Predictors of favorable quality of life outcome following kyphoplasty and vertebroplasty.

OBJECTIVE: In 2009, 2 randomized controlled trials demonstrated no improvement in pain following vertebral augmentation compared with sham surgery. However, a recent randomized trial demonstrated significant pain relief in patients following vertebroplasty compared to controls treated with conservative medical management. This study is a retrospective review of prospectively collected patient-reported quality of life (QOL) outcomes. The authors hypothesized that vertebral augmentation procedures offer a QOL benefit, but that this benefit would be diminished in patients with a history of depression and/or in patients undergoing vertebral augmentation at more than 1 level. METHODS: Multivariable linear regression was used to identify predictors of postoperative pain assessed using the Pain Disability Questionnaire (PDQ), Patient Health Questionnaire 9 (PHQ-9), and EQ-5D scores. Eleven candidate predictors were selected a priori: age, sex, smoking history, coronary artery disease, depression, diabetes, procedure location (thoracic, lumbar), BMI, prior spine surgery, procedure indication (metastases, osteoporosis/osteopenia, other), and number of levels (1, 2, 3, or more). RESULTS: A total of 143 patients were included in the study. For each 10-year increase in age, postoperative PDQ scores decreased (improved) by 9.7 points (p < 0.001). Patients with osteoporosis/osteopenia had significantly higher (worse) postoperative PDQ scores (+17.97, p = 0.028) than patients with metastatic lesions. Male sex was associated with higher (worse) postoperative PHQ-9 scores (+2.48, p = 0.010). Compared to single-level augmentation, operations at 2 levels were associated with significantly higher PHQ-9 scores (+2.58, p = 0.017). Current smokers had significantly lower PHQ-9 scores (-1.98, p = 0.023) than never smokers. No predictors were associated with significantly different EQ-5D score. CONCLUSIONS: Variables associated with worse postoperative PDQ scores included younger age and osteoporosis/osteopenia. Variables associated with decreased (better) postoperative PHQ-9 scores included female sex, single operative vertebral level, and positive smoking status (i.e., current smoker). These clinically relevant predictors may permit identification of patients who may benefit from vertebral augmentation.

The Prevalence of Adverse Ocular Hemorrhagic Events in Patients Utilizing Oral Anticoagulant and Antiplatelet Therapy in Routine Clinical Practice.

BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVE: Previous literature assessing ocular hemorrhagic complications of anticoagulant/antiplatelet medications in routine clinical practice is limited. This study evaluates the prevalence of spontaneous ocular hemorrhagic events associated with anticoagulation/antiplatelet therapy. PATIENTS AND METHODS: A retrospective study was performed to identify patients taking anticoagulants (rivaroxaban [Xarelto; Janssen Pharmaceuticals, Beerse, Belgium], bivalirudin [Angiomax; The Medicines Company, Parsippany, NJ], lepirudin [Refludan; Bayer HealthCare Pharmaceuticals, Berlin, Germany], dabigatran [Pradaxa; Boehringer Ingelheim, Ingelheim am Rhein, Germany], and argatroban) and antiplatelet agents (clopidogrel [Plavix; Bristol-Myers Squibb, New York City, NY], prasugrel [Effient; Lilly Medical, Indianapolis, IN], and ticagrelor [Brilinta; AstraZeneca, Cambridge, UK]) who presented for an eye examination. Location of hemorrhage, relevant systemic and ocular comorbidities, baseline demographics, and concomitant aspirin use were noted. RESULTS: A total of 44 patients with spontaneous ocular hemorrhage were identified. Thirty patients had a single episode, whereas 14 patients had multiple episodes (two or more hemorrhagic events). Prevalence of spontaneous ocular hemorrhage on prasugrel (7.2%) and rivaroxaban (3.1%) was higher compared to dabigatran (1.9%), clopidogrel (2.0%), and ticagrelor (2.7%). CONCLUSION: Prevalence of spontaneous ocular hemorrhage with use of anticoagulant/antiplatelet agents is higher in routine clinical practice as compared to previously reported literature. [Ophthalmic Surg Lasers Imaging Retina. 2018;49:27-34.].

Type II Toxoplasma gondii induction of CD40 on infected macrophages enhances interleukin-12 responses.

Toxoplasma gondii is an obligate intracellular parasite that can cause severe neurological disease in infected humans. CD40 is a receptor on macrophages that plays a critical role in controlling T. gondii infection. We examined the regulation of CD40 on the surface of T. gondii-infected bone marrow-derived macrophages (BMdMs). T. gondii induced CD40 expression both at the transcript level and on the cell surface, and interestingly, the effect was parasite strain specific: CD40 levels were dramatically increased in type II T. gondii-infected BMdMs compared to type I- or type III-infected cells. Type II induction of CD40 was specific to cells harboring intracellular parasites and detectable as early as 6 h postinfection (hpi) at the transcript level. CD40 protein expression peaked at 18 hpi. Using forward genetics with progeny from a type II × type III cross, we found that CD40 induction mapped to a region of chromosome X that included the gene encoding the dense granule protein 15 (GRA15). Using type I parasites stably expressing the type II allele of GRA15 (GRA15II), we found that type I GRA15II parasites induced the expression of CD40 on infected cells in an NF-κB-dependent manner. In addition, stable expression of hemagglutinin-tagged GRA15II in THP-1 cells resulted in CD40 upregulation in the absence of infection. Since CD40 signaling contributes to interleukin-12 (IL-12) production, we examined IL-12 from infected macrophages and found that CD40L engagement of CD40 amplified the IL-12 response in type II-infected cells. These data indicate that GRA15II induction of CD40 promotes parasite immunity through the production of IL-12.