[Management of Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia]. / Management der Primären Ciliären Dyskinesie.

Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia (PCD, MIM 242650) is a rare, hereditary multiorgan disease characterized by malfunction of motile cilia. Hallmark symptom is a chronic airway infection due to mucostasis leading to irreversible lung damage that may progress to respiratory failure. There is no cure for this genetic disease and evidence-based treatment is limited. Until recently, there were no randomized controlled trials performed in PCD, but this year, data of the first placebo-controlled trial on pharmacotherapy in PCD were published. This cornerstone in the management of PCD was decisive for reviewing currently used treatment strategies. This article is a consensus of patient representatives and clinicians, which are highly experienced in care of PCD-patients and provides an overview of the management of PCD. Treatments are mainly based on expert opinions, personal experiences, or are deduced from other lung diseases, notably cystic fibrosis (CF), COPD or bronchiectasis. Most strategies focus on routine airway clearance and treatment of recurrent respiratory tract infections. Non-respiratory symptoms are treated organ specific. To generate further evidence-based knowledge, other projects are under way, e. g. the International PCD-Registry. Participating in patient registries facilitates access to clinical and research studies and strengthens networks between centers. In addition, knowledge of genotype-specific course of the disease will offer the opportunity to further improve and individualize patient care.

[Bridging anticoagulation in patients receiving vitamin K antagonists : Current status]. / Überbrückende Antikoagulation bei Patienten unter Vitamin-K-Antagonisten : Eine Bestandsaufnahme.

Approximately 30% of patients receiving oral anticoagulation using vitamin K antagonists (VKA) require surgery within 2 years. In this context, a clinical decision on the need and the mode of a peri-interventional bridging with heparin is needed. While a few years ago, bridging was almost considered a standard of care, recent study results triggered a discussion on which patients will need bridging at all. Revisiting the currently available recommendations and study results the conclusion can be drawn that the indications for bridging with heparin must nowadays be taken more narrowly and considering the individual patient risk of bleeding and thromboembolism. Bridging with heparin is only needed in patients with a very high risk of thromboembolism. This overview aims to give guidance for a risk-adapted peri-interventional approach to management of patients with a need for long-term anticoagulation using VKA.

[Bridging anticoagulation in patients receiving vitamin K antagonists : Current status]. / Überbrückende Antikoagulation bei Patienten unter Vitamin-K-Antagonisten : Eine Bestandsaufnahme.

Approximately 30% of patients receiving oral anticoagulation using vitamin K antagonists (VKA) require surgery within 2 years. In this context, a clinical decision on the need and the mode of a peri-interventional bridging with heparin is needed. While a few years ago, bridging was almost considered a standard of care, recent study results triggered a discussion on which patients will need bridging at all. Revisiting the currently available recommendations and study results the conclusion can be drawn that the indications for bridging with heparin must nowadays be taken more narrowly and considering the individual patient risk of bleeding and thromboembolism. Bridging with heparin is only needed in patients with a very high risk of thromboembolism. This overview aims to give guidance for a risk-adapted peri-interventional approach to management of patients with a need for long-term anticoagulation using VKA.

Mutation of BSND causes Bartter syndrome with sensorineural deafness and kidney failure.

Antenatal Bartter syndrome (aBS) comprises a heterogeneous group of autosomal recessive salt-losing nephropathies. Identification of three genes that code for renal transporters and channels as responsible for aBS has resulted in new insights into renal salt handling, diuretic action and blood-pressure regulation. A gene locus of a fourth variant of aBS called BSND, which in contrast to the other forms is associated with sensorineural deafness (SND) and renal failure, has been mapped to chromosome 1p. We report here the identification by positional cloning, in a region not covered by the human genome sequencing projects, of a new gene, BSND, as the cause of BSND. We examined ten families with BSND and detected seven different mutations in BSND that probably result in loss of function. In accordance with the phenotype, BSND is expressed in the thin limb and the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle in the kidney and in the dark cells of the inner ear. The gene encodes a hitherto unknown protein with two putative transmembrane alpha-helices and thus might function as a regulator for ion-transport proteins involved in aBS, or else as a new transporter or channel itself.

Pathogenic gene variants in CCDC39, CCDC40, RSPH1, RSPH9, HYDIN, and SPEF2 cause defects of sperm flagella composition and male infertility.

Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia (PCD) is a rare genetic disorder affecting the function of motile cilia in several organ systems. In PCD, male infertility is caused by defective sperm flagella composition or deficient motile cilia function in the efferent ducts of the male reproductive system. Different PCD-associated genes encoding axonemal components involved in the regulation of ciliary and flagellar beating are also reported to cause infertility due to multiple morphological abnormalities of the sperm flagella (MMAF). Here, we performed genetic testing by next generation sequencing techniques, PCD diagnostics including immunofluorescence-, transmission electron-, and high-speed video microscopy on sperm flagella and andrological work up including semen analyses. We identified ten infertile male individuals with pathogenic variants in CCDC39 (one) and CCDC40 (two) encoding ruler proteins, RSPH1 (two) and RSPH9 (one) encoding radial spoke head proteins, and HYDIN (two) and SPEF2 (two) encoding CP-associated proteins, respectively. We demonstrate for the first time that pathogenic variants in RSPH1 and RSPH9 cause male infertility due to sperm cell dysmotility and abnormal flagellar RSPH1 and RSPH9 composition. We also provide novel evidence for MMAF in HYDIN- and RSPH1-mutant individuals. We show absence or severe reduction of CCDC39 and SPEF2 in sperm flagella of CCDC39- and CCDC40-mutant individuals and HYDIN- and SPEF2-mutant individuals, respectively. Thereby, we reveal interactions between CCDC39 and CCDC40 as well as HYDIN and SPEF2 in sperm flagella. Our findings demonstrate that immunofluorescence microscopy in sperm cells is a valuable tool to identify flagellar defects related to the axonemal ruler, radial spoke head and the central pair apparatus, thus aiding the diagnosis of male infertility. This is of particular importance to classify the pathogenicity of genetic defects, especially in cases of missense variants of unknown significance, or to interpret HYDIN variants that are confounded by the presence of the almost identical pseudogene HYDIN2.

PD-1 AND TIM-3 BLOCKING CANNOT ENHANCE APOPTOSIS OF CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA CELLS INDUCED BY PERIPHERAL BLOOD CD8+ T CELLS.

AIM: Given the invaluable success of immune checkpoint inhibitors for tumor immunotherapy, in this study, the effect of programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) and T cell immunoglobulin-3 (TIM-3) blocking was investigated to induce apoptosis of leukemic cells by exhausted CD8+ T cells in patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). MATERIALS AND METHODS: Peripheral blood CD8+ T cells were positively isolated from 16 CLL patients using magnetic beads separation method. Isolated CD8+ T cells were treated with either blocking anti-PD-1, anti-TIM-3 and isotype-matched control antibodies and then co-cultured with CLL leukemic cells as target. The percentage of apoptotic leukemic cells and the expression of apoptosis-related genes were evaluated by flow cytometry and real-time polymerase chain reaction methods, respectively. Interferon gamma and tumor necrosis factor alpha concentration was also measured by ELISA. RESULTS: Flow cytometric analysis of apoptotic leukemic cells indicated that the blockade of PD-1 and TIM-3 did not significantly enhance the apoptosis of CLL cells by CD8+ T cells, which then were confirmed by analysis of BAX, BCL2 and CASP3 gene expression, which was similar in blocked and control groups. No significant difference was found between blocked and control groups in terms of interferon gamma and tumor necrosis factor alpha production by CD8+ T cells. CONCLUSION: We concluded that the blockade of PD-1 and TIM-3 is not an effective strategy to restore the function of CD8+ T cells in CLL patients at the early clinical stages of the disease. Further in vitro and in vivo studies are needed to more address the application of immune checkpoint blockade in CLL patients.

Factors influencing age at diagnosis of primary ciliary dyskinesia in European children.

Primary ciliary dyskinesia (PCD) is a hereditary disorder of mucociliary clearance causing chronic upper and lower airways disease. We determined the number of patients with diagnosed PCD across Europe, described age at diagnosis and determined risk factors for late diagnosis. Centres treating children with PCD in Europe answered questionnaires and provided anonymous patient lists. In total, 223 centres from 26 countries reported 1,009 patients aged < 20 yrs. Reported cases per million children (for 5-14 yr olds) were highest in Cyprus (111), Switzerland (47) and Denmark (46). Overall, 57% were males and 48% had situs inversus. Median age at diagnosis was 5.3 yrs, lower in children with situs inversus (3.5 versus 5.8 yrs; p < 0.001) and in children treated in large centres (4.1 versus 4.8 yrs; p = 0.002). Adjusted age at diagnosis was 5.0 yrs in Western Europe, 4.8 yrs in the British Isles, 5.5 yrs in Northern Europe, 6.8 yrs in Eastern Europe and 6.5 yrs in Southern Europe (p < 0.001). This strongly correlated with general government expenditures on health (p < 0.001). This European survey suggests that PCD in children is under-diagnosed and diagnosed late, particularly in countries with low health expenditures. Prospective studies should assess the impact this delay might have on patient prognosis and on health economic costs across Europe.

Primary ciliary dyskinesia: a consensus statement on diagnostic and treatment approaches in children.

Primary ciliary dyskinesia (PCD) is associated with abnormal ciliary structure and function, which results in retention of mucus and bacteria in the respiratory tract, leading to chronic oto-sino-pulmonary disease, situs abnormalities and abnormal sperm motility. The diagnosis of PCD requires the presence of the characteristic clinical phenotype and either specific ultrastructural ciliary defects identified by transmission electron microscopy or evidence of abnormal ciliary function. Although the management of children affected with PCD remains uncertain and evidence is limited, it remains important to follow-up these patients with an adequate and shared care system in order to prevent future lung damage. This European Respiratory Society consensus statement on the management of children with PCD formulates recommendations regarding diagnostic and therapeutic approaches in order to permit a more accurate approach in these patients. Large well-designed randomised controlled trials, with clear description of patients, are required in order to improve these recommendations on diagnostic and treatment approaches in this disease.

Early effective treatment may protect from cognitive decline in paediatric multiple sclerosis.

BACKGROUND: Cognitive impairment (CI) is a critical feature for patients with childhood or juvenile multiple sclerosis (MS). OBJECTIVE: To promote the understanding of CI and to address the impact of different pharmacological treatment strategies on cognitive performance in this patient group. METHODS: A cohort of 19 patients with therapy-naïve or ß-Interferon-treated juvenile MS completed a comprehensive neuropsychological assessment at initial presentation (baseline) and on average 2.5 years later (follow-up). The assessments were complemented with a neuropaediatric examination and conventional cerebral magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). RESULTS: 9 patients (47%) were impaired in at least one test at baseline (z-score <-1.645 compared with age-adjusted normative data), with the highest impairment frequency in the domains processing speed and attention & executive functions. At follow-up a higher impairment frequency was prominent in those patients whose therapy had not been escalated (N = 13, 69% impaired in at least one test), while cognition was preserved or ameliorated in patients whose treatment had been escalated to highly effective drugs (N = 6, 0% impaired) during the observational period. These group differences at follow-up were not attributable to differences regarding demographics, MRI metrics or cognitive performance at baseline. CONCLUSION: Our findings confirm that paediatric MS is associated with considerable CI already in early disease stages. Early administration of highly effective treatment may protect from cognitive decline or alleviate CI in juvenile MS, but larger controlled trials are warranted to confirm these preliminary results.

Refining the phenotype of alpha-1a Tubulin (TUBA1A) mutation in patients with classical lissencephaly.

Mutations in the alpha-1a Tubulin (TUBA1A) gene have recently been found to cause cortical malformations resemblant of classical lissencephaly but with a specific combination of features. To date, TUBA1A mutations have been described in five patients and three foetuses. Our aims were to establish how common TUBA1A mutations are in patients with lissencephaly and to contribute to defining the phenotype associated with TUBA1A mutation. We performed mutation analysis in the TUBA1A gene in 46 patients with classical lissencephaly. In 44 of the patients, mutations in the LIS1 and/or DCX genes had previously been excluded; in 2 patients, mutation analysis was only performed in TUBA1A based on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) findings. We identified three new mutations and one recurrent mutation in five patients with variable patterns of lissencephaly on brain MRI. Four of the five patients had congenital microcephaly, and all had dysgenesis of the corpus callosum and cerebellar hypoplasia, and variable cortical malformations, including subtle subcortical band heterotopia and absence or hypoplasia of the anterior limb of the internal capsule. We estimate the frequency of mutation in TUBA1A gene in patients with classical lissencephaly to be approximately 4%, and although not as common as mutations in the LIS1 or DCX genes, mutation analysis in TUBA1A should be included in the molecular genetic diagnosis of classical lissencephaly, particularly in patients with the combination of features highlighted in this paper.

L-2-hydroxyglutaric aciduria: identification of ten novel mutations in the L2HGDH gene.

L-2-hydroxyglutaric aciduria (L-2-HGA) is a metabolic disease with an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance. It was first reported in 1980. Patients with this disease have mutations in both alleles of the L2HDGH gene. The clinical presentation of individuals with L-2-HGA is somewhat variable, but affected individuals typically suffer from progressive neurodegeneration. Analysis of urinary organic acids reveals an increased signal of 2-hydroxyglutaric acid, mainly as the L-enantiomer. L-2-HGA is known to occur in individuals of various ethnic backgrounds, but up to now mutation analysis has been mainly focused on patients of Turkish and Portuguese origin. This led us to confirm the diagnosis on the DNA level and undertake the corresponding mutation analysis in individuals of diverse ethnicity previously diagnosed with L-2-HGA on the basis of urinary metabolites and clinical/neuroimaging data. In 24 individuals from 17 families with diverse ethnic and geographic origins, 13 different mutations were found, 10 of which have not been reported previously. At least eight of the patients were compound heterozygotes. The identification of two mutations (c.751C > T and c.905C > T in exon 7) in patients with different origins supports the view that they occurred independently in different families. In contrast, the mutation c.788C > T was detected in all six Venezuelan patients originating from the same Caribbean island of Margarita, but not in other patients, thus rendering a founder effect likely. None of the mutations was found in the control population, indicating that they are most probably causative. Mutation analysis may improve the quality of diagnosis and prenatal diagnosis of L-2-HGA.

Single-Readout High-Density Memristor Crossbar.

High-density memristor-crossbar architecture is a very promising technology for future computing systems. The simplicity of the gateless-crossbar structure is both its principal advantage and the source of undesired sneak-paths of current. This parasitic current could consume an enormous amount of energy and ruin the readout process. We introduce new adaptive-threshold readout techniques that utilize the locality and hierarchy properties of the computer-memory system to address the sneak-paths problem. The proposed methods require a single memory access per pixel for an array readout. Besides, the memristive crossbar consumes an order of magnitude less power than state-of-the-art readout techniques.

Left atrial chamber and appendage function after internal atrial defibrillation: a prospective and serial transesophageal echocardiographic study.

OBJECTIVES: The purpose of this prospective study was to assess left atrial chamber and appendage function after internal atrial defibrillation of atrial fibrillation and to evaluate the time course of recovery. BACKGROUND: External cardioversion of atrial fibrillation may result in left atrial appendage dysfunction ("stunning") and may promote thrombus formation. In contrast to external cardioversion, internal atrial defibrillation utilizes lower energies; however, it is unknown whether the use of lower energies may avoid stunning of the left atrial appendage. METHODS: Transesophageal and transthoracic echocardiography were performed in 20 patients 24 h before and 1 and 7 days after internal atrial defibrillation to assess both left atrial chamber and appendage function. Transthoracic echocardiography was again performed 28 days after internal atrial defibrillation to assess left atrial function. The incidence and degree of spontaneous echo contrast accumulation (range 1+ to 4+) was noted, and peak emptying velocities of the left atrial appendage were measured before and after internal atrial defibrillation. To determine left atrial mechanical function, peak A wave velocities were obtained from transmitral flow velocity profiles. RESULTS: Sinus rhythm was restored in all patients. The mean +/- SD peak A wave velocities increased gradually after cardioversion, from 0.47 +/- 0.16 m/s at 24 h to 0.61 +/- 0.13 m/s after 7 days (p < 0.05) and 0.63 +/- 0.13 m/s after 4 weeks. Peak emptying velocities of the left atrial appendage were 0.37 +/- 0.16 m/s before internal atrial defibrillation, decreased significantly after internal atrial defibrillation to 0.23 +/- 0.1 m/s at 24 h (p < 0.01) and then recovered to 0.49 +/- 0.23 m/s (p < 0.01) after 7 days. The corresponding values for the degree of spontaneous echo contrast were 1.2 +/- 1.2 before internal atrial defibrillation versus 2.0 +/- 1.0 (p < 0.01) and 1.1 +/- 1.3 (p < 0.01) 1 and 7 days after cardioversion, respectively. One patient developed a new thrombus in the left atrial appendage, and another had a thromboembolic event after internal atrial defibrillation. CONCLUSIONS: Internal atrial defibrillation causes depressed left atrial chamber and appendage function and may result in the subacute accumulation of spontaneous echo contrast and development of new thrombi after cardioversion. These findings have important clinical implications for anticoagulation therapy before and after low energy internal atrial defibrillation in patients with atrial fibrillation.

Transverse conduction capabilities of the crista terminalis in patients with atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation.

OBJECTIVES: In this study, the transverse conduction capabilities of the crista terminalis (CT) were determined during pacing in sinus rhythm in patients with atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation. BACKGROUND: It has been demonstrated that the CT is a barrier to transverse conduction during typical atrial flutter. Mapping studies in animal models provide evidence that this is functional. The influence of transverse conduction capabilities of the CT on the development of atrial flutter remains unclear. METHODS: The CT was identified by intracardiac echocardiography. The atrial activation at the CT was determined during programmed stimulation with one extrastimulus at five pacing sites anteriorly to the CT in 10 patients with atrial flutter and 10 patients with atrial fibrillation before and after intravenous administration of 2 mg/kg disopyramide. Subsequently, atrial arrhythmias were reinduced. RESULTS: At baseline, pacing with longer coupling intervals resulted in a transverse pulse propagation across the CT. During shorter coupling intervals, split electrograms and a marked alteration of the activation sequence of its second component were found, indicating a functional conduction block. In patients with atrial flutter, the longest coupling interval that resulted in a complete transverse conduction block at the CT was significantly longer than that in patients with atrial fibrillation (285 +/- 49 ms vs. 221 +/- 28 ms; p < 0.05). After disopyramide administration, a transverse conduction block occurred at longer coupling intervals as compared with baseline (287 +/- 68 ms vs. 250 +/- 52 ms; p < 0.05). Subsequently, a sustained atrial arrhythmia was inducible in 15 of 20 patients. This was atrial flutter in three patients with previously documented atrial fibrillation and in eight patients with history of atrial flutter. Mapping revealed a conduction block at the CT in all of these patients. CONCLUSIONS: It was found that the CT provides transverse conduction capabilities and that the conduction block during atrial flutter is functional. Limited transverse conduction capabilities of the CT seem to contribute to the development of atrial flutter.

Prevalence of left atrial chamber and appendage thrombi in patients with atrial flutter and its clinical significance.

OBJECTIVES: The study was done to assess the prevalence of left atrial (LA) chamber and appendage thrombi in patients with atrial flutter (AFl) scheduled for electrophysiologic study (EPS), to evaluate the prevalence of thromboembolic complications after transesophageal echocardiographic (TEE)-guided restoration of sinus rhythm and to evaluate clinical risk factors for a thrombogenic milieu. BACKGROUND: Recent studies showed controversial results on the prevalence of atrial thrombi and the risk of thromboembolism after restoring sinus rhythm in patients with AFl. METHODS: Between 1995 and 1999, patients with AFl who were scheduled for EPS were included in the study. After transesophageal assessment of the left atrial appendage and exclusion of thrombi, an effective anticoagulation was initiated and patients underwent EPS within 24 h. RESULTS: We performed 202 EPSs (radiofrequency catheter ablation, n = 122; overdrive stimulation, n = 64; electrical cardioversion, n = 16) in 139 consecutive patients with AFl. Fifteen patients with a thrombogenic milieu were identified. All of them had paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF). Transesophageal echocardiography revealed LA thrombi in two cases (1%). After EPS no thromboembolic complications were observed. Diabetes mellitus, arterial hypertension and a decreased left ventricular ejection fraction were found to be independent risk factors associated with a thrombogenic milieu. CONCLUSIONS: The findings of a low prevalence of LA appendage thrombi (1%) in patients with AFl and a close correlation between a history of previous embolism and paroxysmal AF support the current guidelines that patients with pure AFl do not require anticoagulation therapy, whereas patients with AFl and paroxysmal AF should receive anticoagulation therapy. In addition, the presence of clinical risk factors should alert the physician to an increased likelihood for a thrombogenic milieu.

[Long-term fate of left atrial thrombi and incidence of cerebral embolism under continuous anticoagulation therapy]. / MR-tomographische Evaluation der Inzidenz zerebraler Embolien bei Patienten mit Vorhofflimmern und linksatrialen Thromben.

PURPOSE: Patients (pts.) with atrial fibrillation (AF) and atrial thrombi are known to have an increased risk for cerebral embolism. However, little is known about the clinical course of atrial thrombi and the incidence of cerebral embolism in those patients during anticoagulation therapy. The high sensitivity of MR imaging (MRI) including diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI) suggests that this technique could provide an improved estimate of cerebral embolism associated with the presence of left atrial thrombi. The aims of this prospective study were to evaluate 1) the prevalence of clinically silent and apparent cerebral embolism in pts. with newly diagnosed AF and atrial thrombi using MRI/DWI, 2) the long-term fate of atrial thrombi under continues anticoagulation therapy and 3) the incidence of cerebral embolism during a follow-up period of 12 months with continuous anticoagulation therapy. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The study group consisted of 32 pts. with 1) newly diagnosed AF and evidence of left atrial (LA) thrombi detected by TEE and 2) a new start of anticoagulation therapy [International Normalized Ratio (INR) 2.0 - 3.0]. 19 pts. with 1) newly diagnosed AF and no evidence of atrial thrombi and 2) an equivalent anticoagulation regimen served as the control group. In both groups a) MRI/DWI studies of the brain (weeks 0, 4, 8, 12, 20, 28, 36, 44, and 52), b) transesophageal echocardiographic studies (TEE) for assessment of LA-Thrombi (weeks 0 and 52) and c) clinical neurological assessments (weeks 0, 20 and 52) were performed. RESULTS: In the study group (AF and LA-Thrombi) 11 out of 32 pts. (34 %) displayed signs of acute (n = 8) or chronic (n = 3) cerebral embolism in the initial MRI studies. In 4 out of 32 pts. (13 %), MRI/DWI depicted new or additional cerebral emboli (n = 12) during the follow-up period despite continuous anticoagulation therapy. 2 (n = 2/4; 50 %) of these patients had clinically apparent neurological deficits. In the control group 1 out of 19 pts. (5 %) showed evidence of chronic cerebral embolism as assessed by MRI/DWI at the beginning of the study (week 0). No embolic cerebral lesions were detected during the 12-month follow-up. Within 12 months only 63 % (n = 20/32) of LA thrombi in the study group resolved completely under anticoagulation. CONCLUSION: 1. The incidence of clinically inapparent cerebral emboli in pts. with newly diagnosed AF and atrial thrombi is much higher than the incidence of clinically apparent emboli and has been underestimated in the past. 2. New cerebral embolism may occur even with continued effective anticoagulation therapy in 13 % of pts. 3. Only 63 % of atrial thrombi resolve completely within 12 months under anticoagulation therapy.

Incidence of left atrial thrombi in patients in sinus rhythm and with a recent neurologic deficit.

OBJECTIVES: We sought to determine the incidence of left atrial (LA) thrombi in patients in sinus rhythm (SR) and with a recent neurologic deficit and to analyze the relation between LA thrombi and LA chamber and appendage function in patients in SR. METHODS: A prospective study was conducted in 869 consecutive patients. The study group consisted of 583 patients in SR (67%). The remaining 286 patients had atrial fibrillation (AF) and served as controls (33%). RESULTS: The incidence of LA thrombi was significantly higher in patients with AF (n = 39 [14%]) compared with patients in SR (n = 6 [1%]; P <.001). Three of 6 patients with thrombi in SR had mitral stenosis, 1 patient had aortic stenosis, 1 patient had coronary artery disease, and another patient had a cardiomyopathy. Of the patients with detected thrombi, those in SR did not receive anticoagulation, whereas those with AF did in 18 cases. Patients with thrombi in SR and with AF did not significantly differ in LA diameter (5.1 +/- 0.8 cm vs 4.8 +/- 0.7 cm; 95% confidence interval [CI], -0.78 to 0.45), left ventricular ejection fraction (46% +/- 13% vs 42% +/- 15%; 95% CI, -18.7 to 7.4), LA appendage area (5.8 +/- 2.7 cm(2) vs 6.7 +/- 3.2 cm(2); 95% CI, -1.9 to 3.6), peak emptying velocity of the LA appendage (0.19 +/- 0.08 m/s vs 0.17 +/- 0.07 m/s; 95% CI, -0.08 to 0.04), or LA spontaneous echo contrast (3. 5 +/- 0.6 vs 3.9 +/- 0.5; 95% CI, -0.06 to 0.45). CONCLUSIONS: LA appendage thrombi are an infrequent cause of thromboembolism in patients in SR and are associated either with mitral valve disease or LA chamber and appendage dysfunction. Routine transesophageal echocardiography for the exclusion of LA thrombi is not recommended in patients in SR without underlying heart disease and normal LA function as assessed by transthoracic echocardiography.

Multiplane transesophageal echocardiographic assessment of mitral regurgitation by Doppler color flow mapping of the vena contracta.

Assessment of the severity of mitral regurgitation (MR) by Doppler color flow mapping is limited by dependence of jet area on hemodynamic and technical variables. The width of the MR jet at its origin may be less dependent on hemodynamic variables, and thus should more accurately reflect the severity of MR. Doppler color flow mapping was performed in 80 subjects by transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) within 48 hours of catheterization. Width of the MR jet at its vena contracta was measured by both single plane and multiplane TEE and compared with the angiographic grade of MR and regurgitant volume. The width of the MR jet correlated closely with angiographic grade by both methods. A jet width > or = 6 mm identified angiographically severe MR with a sensitivity and specificity of 100% and 83% by single-plane TEE, and 95% and 98% by multiplane TEE. The sensitivity and specificity for detecting a regurgitant volume > or = 80 ml was 93% and 76% for single-plane TEE, and 86% and 95% for multiplane TEE. Thus, the width of the MR jet at its vena contracta by Doppler color flow mapping is an accurate marker of the severity of MR. By virtue of its ability to obtain orthogonal views specifically oriented to mitral leaflet coaptation, multiplane TEE is superior to single-plane TEE in assessing MR jet width.

Echocardiographic parameters for predicting maintenance of sinus rhythm after internal atrial defibrillation.

Chronic atrial fibrillation (AF), which is refractory to external electrical direct current shock and/or pharmacologic cardioversion, may be successfully cardioverted using internal atrial defibrillation. To avoid unnecessary procedures, it is important to be able to predict which patients will revert to AF. Thirty-eight patients with chronic AF underwent successful internal atrial defibrillation and were followed for 6 months after restoration of sinus rhythm. Left atrial (LA) diameter, left ventricular ejection fraction, maximum LA appendage area, and peak emptying velocities of the LA appendage were analyzed to determine which of these factors were associated with recurrence of AF. Forty-nine percent of patients had a recurrence of AF within 6 months following internal atrial defibrillation. The preprocedural ejection fraction (mean +/- SD 59 + 14% vs 57 + 13%, p = 0.63), LA diameter (4.2 +/- 0.6 cm vs 4.5 +/- 0.6 cm, p = 0.16), and LA appendage area (5.0 +/- 1.5 cm2 vs 5.8 +/- 1.5 cm2, p = 0.13) did not differ significantly between patients who maintained sinus rhythm and those who had recurrence of AF. Peak emptying velocities of the LA appendage before cardioversion were significantly lower in patients with recurrence of AF compared with patients who maintained sinus rhythm (0.26 +/- 0.1 m/s vs 0.49 +/- 0.17 m/s, p = 0.001). A peak emptying velocity <0.36 had a sensitivity of 82% and a specificity of 83% for predicting recurrence of AF.

Color-coded Doppler imaging of the vena contracta as a basis for quantification of pure mitral regurgitation.

The narrowest central flow region of a jet is defined as the vena contracta. This term is applied also to the contracted zone of the Doppler color flow image of a jet at its passage through an incompetent mitral valve. The clinical applicability of measuring the size of the vena contracta by transthoracic color-coded Doppler echocardiography for estimating the severity of mitral regurgitation (MR) was evaluated. In 78 of 82 patients with angiographically proved MR, a coherent flow image across the valve was visualized. The maximal diameter in the apical long-axis view was considered as a representative value for the size of the vena contracta. In comparison with the maximal left atrial velocity pixel area, this parameter revealed higher correlations to the angiographic degree of MR and to the regurgitant volume (r = 0.94 vs 0.72, and 0.83 vs 0.71, respectively). The highest positive and negative predictive accuracies for differentiating mild-to-moderate from severe MR were determined for a diameter of 6.5 mm (88 and 96%, respectively). Because the vena contracta is directly related to the severity of MR, it is concluded that it is helpful to use this parameter instead of the maximal velocity pixel area for semiquantitative grading.