic losses as non-invasive markers of urothelial neoplasia was tested on voided urine and/or bladder washings of patients with urinary bladder cancer. Although sequential multiple hits in the MTS locus were documented in the development of intraurothelial precursor lesions, the MTS genes do not seem to represent a major target for p21-23 deletions in bladder cancer. Two additional tumor suppressor genes involved in bladder neoplasia located distally and proximally to the MTS locus within p22-23 and p11-13 regions respectively were identified. Several distinct putative tumor suppressor gene loci within the q12-13, q21-22, and q34 regions were identified on the q arm. In particular, the pericentromeric q12-13 area may contain the critical tumor suppressor gene or genes for the development of early urothelial neoplasia. Allelic losses of chromosome 9 were associated with expansion of the abnormal urothelial clone which frequently involved large areas of urinary bladder mucosa. These losses could be found in a high proportion of urothelial tumors and in voided urine or bladder washing samples of nearly all patients with urinary bladder carcinoma.

Studies of mitochondrial calcium movements using chlorotetracycline.

1. The association of calcium with isolated rat liver mitochondrial membranes under various metabolic conditions was monitored using the fluorescent chelate probe, chlorotetracycline. Chlorotetracycline fluorescence increased markedly during energized calcium uptake in the absence of a permeant anion. Uncoupler and a respiratory chain inhibitor caused a rapid decrease in chlorotetracycline fluorescence when added either before or after calcium. During calcium uptake experiments concentrations of calcium exceeding 100 muM caused a transient fluorescence increase followed by an extensive decrease in fluorescence. 2. Changes in the chlorotetracycline-associated fluorescence of the mitochondrial suspensions were correlated with the uptake of exogenous 45Ca. A positive correlation was observed between fluorescence and energized 45Ca uptake in the absence of permeant anions. Addition of the permeant anion, phosphate, caused an extensive decrease in chloretetracycline fluorescence but an enhanced uptake of exogenous 45Ca. 3. The interaction of endogenous mitochondrial calcium with the fluorescent chelate probe was studied under a number of experimental conditions using mitochondria labeled during preparation with 45Ca. Endogenous 45Ca was lost rapidly from the mitochondria upon treatment with uncoupler, antimycin A, and A23187. Potassium phosphate and EGTA had no effect on the endogenous calcium as measured by either the 45Ca content of the mitochondria or the fluorescence of the probe. 4. Mitochondria treated with antimycin A lost most of their endogenous 45Ca within 3 min; subsequent energization of the mitochondria resulted in a partial uptake of the released 45Ca but caused nearly a complete return of the chlorotetracycline fluorescence to the original level. Addition of phosphate did not change the fluorescence level but resulted in an almost complete accumulation of the 45Ca previously released. 5. Following this energized uptake of 45Ca, EGTA, p-trifluoromethoxyphenyl hydrazone of carbonyl cyanide, A23187 and calcium chloride all caused a nearly complete loss of the 45Ca from the mitochondria and, with the exception of calcium chloride, caused an extensive decrease in the fluorescence level. Hence, the apparent location and/or properties of the endogenous calcium in this rat liver mitochondrial system were altered significantly by manipulation of the energetic state of the mitochondrial membrane.

TabBO: a model reflecting common molecular features of androgen-independent prostate cancer.

We established two human prostate cancer cell lines, MDA PCa 2a and MDA PCa 2b, the TabBO model system, that reflect common features of human androgen-independent prostate cancer that are not present in other model systems: bone origin, prostate-specific antigen production, androgen receptor expression, and androgen sensitivity. We therefore hypothesized that molecular pathways in our model system reflect common alterations responsible for the progression of a subset of human prostate cancer. Progression to androgen independence has been hypothesized to be largely associated with impairment of the regulation of cell growth or apoptosis of prostate cancer cells. Therefore, in this study, we examined molecular markers known or suspected to be important in prostate cancer progression and key regulators of cell growth and apoptosis: p53, p21WAF1/CIP1, Bcl-2, Bax, retinoblastoma (Rb), and p16INK4A/MITS1. We analyzed the expression of these markers in the cell lines, their tumor of origin, and tumors derived from the cell lines by s.c. inoculation into nude mice. DNA sequencing of the entire open reading frames of the p53 and p21 genes revealed no mutations. Additionally, accumulation of the p53 protein was not found by Western blot analysis, nor was overexpression of the Bcl-2 oncoprotein detected. Bax expression was detected in MDA PCa 2a cells, whereas it was absent in MDA PCa 2b. Rb and p16 protein expression was normal as measured by both Western blot and immunochemical analyses. Immunohistochemical studies of p53, p21, Bcl-2, and Rb in both samples from the original human cancer from which the lines were derived and mouse xenografts derived from the lines revealed similar levels of protein. These results are consistent with reports indicating that 40-50% of bone metastases of prostate cancer have wild-type p53, 50-70% do not overexpress the Bcl-2 protein, and mutations in the p21 gene are rare. Therefore, we conclude that MDA PCa 2a and MDA PCa 2b reflect molecular pathways in a common subset of human androgen-independent prostate cancer and that important molecular players in apoptosis (namely, p53 and Bcl-2) seem to be intact in this subset of androgen-independent prostate cancer. Understanding the signal-transduction pathways operating in these cell lines may help to identify therapeutic targets for prostate cancer.

Age related changes in the activity of the glyoxalase system.

Male Swiss albino mice of progressive age (1-25 months old) were collected regularly from the Animal Facility of the university at monthly intervals and were sacrificed by cervical dislocation. The specific activities of glyoxalase I (GI) and glyoxalase II (GII) were determined immediately in liver, spleen and kidney. Our results indicate that the activity of GI increased with an increase in the age of mice up to 12-14 months depending on the type of the tissue, thereafter it decreased progressively in the old animals. The increase in the activity of GI may be suggestive of the rapid rate of cell division in these organs needed for the growth and development of the animal; the progressive decline in the activity of GI in old age may be related to the decreased proliferative capacity of these organs. This decline may increase the oxidative damage and in turn enhance the process of ageing. The activity of GII decreased with increase in age up to 12-13 months. The mode and the magnitude of the activity of GII in old age depends on the type of tissue. The pattern of the GI/GII ratio in all the three tissues was similar up to 13-14 months of age.

T-cell-rich B large-cell lymphoma simulating lymphocyte-rich Hodgkin's disease.

Immunophenotypic analysis of 50 cases fulfilling the histologic criteria for mixed cellularity Hodgkin's disease disclosed nine cases with a B-cell, non-Hodgkin's phenotype (CD20+, CD15-, CD30-, EMA-). The cases were characterized by a diffuse small lymphocytic milieu, interspersed atypical large cells including classic Reed-Sternberg cells, and infrequent plasma cells, eosinophils, and L&H cells. The male:female ratio was 7:2 (aged 22-65 years, median 39 years). Three patients were Ann Arbor stage II, two stage III, and four stage IV. The patients presented with generalized lymphadenopathy (four), mesenteric lymph node involvement (two), splenomegaly (four), and bone marrow involvement (three). Four patients were treated with standard Hodgkin's disease protocols. Two attained a complete response and two a partial response; all relapsed and died. Four of five patients treated for large-cell lymphoma achieved a complete response and are currently alive without evidence of disease. The one patient with an initial partial response relapsed and died. We conclude that immunophenotypic analysis is essential in cases of histologic mixed cellularity Hodgkin's disease, especially in those with lymphocyte-rich morphology. Cases with a B-cell phenotype should be diagnosed and treated as T-cell-rich B large-cell lymphoma.

Rigor of research methods in studies of the effectiveness and safety of cataract extraction with intraocular lens implantation. Cataract Patient Outcome Research Team.

OBJECTIVE: To assess the rigor of research methods reported in studies of the safety or effectiveness of contemporary cataract surgery. DESIGN: Formal systematic identification of pertinent studies and critical appraisal of each study's research methods. SUBJECTS: From 6113 unique, potentially relevant citations that we identified, 90 original studies published between 1979 and 1991 that addressed visual acuity or complications following standard extracapsular cataract extraction with posterior chamber intraocular lens implantation, phacoemulsification with posterior chamber intraocular lens implantation, or intracapsular cataract extraction with flexible anterior chamber intraocular lens implantation. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Strength of study design, performance, and reporting in 11 methodologic areas assessed with a standardized abstraction form by two reviewers masked to authors, their institutions, and the journal of publication. Results of reviews were tallied to produce an overall quality score (measure of rigor in research methods) for each study. RESULTS: The mean (+/- SD) quality score was 43.1 +/- 20.1 out of a maximum possible score of 100. Studies received intermediate scores on description of baseline ocular disease and low scores on descriptions of other characteristics of enrolled patients, standardization of outcome assessment and follow-up duration, and handling of patient attrition. Eighty-three studies (92%) lacked a comparison group. The rigor of research methods in studies varied by the journal of publication, did not improve over time, and was no greater for studies with larger vs smaller sample sizes. CONCLUSIONS: The rigor of research methods in studies of cataract surgery can be improved if more attention is paid to fundamental principles of study design, data analysis, and reporting.

Frequency and risk factors for pterygium in the Barbados Eye Study.

OBJECTIVE: To describe the distribution and risk factors for pterygium in the predominantly black population of the Barbados Eye Study, which was based on a random sample of Barbadian-born citizens between the ages of 40 and 84 years. METHODS: The standardized protocol included ophthalmic and other measurements, automated perimetry, lens gradings, fundus photography, and a detailed interview. A 10% systematic sample of participants and those meeting specific criteria also received a comprehensive ophthalmologic evaluation. RESULTS: The Barbados Eye Study included 4709 participants, of whom 2978 were referred for an ophthalmologic evaluation and 2781 (93%) completed the examination. Cases of pterygium were found among 23.4% of 2617 black, 23.7% of 97 mixed (black and white), and 10.2% of 59 white participants examined. In addition to African ancestry, logistic regression analyses indicated a positive association between pterygium and age (odds ratio [OR], 1.01; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.00-1.02), fewer years of education (OR, 1.43; 95% CI, 1.01-2.03), and an outdoor job location (OR, 1.87; 95% CI, 1.52-2.29). Having a darker skin complexion (OR, 0.66; 95% CI, 0.52-0.83), always using sunglasses outdoors (OR, 0.18; 95% CI, 0.06-0.59), and the use of prescription glasses (OR, 0.75; 95% CI, 0.60-0.93) were protective factors. CONCLUSIONS: Approximately one quarter of the black participants examined had pterygia, a frequency that was 2.5 to 3 times higher than among whites in the Barbados Eye Study and elsewhere. Pterygium was almost twice as frequent among persons who worked outdoors but was only one fifth as likely among those who always used sunglasses outdoors. Educational interventions to modify these potential exposures may assist in preventing pterygium.

Variation in ophthalmic testing prior to cataract surgery. Results of a national survey of optometrists. Cataract Patient Outcome Research Team.

OBJECTIVE: To assess variation in optometrists' use of ophthalmic tests in the evaluation of patients being considered for cataract surgery who have no history of other eye disease. DESIGN/PARTICIPANTS: National survey of a systematic sample of practicing members of the American Optometric Association (St Louis, Mo), who had referred at least one patient to an ophthalmologist for consideration of cataract surgery in 1991. RESULTS: Ninety-two of 130 eligible responding optometrists reported that they routinely performed preoperative testing on patients being considered for cataract surgery. Of these 92 optometrists, 91 (99%) frequently or always performed refraction, and 82 (89%) frequently or always performed a dilated fundus examination in their evaluation of patients being considered for cataract surgery who had no history of other eye disease. None of these 92 optometrists reported using B-scan ultrasonography or electroretinograms frequently or always, and few used A-scan ultrasonography or visual evoked responses frequently or always. A substantial percentage frequently or always used formal visual field testing (47%), formal color vision testing (40%), fundus photography (24%), potential acuity measurement (25%), glare testing (23%), contrast sensitivity testing (19%), and specular microscopy (14%), while 11% to 81% of optometrists never performed these tests on such patients. More recent graduation from optometry school was associated with a decreased frequency of use of potential acuity measurement and contrast sensitivity testing and with an increased use of dilated fundus examinations. CONCLUSION: There is a substantial variation in optometrists self-reported use of a number of ophthalmic tests in the preoperative evaluation of patients being considered for cataract surgery who have no history of other eye disease.

Variation in ophthalmic testing before cataract surgery. Results of a national survey of ophthalmologists.

Little information is available either for the clinical value of many ophthalmic tests performed preoperatively in the evaluation of patients for cataract surgery or for variation in ophthalmologists' use of such tests. To assess variation in ophthalmologists' use of ophthalmic tests, we conducted a national survey of American Academy of Ophthalmology members. Thirty-three percent, 17%, 37%, and 19% of the respondents reported that they "frequently" or "always" perform glare testing, contrast sensitivity testing, potential acuity measurement, and specular microscopy, respectively, in patients being considered for cataract surgery who have no history of eye disease other than cataract. In contrast, 27%, 54%, 24%, and 48% of respondents reported that they never perform each of these four tests in such patients. Two ophthalmologist characteristics--a surgical volume of greater than 200 cataract extractions per year and performance of surgery in an ambulatory surgical center or private office (as opposed to a hospital)--were independently associated with an increased probability of performing each of these four tests frequently or always. Ten percent or less of the respondents reported that they frequently or always perform electroretinography, visual evoked response testing, photography of fundus or anterior segment, B-scan ultrasonography, formal color vision testing, and formal visual field testing in such patients. Thus, there is considerable variation in ophthalmologists' use of glare testing, contrast sensitivity testing, potential acuity measurement, and specular microscopy. A small percentage of ophthalmologists may be overusing several other tests in the evaluation of patients being considered for cataract surgery.