Progression-free survival at 24 months (PFS24) and subsequent outcome for patients with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) enrolled on randomized clinical trials.

Background: Patients with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma treated with first-line anthracycline-based immunochemotherapy and remaining in remission at 2 years have excellent outcomes. This study assessed overall survival (OS) stratified by progression-free survival (PFS) at 24 months (PFS24) using individual patient data from patients with DLBCL enrolled in multi-center, international randomized clinical trials as part of the Surrogate Endpoint for Aggressive Lymphoma (SEAL) Collaboration. Patients and methods: PFS24 was defined as being alive and PFS24 after study entry. OS from PFS24 was defined as time from identified PFS24 status until death due to any cause. OS was compared with each patient's age-, sex-, and country-matched general population using expected survival and standardized mortality ratios (SMRs). Results: A total of 5853 patients enrolled in trials in the SEAL database received rituximab as part of induction therapy and were included in this analysis. The median age was 62 years (range 18-92), and 56% were greater than 60 years of age. At a median follow-up of 4.4 years, 1337 patients (23%) had disease progression, 1489 (25%) had died, and 5101 had sufficient follow-up to evaluate PFS24. A total of 1423 assessable patients failed to achieve PFS24 with a median OS of 7.2 months (95% CI 6.8-8.1) after progression; 5-year OS after progression was 19% and SMR was 32.1 (95% CI 30.0-34.4). A total of 3678 patients achieved PFS24; SMR after achieving PFS24 was 1.22 (95% CI 1.09-1.37). The observed OS versus expected OS at 3, 5, and 7 years after achieving PFS24 was 93.1% versus 94.4%, 87.6% versus 89.5%, and 80.0% versus 83.7%, respectively. Conclusion: Patients treated with rituximab containing anthracycline-based immunochemotherapy on clinical trials who are alive without progression at 24 months from the onset of initial therapy have excellent outcomes with survival that is marginally lower but clinically indistinguishable from the age-, sex-, and country-matched background population for 7 years after achieving PFS24.

Extended follow-up and impact of high-risk prognostic factors from the phase 3 RESONATE study in patients with previously treated CLL/SLL.

In the phase 3 RESONATE study, ibrutinib demonstrated superior progression-free survival (PFS), overall survival (OS) and overall response rate (ORR) compared with ofatumumab in relapsed/refractory CLL patients with high-risk prognostic factors. We report updated results from RESONATE in these traditionally chemotherapy resistant high-risk genomic subgroups at a median follow-up of 19 months. Mutations were detected by Foundation One Heme Panel. Baseline mutations in the ibrutinib arm included TP53 (51%), SF3B1 (31%), NOTCH1 (28%), ATM (19%) and BIRC3 (14%). Median PFS was not reached, with 74% of patients randomized to ibrutinib alive and progression-free at 24 months. The improved efficacy of ibrutinib vs ofatumumab continues in all prognostic subgroups including del17p and del11q. No significant difference within the ibrutinib arm was observed for PFS across most genomic subtypes, although a subset carrying both TP53 mutation and del17p had reduced PFS compared with patients with neither abnormality. Reduced PFS or OS was not evident in patients with only del17p. PFS was significantly better for ibrutinib-treated patients in second-line vs later lines of therapy. The robust clinical activity of ibrutinib continues to show ongoing efficacy and acceptable safety consistent with prior reports, independent of various known high-risk mutations.

BTK inhibition is a potent approach to block IgE-mediated histamine release in human basophils.

BACKGROUND: Recent data suggest that Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) is an emerging therapeutic target in IgE receptor (IgER)-cross-linked basophils. METHODS: We examined the effects of four BTK inhibitors (ibrutinib, dasatinib, AVL-292, and CNX-774) on IgE-dependent activation and histamine release in blood basophils obtained from allergic patients (n=11) and nonallergic donors (n=5). In addition, we examined the effects of these drugs on the growth of the human basophil cell line KU812 and the human mast cell line HMC-1. RESULTS: All four BTK blockers were found to inhibit anti-IgE-induced histamine release from basophils in nonallergic subjects and allergen-induced histamine liberation from basophils in allergic donors. Drug effects on allergen-induced histamine release were dose dependent, with IC50 values ranging between 0.001 and 0.5 µmol/L, and the following rank order of potency: ibrutinib>AVL-292>dasatinib>CNX-774. The basophil-targeting effect of ibrutinib was confirmed by demonstrating that IgE-dependent histamine release in ex vivo blood basophils is largely suppressed in a leukemia patient treated with ibrutinib. Dasatinib and ibrutinib were also found to counteract anti-IgE-induced and allergen-induced upregulation of CD13, CD63, CD164, and CD203c on basophils, whereas AVL-292 and CNX-774 showed no significant effects. Whereas dasatinib and CNX-774 were found to inhibit the growth of HMC-1 cells and KU812 cells, no substantial effects were seen with ibrutinib or AVL-292. CONCLUSIONS: BTK-targeting drugs are potent inhibitors of IgE-dependent histamine release in human basophils. The clinical value of BTK inhibition in the context of allergic diseases remains to be determined.

Ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation for monitoring of bleeding tendency in CLL treated with ibrutinib.

Bleeding because of impaired platelet function is a major side effect of the Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) inhibitor ibrutinib. We quantitatively assessed ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation (RIPA) in 64 patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) under ibrutinib at 287 time points. Eighty-seven bleeding episodes in 39 patients were registered (85 Common Toxicity Criteria (CTC) grade 1 or 2, 2 CTC grade 3) during a median observation period of 10.9 months. At times of bleeding, RIPA values were significantly lower (14 vs 28 U; P<0.0001). RIPA was impaired in patients receiving concomitant antiplatelet therapy or anticoagulation (14 vs 25 U, P=0.005). A gradual decline of median RIPA values was observed with increasing bleeding severity. Importantly, no CTC grade 2 or 3 bleeding were observed with RIPA values of >36 U. Sequential monitoring indicated a decrease of RIPA values from a median of 17 to 9 U within 2 weeks after initiation of treatment as well as an increase above the critical threshold of 36 U within 7 days when ibrutinib was paused. Low RIPA values were similar during treatment with another BTK inhibitor, CC292. Quantitative assessment of platelet function is a practical tool to monitor bleeding tendency under BTK-inhibitor therapy.

High platelet count associated with venous thromboembolism in cancer patients: results from the Vienna Cancer and Thrombosis Study (CATS).

BACKGROUND: In cancer patients, laboratory parameters that predict venous thromboembolism (VTE) are scarce. Increased platelet count has been found to be a risk factor for VTE in cancer patients receiving chemotherapy (CHT). We have assessed high platelet count as a risk predictor for VTE in patients with cancer undergoing discriminative anti-cancer treatments and investigated whether platelet count correlates with thrombopoietin (TPO) levels. DESIGN AND METHODS: The Cancer and Thrombosis Study (CATS) is an ongoing prospective observational study of patients with newly diagnosed cancer or progression of disease, which started in October 2003. Occurrence of VTE and information on the patients' anti-cancer treatment during follow-up were recorded. RESULTS: Between October 2003 and February 2008, 665 patients with solid tumors were included (314 female/351 male, mean age 62 years). VTE occurred in 44 patients (18 female/26 male, mean age 62 years). The cumulative probability of VTE after 1 year was 34.3% in patients with a platelet count (PC) above the 95th percentile representing 443 x 10(9)/L compared with 5.9% in those below 443 x 10(9)/L. High platelet count [hazard ratio (HR): 3.50, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.52-8.06, P = 0.0032], soluble P-selectin [HR: 2.66, 95% CI: 1.42-4.96, P = 0.0021] and surgery [HR: 4.05, 95% CI: 1.74-9.46, P = 0.0012] were statistically significant risk factors for VTE in multivariable analysis along with leucocyte count, age, gender, radio- and CHT. We found no correlation between platelet count and TPO levels. CONCLUSIONS: High PC is a clinically important, independent risk predictor for VTE in cancer patients. PC was not found to be associated with TPO levels.

Gene expression signature of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia with Trisomy 12.

BACKGROUND: The prognosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) patients is largely determined by the karyotype of the malignant clone. We have investigated the gene expression profile associated with trisomy 12 (+12). DESIGN: Initially, unselected peripheral blood mononuclear cells of four patients with +12 were compared with 16 CLL controls using microarray analysis. RESULTS: were validated by quantitative real-time PCR with RNA from 61 patients (29 with +12, 32 CLL controls). Results Seven genes showing the strongest correlation with +12 in microarray analysis were selected for real-time PCR: HIP1R, MYF6, SLC2A6, CD9 (overexpressed); CD200, P2RY14, RASGRP3 (underexpressed). Four genes were significantly associated with +12: HIP1R (P<0.0001), MYF6 (P=0.007), P2RY14 (P=0.014), CD200 (P=0.028). Receiver Operating Characteristic curve analysis revealed that HIP1R expression was a highly sensitive and specific marker for +12 in CLL patients. MYF6 was exclusively expressed in normal or malignant B cells in peripheral blood but was poorly predictive for +12. As expected, a number of overexpressed genes are located on chromosome 12 (HIP1R, MYF6). Interestingly, both significantly underexpressed genes (P2RY14, CD200) reside on the long arm of chromosome 3 pointing to trans-repression in this region. CONCLUSIONS: Analysis of the molecular signature of trisomy 12 in CLL resulted in: (i) identification of a surrogate marker for PCR (HIP1R); (ii) observation of a gene dosage effect; and (iii) detection of specific underexpression of genes located on chromosome 3. These results should help to improve diagnosis and treatment decisions for patients with CLL and trisomy 12.

Influence of rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisone on serologic parameters and clinical course in lymphoma patients with autoimmune diseases.

BACKGROUND: As patients with B-cell lymphomas suffering from an underlying autoimmune condition undergoing therapy with the CD20 antibody rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisone (R-CHOP) offer the unique possibility of monitoring effects of therapy on various rheumatologic parameters, we have evaluated serologic autoimmune markers and the clinical outcome of patients with autoimmune diseases (ADs) who received lymphoma treatment with R-CHOP during the course of their disease. PATIENTS AND METHODS: We have retrospectively analysed 13 patients with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who concurrently suffered from ADs and were treated with the R-CHOP regimen. Subjective parameters along with rheumatoid factor (RF) and antinuclear antibodies (ANA) were serially measured. RESULTS: The median levels of RF were 901 IU/ml [inter-quartile-range (IQR) 189-2520] before and 75 IU/ml (IQR 45-644) after therapy (P = 0.028). The median levels of ANA were 800 (IQR 140-2560) before and 100 (40-1280) after therapy (P = 0.027). Ten (77%) patients showed clinical improvement of their autoimmune symptoms, two (15%) reported no difference and one (7%) patient with rheumatoid arthritis-related worsening symptoms during therapy with R-CHOP. The autoimmune-related symptoms recurred after a median time of 7 weeks (IQR 6-8) in seven patients. In terms of lymphoma response, 11 patients achieved a complete remission and two a partial remission. CONCLUSIONS: This analysis indicates that R-CHOP given for lymphoma treatment is also effective for therapy of concurrent rheumatoid diseases. Both rheumatoid parameters as well as clinical symptoms showed a significant decrease during treatment with this immunochemotherapy. The effects on the rheumatic diseases, however, seem to be of limited duration.

Consensus statement on the use of rituximab in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

A large number of experts experienced in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis were involved in formulating a consensus statement on the use of B cell-targeted treatment with rituximab in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The statement was supported by data from randomised controlled clinical trials and the substantial literature on oncology. The statement underwent three rounds of discussions until its ultimate formulation. It should guide clinicians in the use of this newly approved biological agent in treating patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

Mesenchymal stem cells in patients with chronic myelogenous leukaemia or bi-phenotypic Ph+ acute leukaemia are not related to the leukaemic clone.

BACKGROUND: Human mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) are thought to be multipotent cells which primarily reside in the bone marrow. Besides their well-known ability to replicate as undifferentiated cells and to differentiate into diverse lineages of mesenchymal tissues, they were recently suggested to also give rise to haematopoietic and leukaemic/cancer stem cells. In this study, the relationship between MSCs and leukemic stem cells in patients with either chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML) or the more primitive variant, Ph+ bi-phenotypic leukaemia was investigated. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Cultured MSCs from 5 patients with CML and 3 patients with bi-phenotypic Ph+ leukaemia, all of them positive for BCP-ABL, were analysed with conventional cytogenetics, fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for the presence of t(9;22) and BCR-ABL. MSCs were characterised phenotypically with surface markers (+CD73, +CD90, +CD105, -CD34, -CD45) and functionally through their potential to differentiate into both adipocytes and osteoblasts. RESULTS: MSCs could be cultivated from seven patients. These cells were BCR-ABL negative when analysed with conventional cytogenetics and FISH. Further cytogenetic analysis revealed a normal set of chromosomes without any aberrations. Two patients were BCR-ABL-positive when analysed with PCR, probably as a result of MSC contamination with macrophages. CONCLUSION: MSCs in patients with CML or Ph+ bi-phenotypic leukaemia are not related to the malignant cell clone.

[Technical limits of PET/CT with 18FDG in prostate cancer]. / Technische Grenzen des PET/CT mit 18FDG beim Adenokarzinom der Prostata.

There is increasing evidence that (18)FDG-PET is not useful for the imaging of primary prostate cancer. The aim of this examination was to prove whether or not these poor results are due to technical deficiencies of the examination method like older image reconstruction techniques, extensive (18)FDG-tracer activity in the bladder or improper contrast staining of the rectum. We examined three patients with primary prostate cancer using a modern combined PET/CT system, continuous irrigation of the bladder and an air-inflated rectal balloon catheter. PET/CT images show an exact depiction of both the prostate and all surrounding anatomic structures but no enhanced uptake of radiotracer in the tumour. Therefore, the mentioned poor results of (18)FDG-PET seem not to be due to technical deficiencies.

18F-fluoro-deoxy-glucose positron emission tomography (18F-FDG-PET) visualizes follicular lymphoma irrespective of grading.

BACKGROUND: 18F-fluoro-deoxy-glucose positron emission tomography (18F-FDG-PET) has become a routine measure for staging and follow-up of patients with aggressive lymphoma. By contrast, its usefulness to visualize indolent lymphomas characterized by a lower cellular turnover has not clearly been defined. We have investigated accuracy and clinical usefulness of 18F-FDG-PET in patients with follicular lymphoma (FL). PATIENTS AND METHODS: A total of 64 patients with FL WHO grade I - III (48, 5, and 11 patients) were imaged at our institution to assess the value of 18F-FDG-PET for imaging of FL of different gradings. A total of 115 scans (48 before therapy and 67 for response assessment after treatment) were performed, and findings were compared to conventional staging including CT-scan of thorax and abdomen, sonography of lymph nodes and bone marrow biopsy. RESULTS: Overall, 18F-FDG-PET had a sensitivity of 98%, a specificity of 94%, a positive predictive value of 95% and a negative predictive value of 98%. These results were significantly more accurate (P = 0.023) than the conventional radiology studies. There was no significant difference (P = 0.093) in the accuracy between patients with indolent (WHO grade I and II) versus aggressive FL (WHO grade III). CONCLUSION: 18F-FDG-PET scan is a reliable method for staging and follow up of patients with nodal FL irrespective of tumor grading.

[Combined FDG PET/CT imaging for restaging of colorectal cancer patients: impact of image fusion on staging accuracy]. / PET-CT in der Nachsorge des kolorektalen Karzinoms: Einfluss der Bildfusion auf die Staginggenauigkeit.

PURPOSE: To evaluate the diagnostic impact of positron emission tomography (PET) with fluorine-18-labeled deoxy-D-glucose (FDG) combined with non-contrast computed tomography (CT) as PET-CT modality in restaging colorectal cancer patients. MATERIAL AND METHODS: In this retrospective study, 29 consecutive patients with histologically proven colorectal cancer (17 female, 12 male, aged 51-76 years) underwent whole body scans in one session on a dual modality PET-CT system (Siemens Biograph) 90 min. after i.v. administration of 370 MBq 18F-FDG. The CT imaging was performed with 40 mAs, 130 kV, slice-thickness 5 mm and without i.v. contrast administration. PET and CT images were reconstructed with a slice-thickness of 5 mm in coronal, sagittal and transverse planes. During a first step of analysis, PET and CT images were scored blinded and independently by a group of two nuclear medicine physicians and a group of two radiologists, respectively. For this purpose, a five-point-scale was used. The second step of data-analysis consisted of a consensus reading by both groups. During the consensus reading, first a virtual (meaning mental) fusion of PET and CT images and afterwards the "real" fusion (meaning coregistered) PET-CT images were also scored with the same scale. The imaging results were compared with histopathology findings and the course of disease during further follow-up. RESULTS: The total number of malignant lesions detected with the combined PET/CT were 86. For FDG-PET alone it was n = 68, and for CT alone n = 65. Comparing PET-CT and PET, concordance was found in 81 of 104 lesions. Discrepancies predominantly occurred in the lung, where PET alone often showed true positive results in lymph nodes and soft tissue masses, where CT often was false negative. Comparing mental fusion and "real" co-registered images, concordance was found in 94 of 104 lesions. In 13 lesions or, respectively, in 7 of 29 patients, a relevant information was gathered using fused images. CONCLUSION: Combined PET/CT leads to greater accuracy in the interpretation of data and is a valuable tool for diagnosis and anatomic localization of metastases in colorectal cancer patients.

[PET/CT imaging in head and neck tumors]. / PET-CT-Bildgebung bei Kopf-Hals-Tumoren.

AIM: To evaluate the usefulness of combined PET/CT examinations for detection of malignant tumors and their metastases in head and neck oncology. METHODS: 51 patients received whole body scans on a dual modality PET/CT system. CT was performed without i.v. contrast. The results were compared concerning the diagnostic impact of native CT scan on FDG-PET images and the additional value of fused imaging. RESULTS: From 153 lesions were 97 classified as malignant on CT and 136 on FDG/PET images, as suspicious for malignancy in 33 on CT and 7 on FDG-PET and as benign in 23 on CT and 10 on FDG-PET. With combined PET/CT all primary and recurrent tumors could be found, the detection rate in patients with unknown primary tumors was 45%. Compared to PET or CT alone the sensitivity, specifity and accuracy could be significantly improved by means of combined PET/CT. CONCLUSION: Fused PET/CT imaging with [F18]-FDG and native CT-scanning enables accurate diagnosis in 93% of lesions and 90% of patients with head and neck oncology.

Prognostic significance of molecular staging by PCR-amplification of immunoglobulin gene rearrangements in diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL).

The prognostic value of the detection of peripheral blood (PB) and/or bone marrow (BM) involvement by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplification of rearranged immunoglobulin heavy chain (IgH) and immunoglobulin kappa light chain (Igkappa) genes was evaluated in 155 patients with diffuse large B-cell lymphomas (DLBCL). Immunoglobulin gene rearrangements (IgR) were detected in 35/155 (23%) patients. The presence of IgR in PB/BM was related to clinical stage (CS I-III vs CS IV; P<0.001), histopathological detection of BM involvement (P<0.001), and the International Prognostic Index (P<0.001). IgR-positive cases had a significantly lower complete remission (CR) rate (18/35, 51%) than IgR-negative patients (85/120, 71%; P=0.042), and a significantly poorer overall survival (OAS) at 5 years (25 vs 66%; P<0.001). There was a significant difference in the estimated OAS at 5 years between patients with negative BM histology and negative PCR results (66%), patients with negative BM histology but positive IgR (37%), and patients with positive BM histology (12%). Our results indicate that molecular methods improve the accuracy of staging in patients with DLBCL and define a group of patients with normal bone marrow histology who have a significantly poorer OAS due to molecular detection of PB/BM involvement.

Diffuse large B-cell lymphomas with plasmablastic/plasmacytoid features are associated with TP53 deletions and poor clinical outcome.

To define reproducible criteria for subgroups of diffuse large B-cell lymphomas (DLBCL), including lymphomas with plasmablastic/plasmacytoid features (PB/PC-Fs), we investigated 66 DLBCL; the samples were categorized as either centroblastic (CB), immunoblastic (IB) or PB/PC-F applying standardized morphologic criteria. Blinded specimens were reviewed by three independent pathologists. The final consensus classification included 44 CB (67%), seven IB (10%) and 15 PB/PC-F (23%). The interobserver agreement between two centers (Vienna, Würzburg) was 93.5%. Most PB/PC-F were CD20+, cIgM+, MUM-1+, CD138+/-, bcl-6-, corresponding to an activated B-cell phenotype. Immunoglobulin-V(H) gene mutation analysis was consistent with a germinal or postgerminal center-cell origin. By fluorescence in situ hybridization analysis, 11/13 (85%) PB/PC-F had a monoallelic TP53 deletion. The pretreatment characteristics of patients with PB/PC-F included a tendency for more B symptoms, extranodal disease and a higher IPI. Importantly, PB/PC-F were resistant to standard chemotherapy (complete remission rate 47%, relapse rate 71%) and even autologous stem-cell transplantation. The median overall survival (OS) (14 months, P<0.002) and disease-free survival (6 months, P=0.02) were significantly shorter compared to patients with CB and IB. The OS difference was pronounced within the low and low-intermediate IPI risk group (P<0.001). Our data indicate a strong association of plasmablastic/plasmacytoid morphology with TP53 deletions, poor response to chemotherapy and short survival.

Prognostic value of FDG-PET in malignant lymphoma.

Lymphomas have represented an indication for nuclear medicine investigations for 30 years. Gallium-67 scintigraphy has been shown to be a valuable complementary method in Hodgkin's disease and non-Hodgkin lymphoma for detecting viable residual lesions after chemotherapy and for diagnosis of a relapse. Thallium-201 is of interest in differentiating cerebral lymphomas from infectious lesions in AIDS patients but less useful in extra-cerebral lymphomas. PET with fluorine-18-FDG is more accurate than 67Ga in lymphoma. In patients with a positive PET scan after chemotherapy an early relapse occurs in up to 100%, while more than 80% of patients with a negative PET will have a long-term remission. Most studies show that FDG-PET is significantly correlated with patient outcome whereas there is much weaker or even no correlation for CT. The main reason is that PET is not bound to morphological criteria like lymph node size while CT is often not able to differentiate between residual tumour and post-therapeutic fibrosis. Therefore, based on a considerable number of clinical studies, FDG-PET gains increasing significance for staging, restaging and therapy monitoring in malignant lymphomas.

Monitoring minimal residual disease in AML: the right time for real time.

Detection of minimal residual disease (MRD) by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has become an essential tool for molecular monitoring of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Currently, specific translocation markers are available for 40-50% of AMLs. Expression markers may widen this spectrum to 70-90%. Quantitative PCR (Q-PCR, real-time PCR) is now as sensitive as conventional two-step PCR and could improve as well as facilitate clinical decision-making. Q-PCR has been applied to a variety of molecular markers, delineating threshold levels early after induction therapy, for postinduction monitoring, as well as for the detection of relapse. For most markers, lack of decline of transcript levels by less than 2 logs after chemotherapy has been established as a poor prognostic sign. Moreover, increases in transcript levels are almost invariably associated with relapse. However, the predictive value of PCR negativity after chemotherapy is not as clear. The major tasks for the future will be standardization of Q-PCR techniques, exact definition of threshold levels, and monitoring schedules in bone marrow (BM) and peripheral blood (PB), as well as investigation of novel markers found by microarray analysis.

Analysis of SH2D1A mutations in patients with severe Epstein-Barr virus infections, Burkitt's lymphoma, and Hodgkin's lymphoma.

Mutations or deletions in the SH2D1A (src homology 2 domain protein 1A) gene result in a severe immunodeficiency called X-linked lymphoproliferative (XLP) disease. XLP is primarily characterized by a defective immune response against the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), resulting in an unusually severe and often fatal clinical course following EBV infection. The second major cause of death is the development of B cell lymphomas, both in EBV-infected and EBV-negative patients. To study whether the clinical manifestation of XLP gene defects and/or polymorphisms extends beyond the classically recognized phenotype, we analyzed patients for the presence of SH2D1A gene alterations who presented with fatal or nonfatal, yet unusually severe or chronic EBV infections, and other possibly EBV-associated diseases, such as Hodgkin's lymphomas or nonendemic Burkitt's lymphomas and Burkitt-type leukemias. We identified mutations of the SH2D1A gene only in the majority of patients presenting with fatal mononucleosis or an XLP family history, but not in any of the other patients studied. The only alteration determined was a polymorphism in the 5' region of the SH2D1A gene both in patient groups as well as in controls.

[Butterfly vertebrae and scoliosis: Alagille syndrome]. / Schmetterlingswirbel und Skoliose: Das Alagille-Syndrom.

INTRODUCTION: Alagille syndrome is a dominantly inherited disorder affecting the liver (arteriohepatic dysplasia), the heart, the eyes and the face. Butterfly vertebrae in the thoracic and lumbar spine are detectable in 50 to 80 per cent of the patients; most of them remain asymptomatic. The management of progressive cholestasis in early childhood is the main aspect of therapy. CASE: A 14-year-old female patient with Alagille syndrome was referred to our hospital for examination of a right thoracic scoliosis. Magnetic resonance imaging verified butterfly deformity in thoracic vertebrae 2, 4, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, and lumbar vertebra 3. Asymmetries of thoracic vertebrae 6, 8 and especially, 7 were responsible for the scoliosis. CONCLUSION: The highly variable expression of these typical characteristics in mildly affected patients can cause some difficulties. When diagnosing a scoliosis with asymmetric butterfly vertebrae, an Alagille syndrome should be considered, especially if the patient shows a liver dysfunction.