Omalizumab prevents anaphylaxis and improves symptoms in systemic mastocytosis: Efficacy and safety observations.

BACKGROUND: Patients with systemic mastocytosis (SM) may suffer from mast cell (MC) mediator-related symptoms insufficiently controlled by conventional therapy. Omalizumab is an established treatment in other MC-driven diseases, but experiences in SM are limited. OBJECTIVE: To assess the efficacy and safety of omalizumab in SM. METHODS: In our patient cohort, we evaluated all SM patients treated with omalizumab. A physician global assessment of type and severity of symptoms was performed at baseline, at 3 and 6 months and at latest follow-up. Quality of life was assessed by visual analogue scale. S-tryptase and KIT D816V allele burden were monitored. RESULTS: A total of 14 adult SM patients (10 ISM, 2 BMM, 1 SSM, and 1 ASM-AHN) received omalizumab with a median duration of 17 months (range: 1-73 months). One patient was excluded due to concomitant cytoreductive therapy. In the remaining 13 patients, we observed a significant reduction in symptoms, with complete symptom control in five (38.5%), major response in three (23.1%), and a partial response in three (23.1%) patients, whereas two patients (15.4%) withdrew due to subjective side-effects at first dose. The treatment was most effective for recurrent anaphylaxis and skin symptoms, less for gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal, and neuropsychiatric symptoms. Patient-reported quality of life showed significant improvement. No significant changes in s-tryptase/KIT D816V allele burden were observed. No severe adverse events were recorded. CONCLUSIONS: Omalizumab appears to be a promising treatment option in SM, effectively preventing anaphylaxis and improving chronic MC mediator-related symptoms, insufficiently controlled by conventional therapy. Controlled studies are needed to substantiate findings.

Patterns of anaphylaxis after diagnostic workup: A follow-up study of 226 patients with suspected anaphylaxis.

BACKGROUND: Most published studies on anaphylaxis are retrospective or register based. Data on subsequent diagnostic workup are sparse. We aimed to characterize patients seen with suspected anaphylaxis at the emergency care setting (ECS), after subsequent diagnostic workup at our Allergy Center (AC). METHODS: Prospective study including patients from the ECS, Odense University Hospital, during May 2013-April 2014. Possible anaphylaxis cases were daily identified based on a broad search profile including history and symptoms in patient records, diagnostic codes and pharmacological treatments. At the AC, all patients were evaluated according to international guidelines. RESULTS: Among 226 patients with suspected anaphylaxis, the diagnosis was confirmed in 124 (54.9%) after diagnostic workup; 118 of the 124 fulfilled WAO/EAACI criteria of anaphylaxis at the ECS, while six were found among 46 patients with clinical suspicion but not fulfilling the WAO/EAACI criteria at the ECS. The estimated incidence rate of anaphylaxis was 26 cases per 100 000 person-years and the one-year period prevalence was 0.04%. The most common elicitor was drugs (41.1%) followed by venom (27.4%) and food (20.6%). In 13 patients (10.5%), no elicitor could be identified. Mastocytosis was diagnosed in 7.7% of adult patients and was significantly associated with severe anaphylaxis. Atopic diseases were significantly associated only with food-induced anaphylaxis. Cofactors were present in 58.1% and were significantly associated with severe anaphylaxis. CONCLUSION: A broad search profile in the ECS and subsequent diagnostic workup is important for identification and classification of patients with anaphylaxis. Evaluation of comorbidities and cofactors is important.

Prospective evaluation of the diagnostic value of sensitive KIT D816V mutation analysis of blood in adults with suspected systemic mastocytosis.

BACKGROUND: Sensitive KIT D816V mutation analysis of blood has been proposed to guide bone marrow (BM) investigation in suspected systemic mastocytosis (SM). The aim of this prospective study was for the first time to compare the D816V status of the "screening blood sample" used to guide BM biopsy in suspected SM to the outcome of the subsequent BM investigation. METHODS: Fifty-eight adult patients with suspected SM were included. The outcome of sensitive KIT D816V analysis of blood was compared to the result of the BM investigation. RESULTS: Screening blood samples from 44 of 58 patients tested D816V-positive. In 43 of these, SM was subsequently diagnosed in the BM investigation. One patient with a D816V-positive screening sample was diagnosed with monoclonal MC activation syndrome. Screening blood samples from 14 patients tested D816V-negative. SM was subsequently diagnosed in five of these, whereas nine patients did not fulfill any diagnostic SM criteria (excluding tryptase criterion). Of the 48 SM patients, 90% tested D816V-positive. Thirteen SM patients presented with Hymenoptera venom-induced anaphylaxis, no skin lesions, and baseline serum tryptase ≤20 ng/mL. Of these, 92% tested D816V-positive in the screening blood sample. CONCLUSION: This prospective study demonstrates that a D816V-positive result in a screening blood sample identifies SM among patients with hymenoptera venom-induced anaphylaxis in whom the diagnosis would most probably have been missed, with potential severe implications. The observed false-negative screening results also underline that BM investigation is mandatory in all adult patients with clear signs of, or highly suspected SM, regardless of the KIT mutation status.

Outcome determinants for transformed indolent lymphomas treated with or without autologous stem-cell transplantation.

BACKGROUND: Transformation of indolent lymphomas (IL) to an aggressive histology (TIL) often results in a rapid clinical course, treatment refractoriness and shortened survival. Although rituximab-containing regimens (R-chemo) have become standard of care in CD20-positive TIL, the role of autologous stem-cell transplantation (ASCT) is still debated. The purpose of this study was to determine whether the outcome of TIL patients improved if they, at transformation, also received ASCT. Furthermore, we investigated the outcome of cases with histologically low- and high-grade components diagnosed either simultaneously or after a period of overt indolent disease. We also analyzed, whether prior rituximab treatment during the indolent course of the disease affected outcome after transformation. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Eighty-five patients (≤68 years) with histologically confirmed TIL were included. Five-year overall (OS) and progression-free survival (PFS) were calculated. Selected parameters were tested in a multivariate analysis. All analyses were conducted on three cohorts: (i) whole cohort (all TIL), (ii) patients with co-existing evidence of both indolent and aggressive histology at diagnosis (Composite/discordant TIL) and (iii) patients transformed after prolonged prior indolent disease (sequential TIL). RESULTS: Fifty-four patients (64%) received ASCT consolidation and 31 (36%) did not. Within the 'all TIL' cohort, the 5-year OS and PFS for R-chemo + ASCT versus R-chemo alone, were 67% versus 48% (P = 0.11) and 60% versus 30% (P = 0.02), respectively. Furthermore, in 'Composite/discordant TIL' R-chemo + ASCT showed no impact on OS (76% versus 67%; P = 0.66) or PFS (71% versus 62%; P = 0.54). Conversely, R-chemo + ASCT improved the outcome of 'sequential TIL' (OS 62% versus 36%; P = 0.07; PFS 53% versus 6%; P = 0.002), regardless of prior rituximab therapy. The beneficial effect of ASCT was significantly higher in patients who had not received rituximab at IL stage. CONCLUSIONS: ASCT improved the outcome in sequential, but not composite/discordant TIL. The beneficial impact of ASCT was greater in patients, who were rituximab-naïve at transformation.

Lactate levels predict mortality and need for peritoneal dialysis in children undergoing congenital heart surgery.

BACKGROUND: The purpose of this study was to investigate whether an initial post-operative lactate level is a predictor of mortality, need for peritoneal dialysis (PD), duration of intubation or length of stay (LOS) in the intensive care unit (ICU) in children undergoing cardiac surgery. METHOD: A retrospective, observational follow-up study was conducted in 206 children undergoing cardiac surgery from 2006 to 2007. Multivariate logistics regression analyses were performed to determine whether the lactate level was an independent risk factor. The lactate concentration at arrival in the ICU, outcome and risk factors (patient demographics, surgical complexity, duration of cardiopulmonary bypass and inotropic score) were obtained from the electronic patient data management program and medical records. RESULT: The median (interquartile range) lactate level was 1.9 mmol/l (1.3-2.7) in children immediately after cardiac surgery and a mortality of 3.9%. Eight percent of the children had a lactate level higher than 4.5 mmol/l. An increased lactate level ≥4.5 mmol/l resulted in an odds ratio (95% confidence intervals) of 8.4 (1.5-46.1) for mortality and an odds ratio of 16.9 (2.7-106.8) for PD after adjusting for Risk Adjustment for Congenital Heart Surgery 1. Because of the low number of deaths, limited confounder analysis was performed. Duration of intubation and LOS in the ICU were not associated with the initial lactate level when adjusting for confounders. CONCLUSION: The initial post-operative lactate level was a predictor of mortality and need for PD in children undergoing surgery for congenital heart disease.

Concordant bone marrow involvement of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma represents a distinct clinical and biological entity in the era of immunotherapy.

In diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL), the clinical and biological significance of concordant and discordant bone marrow (BM) involvement have not been well investigated. We evaluated 712 de novo DLBCL patients with front-line rituximab-containing treatment, including 263 patients with positive and 449 with negative BM status. Compared with negative BM disease, concordant BM adversely impacted overall and progression-free survival, independent of the International Prognostic Index (IPI) and cell-of-origin classification. Once BM is concordantly involved, poor prognosis was not associated with the extent of BM involvement. Conversely, patients with discordant BM showed favorable overall survival similar to stage I-II DLBCL. A BM-adjusted IPI, using three parameters: concordant BM involvement, age >60 years, and performance status >1, improves the risk stratification for DLBCL with positive BM. Intensive immunochemotherapy seemingly rendered survival benefit for patients with concordant BM, as did rituximab maintenance for the discordant BM group. Frequently revealing adverse clinical and molecular characteristics, patients with concordant BM demonstrated gene expression signatures relevant to tumor cell proliferation, migration and immune escape. In conclusion, clinical and biological heterogeneity is seen in DLBCL with positive BM but concordant BM involvement represents a distinct subset with unfavorable gene signatures, high-risk clinicopathologic features and poor prognosis.

Loss of PRDM1/BLIMP-1 function contributes to poor prognosis of activated B-cell-like diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.

PRDM1/BLIMP-1, a master regulator of plasma-cell differentiation, is frequently inactivated in activated B-cell-like (ABC) diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) patients. Little is known about its genetic aberrations and relevant clinical implications. A large series of patients with de novo DLBCL was effectively evaluated for PRDM1/BLIMP-1 deletion, mutation, and protein expression. BLIMP-1 expression was frequently associated with the ABC phenotype and plasmablastic morphologic subtype of DLBCL, yet 63% of the ABC-DLBCL patients were negative for BLIMP-1 protein expression. In these patients, loss of BLIMP-1 was associated with Myc overexpression and decreased expression of p53 pathway molecules. In addition, homozygous PRDM1 deletions and PRDM1 mutations within exons 1 and 2, which encode for domains crucial for transcriptional repression, were found to show a poor prognostic impact in patients with ABC-DLBCL but not in those with germinal center B-cell-like DLBCL (GCB-DLBCL). Gene expression profiling revealed that loss of PRDM1/BLIMP-1 expression correlated with a decreased plasma-cell differentiation signature and upregulation of genes involved in B-cell receptor signaling and tumor-cell proliferation. In conclusion, these results provide novel clinical and biological insight into the tumor-suppressive role of PRDM1/BLIMP-1 in ABC-DLBCL patients and suggest that loss of PRDM1/BLIMP-1 function contributes to the overall poor prognosis of ABC-DLBCL patients.

FOXP1 suppresses immune response signatures and MHC class II expression in activated B-cell-like diffuse large B-cell lymphomas.

The FOXP1 (forkhead box P1) transcription factor is a marker of poor prognosis in diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL). Here microarray analysis of FOXP1-silenced DLBCL cell lines identified differential regulation of immune response signatures and major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC II) genes as some of the most significant differences between germinal center B-cell (GCB)-like DLBCL with full-length FOXP1 protein expression versus activated B-cell (ABC)-like DLBCL expressing predominantly short FOXP1 isoforms. In an independent primary DLBCL microarray data set, multiple MHC II genes, including human leukocyte antigen DR alpha chain (HLA-DRA), were inversely correlated with FOXP1 transcript expression (P<0.05). FOXP1 knockdown in ABC-DLBCL cells led to increased cell-surface expression of HLA-DRA and CD74. In R-CHOP (rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisone)-treated DLBCL patients (n=150), reduced HLA-DRA (<90% frequency) expression correlated with inferior overall survival (P=0.0003) and progression-free survival (P=0.0012) and with non-GCB subtype stratified by the Hans, Choi or Visco-Young algorithms (all P<0.01). In non-GCB DLBCL cases with <90% HLA-DRA, there was an inverse correlation with the frequency (P=0.0456) and intensity (P=0.0349) of FOXP1 expression. We propose that FOXP1 represents a novel regulator of genes targeted by the class II MHC transactivator CIITA (MHC II and CD74) and therapeutically targeting the FOXP1 pathway may improve antigen presentation and immune surveillance in high-risk DLBCL patients.

Statistical alignment: computational properties, homology testing and goodness-of-fit.

The model of insertions and deletions in biological sequences, first formulated by Thorne, Kishino, and Felsenstein in 1991 (the TKF91 model), provides a basis for performing alignment within a statistical framework. Here we investigate this model.Firstly, we show how to accelerate the statistical alignment algorithms several orders of magnitude. The main innovations are to confine likelihood calculations to a band close to the similarity based alignment, to get good initial guesses of the evolutionary parameters and to apply an efficient numerical optimisation algorithm for finding the maximum likelihood estimate. In addition, the recursions originally presented by Thorne, Kishino and Felsenstein can be simplified. Two proteins, about 1500 amino acids long, can be analysed with this method in less than five seconds on a fast desktop computer, which makes this method practical for actual data analysis.Secondly, we propose a new homology test based on this model, where homology means that an ancestor to a sequence pair can be found finitely far back in time. This test has statistical advantages relative to the traditional shuffle test for proteins.Finally, we describe a goodness-of-fit test, that allows testing the proposed insertion-deletion (indel) process inherent to this model and find that real sequences (here globins) probably experience indels longer than one, contrary to what is assumed by the model.

Aberrations of the p53 pathway components p53, MDM2 and CDKN2A appear independent in diffuse large B cell lymphoma.

The two gene products of the CDKN2A gene, p16 and p19ARF, have recently been linked to each of two major tumour suppressor pathways in human carcinogenesis, the RB1 pathway and the p53 pathway. p16 inhibits the phosphorylation of the retinoblastoma gene product by cyclin D-dependent kinases, whereas p19ARF targets MDM2, a p53 inhibitory protein, for degradation. A deletion of CDKN2A would therefore disturb both pathways. To explore the p53 pathway genes as a functional unit in diffuse large B cell non-Hodgkin's lymphomas (DLCL), we wanted to see whether there exists mutually exclusiveness of aberrations of CDKN2A, MDM2 and p53, since this has not been analysed previously. We investigated 37 DLCL for aberrations of p15, p16, p19ARF, MDM2, and p53 at the epigenetic, genetic and/or protein levels. Homozygous deletion of CDKN2A was detected in seven (19%) of 37 tumours, and another three cases were hypermethylated at the 5' CpG island of p16. No point mutations were found in CDKN2B or CDKN2A. Immunohistochemical staining of formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue for p16 confirmed these results, as all tumours with alterations of CDKN2A were p16 immunonegative. We found p53 mutations in eight (22%) cases and MDM2 overexpression in 16 (43%) tumours. Twenty-three (62%) tumours had alterations of one or more p53 pathway components (p53, p19ARF and MDM2). Furthermore, 7/9 (78%) p16-immunonegative tumours showed co-aberration of p53 and/or MDM2. The lack of correlation between these aberrations suggests that DLCL acquire additional growth advantage by inactivating both of these critical regulatory pathways.

Frequent disruption of the RB1 pathway in diffuse large B cell lymphoma: prognostic significance of E2F-1 and p16INK4A.

In the present study, we analysed 34 de novo diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLCL) from a population-based lymphoma registry for alterations of the RB1 pathway at the genetic (RB1 and CDK4) and protein (pRb, cyclin D1, cyclin D3, CDK4, and E2F-1) level. The results were correlated with the data from our previous studies of CDKN2A deletion and hypermethylation, other p53 pathway components, p27Kip1 expression, and proliferation, as well as with clinical outcome, including prognosis. We found aberrant pRb expression in four (12%) of 34 DLCLs. One of these had a point mutation in intron 3 10 bp downstream of exon 3 generating a novel splice signal. Seven tumours (21%) showed cyclin D3 overexpression, including all three thyroid lymphomas (P = 0.006). Cyclin D3 overexpression and p16INK4A/pRb aberrations were mutually exclusive, supporting an oncogenic role for cyclin D3 in DLCL. p16INK4A inactivation, cyclin D3 overexpression, or aberrant pRb expression was identified in 18 of 34 DLCLs (53%). Combining these results with our previous p53 pathway studies showed that 82% of the de novo DLCLs had alterations of these pathways, and that both pathways were altered in 13 cases (38%). Low E2F-1 expression was associated with treatment failure (P = 0.020), and multivariate analysis of overall survival identified both low E2F-1 expression (relative risk = 6.9; P = 0.0037) and p16INK4A inactivation (relative risk = 3.3; P = 0.0247) as independent prognostic markers. These data support a role of E2F-1 as tumour suppressor gene in lymphoma and strongly suggest that the RB1 and p53 pathways are important in the development of de novo DLCL. Furthermore, low E2F-1 expression and p16INK4A inactivation may serve as prognostic markers for patients with this type of lymphoma.

Concurrent disruption of p16INK4a and the ARF-p53 pathway predicts poor prognosis in aggressive non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.

The INK4a/ARF locus at chromosome 9p21 encodes two structurally and functionally distinct molecules with tumor-suppressive properties. p16INK4a controls cell cycle progression by inhibiting phosphorylation of the retinoblastoma protein (Rb), while ARF prevents MDM2-mediated degradation of p53. By using a panel of PCR-based methods, we have examined the status of the p16INK4a, ARF and p53 genes in 123 cases of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) at diagnosis. Alterations of one or more of these genes were detected in seven of 36 (19%) cases with low- to intermediate-grade histology, and in 35 of 87 (40%) cases with aggressive histology. For the aggressive lymphomas, the Kaplan-Meier estimate of overall survival for cases with disruption of either p16INK4a or the ARF-p53 pathway was not different from cases with retention of both pathways (5 year survival 45% vs 35%; P= 0.85), suggesting that selective inactivation of one of the pathways does not significantly influence overall survival. By contrast, the 5-year survival was only 7% for cases with concurrent disruption of p16INK4a and the ARF-p53 pathway vs 38% for cases with retention of one or both pathways (P = 0.005). Similar results were obtained when the analysis was confined to diffuse large B cell lymphomas (P= 0.019). On stepwise multivariate regression analysis including factors from the international prognostic index, concurrent disruption of p16INK4a and the ARF-p53 pathway was an independent negative prognostic factor in NHL with aggressive histology (P = 0.006). Our results suggest that the compound status of the p16INK4a and ARF-p53 pathways is a major determinant of outcome in NHL.

Disrupted p53 function as predictor of treatment failure and poor prognosis in B- and T-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.

Mutation of the p53 gene has been associated with treatment failure and poor outcome in various malignancies. It has been suggested that immunohistochemical analysis of p53 and p21Waf1, a downstream target, can be used to screen for p53 gene mutations. We determined the value of immunohistochemical screening for p53 gene mutations as a prognostic marker in a population-based group of B- and T-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphomas (NHLs). On the basis of p53 gene mutation status and immunohistochemically detected p53 and p21Waf1 expression in 34 lymphomas, we established an immunophenotype (delta p53) correlating with p53 gene mutation. The immunohistochemical analysis was extended to encompass 199 lymphomas from a population-based registry and was correlated with clinical parameters. Delta p53 showed 100% concordance with p53 gene mutation and was detected in 42 cases (21%). Multivariate analysis of advanced stage lymphomas showed that delta p53 was independently associated with treatment failure (relative risk, 3.8; P = 0.001). Delta p53 predicted poor survival when analyzing all patients (P = 0.0001), as well as B-cell (P = 0.04) and T-cell NHL (P = 0.000002). In multivariate analysis, delta p53 (relative risk, 2.2; P = 0.001) maintained prognostic significance. The impact on prognosis of delta p53 was highly significant in the low-intermediate-risk group (P = 0.00002). Comparing survival of the aggressive lymphoma patients in this group showed that the 8 delta p53 patients died within 1 year, whereas the median survival of the 28 non-delta p53 patients was 36 months. These results suggest that immunohistochemically assessed p53 status may predict treatment response and outcome in B- and T-cell NHL patients.

Otoneurological examination in panic disorder and agoraphobia with panic attacks: a pilot study.

A battery of vestibular and audiological tests was administered to eight patients with panic disorder and 13 patients with agoraphobia and panic attacks, all of whom experienced dizziness during their panic attacks. Positional or spontaneous nystagmus was present in 67% of the subjects. Abnormal responses were found in caloric testing (56%), rotational testing (35%), and posturography (32%). Pure tone audiograms were abnormal in 26% of the subjects and acoustic reflexes were abnormal in 44% of the subjects. Six of eight patients tested had an abnormal brainstem auditory evoked potential. The possible importance of the findings and their implications for further research are discussed.

Testicular lymphoma: a population-based study of incidence, clinicopathological correlations and prognosis. The Danish Lymphoma Study Group, LYFO.

In a Danish population-based non-Hodgkin's lymphoma registry, 2687 newly diagnosed patients were registered from 1983 to 1992. 39 had testicular involvement (TL) (incidence 0.26/10(5)/year). Median age was 71 years. 24 cases had localised and 15 had disseminated disease. Histologically, all cases were diffuse (65% diffuse centroblastic type). Of the 27 tested, 11% were of T- and 89% of B-immunophenotype. In localised cases, where surgery was supplemented by combination chemotherapy (CCT), the relapse rate was 15.4%. The relapse rate for cases with localised disease treated with other regimens (orchiectomy and/or radiotherapy) was 63.6% (P < 0.05). Median relapse-free survival was 28 and 14 months, respectively. Overall 5-year survival for all cases was 17%. Adverse prognostic factors at the univariate level were stage IV, constitutional symptoms, serum lactic dehydrogenase elevation and performance score (WHO 3-4). It is suggested that the treatment of stage IE/IIE TL should include early CCT and CNS prophylaxis.

Vascular compression of the eighth cranial nerve as a cause of vertigo.

Some patients have vertigo that is more or less constant, associated with varying degrees of nausea, and only relieved by bedrest. This disorder, named disabling positional vertigo (DPV), was found to be caused by a blood vessel or vessels compressing the eighth cranial nerve in its intracranial portion, and it can be relieved by microvascular decompression (MVD) of the nerve. Important in the differential diagnosis of DPV are a detailed history, the results of audiometry (10 to 15 dB interaural threshold difference or a small mid-frequency notch), acoustic middle ear reflex response testing (may be abnormal), and recordings of brainstem auditory evoked potentials (BAEP). BAEP in such cases show increased conduction time in the auditory nerve and/or prolonged latency of wave V recorded from the contralateral ear, possibly the result of brainstem compression. Abnormalities on vestibular testing often do not reflect the severity of the illness. Forty-one patients who underwent MVD to treat DPV in one year at the author's institution have been followed for 4.5 to 5.5 years. By self-evaluation, 20 had excellent and 10 good results of the operation. The success of this procedure is even higher today, since it was found that very small blood vessels, including veins, can cause DPV; thus all vessels touching the nerve are now managed. Complications of MVD are rare. The most frequent, hearing loss, occurred in only one patient in this series.

Cyclin D3 expression in non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Correlation with other cell cycle regulators and clinical features.

Cyclin D3 is the most widely expressed D-type cyclin and can be rate limiting for G1/S transition. To study the expression of cyclin D3 in non-Hodgkin lymphoma, samples from 198 previously untreated patients with lymphoma from a prospectively collected, population-based lymphoma registry were analyzed immunohistochemically for cyclin D3 expression. In 43 lymphomas (21.7%), cyclin D3 was overexpressed. T-cell lymphomas more frequently overexpressed cyclin D3 than B-cell lymphomas. Furthermore, cyclin D3-overexpressing indolent lymphomas were associated with higher proliferation rate, higher p21Waf1 expression, lower p27Kip1 expression, and altered p53. Cyclin D3 overexpression identified a subgroup of patients with indolent B-cell lymphoma with adverse clinical features: patients were older, more frequently had "B" symptoms and extranodal involvement, and were more frequently in the high-intermediate or high-risk International Prognostic Index groups. At univariate analysis of indolent lymphomas, cyclin D3 overexpression was associated significantly with poor overall survival and poor relapse-free survival. The statistical significance was retained on multivariate analysis of overall survival and relapse-free survival. Our results suggest that cyclin D3 is expressed differentially among lymphoma subtypes and that overexpression might identify a subpopulation of patients with indolent lymphoma with adverse clinical features and poor outcome.

P27 in cell cycle control and cancer.

In order to survive, cells need tight control of cell cycle progression. The control mechanisms are often lost in human cancer cells. The cell cycle is driven forward by cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). The CDK inhibitors (CKIs) are important regulators of the CDKs. As the name implies, CKIs were initially shown to negatively regulate CDK activity. However, recent data indicates that the members of the Kip/Cip family of CKIs, including p27, exert both positive and negative regulation of CDK activity at the G1/S phase transition. Mutations of Kip/Cip genes are rare, but p27 knockout mice are tumor prone when challenged with carcinogenic stimuli. Numerous studies of various human non-hematological tumors have identified low expression of p27 as a predictor of poor prognosis. In non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL), we and others have also shown the independent prognostic value of p27 expression. In distinct NHL entities however, shortened survival seems to correlate with high expression of p27. For definitive assessment of the role played by p27 in lymphomagenesis, and the prognostic value of p27 in these tumors, further studies of distinct NHL entities are needed. This review addresses the function of p27 and the other Kip/Cip proteins in G1/S phase transition and their possible role in tumorigenesis with emphasis on p27 and NHL.

Does intraoperative monitoring of auditory evoked potentials reduce incidence of hearing loss as a complication of microvascular decompression of cranial nerves?

During a 14-month period, 129 individuals underwent 140 operations for microvascular decompression to relieve hemifacial spasm, disabling positional vertigo, tinnitus, or trigeminal neuralgia at our institution. Seven patients were operated upon twice on the same side and 4 were operated upon on both sides at different times. In each case, the brainstem auditory evoked potentials were monitored intraoperatively by the same neurophysiologist. In 75 of these operations, compound action potentials were also recorded from the exposed 8th nerve. Comparison of speech discrimination scores before the operation and at the time of discharge showed that at discharge, discrimination had decreased in 7 patients by 15% or more and increased in 4 patients by 15% or more, in 2 patients by as much as 52%. Essentially similar results were obtained when preoperative speech discrimination scores were compared with results obtained from the 87 patients who returned for a follow-up visit between 3 and 6 months after discharge. Only one patient lost hearing (during a second operation to relieve hemifacial spasm). Another patient (also operated upon to relieve hemifacial spasm) suffered noticeable hearing loss postoperatively, but had recovered nearly normal hearing by 4 months after the operation. Nine patients had an average elevation of the hearing threshold for pure tones in the speech frequency range (500 to 2000 Hz) of 11 dB or more at 4 to 5 days after the operation; 8 of these had fluid in their middle ears that most likely contributed to the hearing loss. Threshold elevations occurred at 4000 Hz and 8000 Hz in 19 and 29 ears, respectively.

Audiological evaluation.

This chapter describes the basic audiological tests used in otoneurological evaluation. The interpretation of pure tone and speech audiometry in the discrimination of specific disorders caused by lesions in the middle ear, cochlea, or auditory nervous system is described. The value of the acoustic middle ear reflex and brainstem auditory evoked potentials in the differential diagnosis of disorders affecting the cochlea and auditory nervous system is discussed.