Cancer survivors' experiences of discharge from hospital follow-up.

Discharge from hospital follow-up is a key time point in the cancer journey. With recommendations for earlier discharge of cancer survivors, attention to the discharge process is likely to become increasingly important. This study explored cancer survivors' experiences of discharge from hospital follow-up. Survivors of breast, colorectal and prostate cancer (n= 1275), 5-16 years post diagnosis were approached to take part in a questionnaire survey. The questionnaire included questions about discharge status, provision of time/information prior to discharge, feelings at discharge and satisfaction with how discharge was managed. Completed questionnaires were returned by 659 survivors (51.7%). Approximately one-third of respondents were not discharged from follow-up 5-16 years post diagnosis. Of those discharged, a substantial minority reported insufficient time (27.9%), information (24.5-45.0%) or adverse emotions (30.9%) at the time of discharge. However, 90.6% of respondents reported satisfaction with how discharge from hospital follow-up was managed. Despite high levels of satisfaction, discharge of cancer survivors from hospital follow-up could be improved with the provision of additional time, information and support. Better structuring of the final hospital appointment or a review appointment in primary care at this time could help to ensure that discharge from hospital follow-up is managed optimally for cancer survivors.

Primary care endorsement letter and a patient leaflet to improve participation in colorectal cancer screening: results of a factorial randomised trial.

BACKGROUND: The trial aimed to investigate whether a general practitioner's (GP) letter encouraging participation and a more explicit leaflet explaining how to complete faecal occult blood test (FOBT) included with the England Bowel Cancer Screening Programme invitation materials would improve uptake. METHODS: A randomised controlled 2 × 2 factorial trial was conducted in the south of England. Overall, 1288 patients registered with 20 GPs invited for screening in October 2009 participated in the trial. Participants were randomised to either a GP's endorsement letter and/or an enhanced information leaflet with their FOBT kit. The primary outcome was verified with return of the test kit within 20 weeks. RESULTS: Both the GP's endorsement letter and the enhanced procedural leaflet, each increased participation by ∼6% - the GP's letter by 5.8% (95% CI: 4.1-7.8%) and the leaflet by 6.0% (95% CI: 4.3-8.1%). On the basis of the intention-to-treat analysis, the random effects logistic regression model confirmed that there was no important interaction between the two interventions, and estimated an adjusted rate ratio of 1.11 (P=0.038) for the GP's letter and 1.12 (P=0.029) for the leaflet. In the absence of an interaction, an additive effect for receiving both the GP's letter and leaflet (11.8%, 95% CI: 8.5-16%) was confirmed. The per-protocol analysis indicated that the insertion of an electronic GP's signature on the endorsement letter was associated with increased participation (P=0.039). CONCLUSION: Including both an endorsement letter from each patient's GP and a more explicit procedural leaflet could increase participation in the English Bowel Cancer Screening Programme by ∼10%, a relative improvement of 20% on current performance.

Impact of dermoscopy and short-term sequential digital dermoscopy imaging for the management of pigmented lesions in primary care: a sequential intervention trial.

BACKGROUND: Studies have shown the benign to malignant ratio of excised pigmented skin lesions is suboptimal in primary care. OBJECTIVES: To assess the impact of dermoscopy and short-term sequential digital dermoscopy imaging (SDDI) on the management of suspicious pigmented skin lesions by primary care physicians. METHODS: A total of 63 primary care physicians were trained in the use of dermoscopy and SDDI (interventions) and then recruited pigmented lesions requiring biopsy or referral in routine care by naked eye examination. They were then given a dermatoscope and the option of a SDDI instrument, and change of diagnosis and management was assessed. RESULTS: Following the use of the interventions on 374 lesions a total of 163 lesions (43.6%) were excised or referred, representing a reduction of 56.4%. Of the 323 lesions confirmed to be benign, 118 (36.5%) were excised or referred, leading to a reduction of 63.5% (P < 0.0005) in those requiring excision or referral. The baseline naked eye examination benign to melanoma ratio was 9.5 : 1 which decreased to 3.5 : 1 after the diagnostic interventions (P < 0.0005). Of the 42 malignant lesions included in the study (34 melanoma, six pigmented basal cell carcinoma and two Bowen disease) only one in situ melanoma was incorrectly managed (patient to return if changes occur) resulting in the correct management of 97.6% and 97.1% of malignant pigmented lesions and melanoma, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: In a primary care setting the combination of dermoscopy and short-term SDDI reduces the excision or referral of benign pigmented lesions by more than half while nearly doubling the sensitivity for the diagnosis of melanoma.

Prostate specific antigen: biology, biochemistry and available commercial assays.

Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is the marker of choice in the management of prostate cancer. However, PSA is not a simple molecule, existing in the serum in five isoforms and a number of molecular configurations and complexes. The elucidation of the biochemistry of PSA has increased the potential use of the marker in the diagnosis of prostate malignancy. This review summarizes the clinical use of PSA in the management of prostate disease and the assays available in the UK. Assay calibration in relation to the World Health Organization 1st International Standard for Prostate Specific Antigen (90:10) has increased conformity between the various commercial assay kits, and the non-equimolar kits have largely been superseded or withdrawn. Special reference is made to evaluations performed on behalf of the Medical Devices Agency of the Department of Health.

Association of adult coeliac disease with irritable bowel syndrome: a case-control study in patients fulfilling ROME II criteria referred to secondary care.

BACKGROUND: Irritable bowel syndrome has a high prevalence. Consensus diagnostic criteria (ROME II) based on symptoms have been established to aid diagnosis. Although coeliac disease can be misdiagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome, no prospective study has been published in which patients with this disorder are investigated for coeliac disease. We aimed to assess the association of coeliac disease with irritable bowel syndrome in patients fulfilling ROME II criteria. METHODS: We undertook a case-control study at a university hospital. 300 consecutive new patients who fulfilled Rome II criteria for irritable bowel syndrome, and 300 healthy controls (age and sex matched) were investigated for coeliac disease by analysis of serum IgA antigliadin, IgG antigliadin, and endomysial antibodies (EMA). Patients and controls with positive antibody results were offered duodenal biopsy to confirm the possibility of coeliac disease. FINDINGS: 66 patients with irritable bowel syndrome had positive antibody results, of whom 14 had coeliac disease (11 EMA positive, three EMA negative). Nine patients with positive antibody results were lost to follow-up or refused biopsy (only one EMA-positive patient refused biopsy), and 43 had normal duodenal mucosa. Two controls, both of whom were EMA positive, had coeliac disease. Compared with matched controls, irritable bowel syndrome was significantly associated with coeliac disease (p=0.004, odds ratio=7.0 [95% CI 1.7-28.0]). INTERPRETATION: Patients with irritable bowel syndrome referred to secondary care should be investigated routinely for coeliac disease. With only EMA, three of 14 cases would have been missed.

Saccharomyces cerevisiae lacking Snm1, Rev3 or Rad51 have a normal S-phase but arrest permanently in G2 after cisplatin treatment.

The role of Snm1, Rev3 and Rad51 in S-phase after cisplatin (CDDP) DNA treatment has been examined. When isogenic deletion mutants snm1 delta, rev3 delta and rad51 delta were arrested in G1 and treated with doses of CDDP causing significant lethality (<20% survival in the mutant strains), they progressed through S-phase with normal kinetics. The mutants arrested in G2 like wild-type cells, however they did not exit the arrest and reenter the cell cycle. This finding demonstrates that these genes are not required to allow DNA replication in the presence of damage. Therefore, Snm1, Rev3 and Rad51 may act after S to allow repair. At high levels of damage (<40% survival in wild-type cells) S-phase was slowed in a MEC1-dependent fashion. The cross-link incision kinetics of snm1 delta and rev3 delta mutants were also examined; both showed no deficiencies in incision of cross-linked DNA.

Association of chronic urinary symptoms in women and Ureaplasma urealyticum.

UNLABELLED: OBJECTIVES. To determine the incidence of Ureaplasma urealyticum in women experiencing chronic urinary symptoms and to determine whether antibiotic therapy targeting these organisms is effective. METHODS: Forty-eight consecutive women referred to our academic medical center for chronic voiding symptoms and possible interstitial cystitis underwent urologic evaluation, including culture screening for U. urealyticum and Mycoplasma hominis. Patients with positive cultures were treated with a 1-g dose of azithromycin; persistent infection was treated with 7 days of doxycycline, ofloxacin, or erythromycin. Patients reported symptom severity (0, mild; 3, severe) and voiding frequency before and 6 months after treatment. RESULTS: Positive cultures were obtained in 23 (48%) of 48 patients; 22 had U. urealyticum and 1 had M. hominis. All had negative cultures after treatment. The mean symptom severity score improved with treatment (2.2 to 0.7, P <0.001), and the mean urinary frequency decreased (9.2 daily to 6.8 daily, P <0.001). Two of the 23 patients experienced no improvement; one had detrusor instability and the other had medically related urinary frequency. Of the 25 patients with negative cultures, interstitial cystitis was established in only 9 (19% of the total sample). CONCLUSIONS: Although often overlooked or improperly treated, U. urealyticum and M. hominis infections may account for a large proportion of unexplained chronic voiding symptoms. Culture and treatment should be considered before pursuing more costly and invasive tests.

Hepatic iron accumulation over time in European starlings (Sturnus vulgaris) fed two levels of iron.

European starlings (Sturnus vulgaris) were used as a passerine bird model to examine the effect of dietary iron on the level of hepatic iron in birds. Nestling and fledgling starlings (n = 56) were raised on a controlled-iron diet. When birds maintained constant body weight, they were assigned in pairs to cages, and baseline sampling was performed. Pairs were then assigned to one of two diets: the controlled-iron diet (168 ppm, dry basis) or a high-iron diet (3,035 ppm, dry basis). Dry-matter intake and iron consumption were recorded. Dry-matter intake did not differ between the dietary treatment groups and was stable during treatment periods. Iron intake was higher in the high-iron group (P < 0.05). Birds were euthanized at baseline, 8 wk, and 16 wk. Body, liver, and spleen weights were measured. Hepatic iron and copper concentrations were determined. Body weight did not differ between the two treatment groups or among individuals for the study duration. Liver iron concentration differed over time and between treatment groups. Birds receiving both treatments had similar liver iron content at week 8 (3,107 +/- 228.6 ppm and 3,122 +/- 306.2 ppm high and controlled iron, respectively; P > 0.05), but by week 16, birds consuming the high-iron diet had greater hepatic iron levels than those consuming the controlled-iron diet (5,929 +/- 937.2 ppm and 3,683 +/- 229.5 ppm high and controlled iron, respectively; P < 0.05). Birds on the controlled-iron diet also had higher hepatic iron at 16 wk than at 8 wk. Liver copper decreased over time in all birds regardless of treatment. Results show that both dietary iron level and duration of time influenced hepatic iron storage. The controlled-iron diets still allowed accumulation of hepatic iron in an 8-wk period.

Mechanisms of apoptosis in T cells from patients with renal cell carcinoma.

Tumors may escape immune recognition and destruction through the induction of apoptosis in activated T lymphocytes. Results from several laboratories suggest that FasL (L/CD95L) expression in tumors may be responsible for this process. In this study of patients with renal cell carcinoma (RCC), we provide evidence for two mechanisms of T-cell apoptosis. One mechanism involves the induction of apoptosis via FasL expression in tumor cells. This is supported by several observations, including the fact that tumor cells in situ as well as cultured cell lines expressed FasL mRNA and protein by a variety of techniques. The FasL in RCC is functional because in coculture experiments, FasL+ tumors induced apoptosis in Fas-sensitive Jurkat T cells and in activated peripheral blood T cells but not in resting peripheral blood T cells. Most importantly, antibody to FasL partially blocked apoptosis of the activated T cells. Moreover, Fas was expressed by T cells derived from the peripheral blood (53% median) and tumor (44.3% median) of RCC patients. Finally, in situ staining for DNA breaks demonstrated apoptosis in a subset of T cells infiltrating renal tumors. These studies also identified a second mechanism of apoptosis in RCC patient peripheral T cells. Whereas these cells did not display DNA breaks when freshly isolated or after culture for 24 h in medium, peripheral blood T cells from RCC patients underwent activation-induced cell death after stimulation with either phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate/ionomycin or anti-CD3/CD28 antibodies. Apoptosis mediated by exposure to FasL in tumor cells or through T-cell activation may contribute to the failure of RCC patients to develop an effective T-cell-mediated antitumor response.

Epitope expression in nine commercial kits for the determination of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies.

Anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies, from patients with autoimmune disease, bind predominantly to two neighbouring, non-identical, conformational domains referred to as domains A and B. In recent years a number of ELISA assays have been developed for the detection of anti-TPO antibodies, however, considerable variation between the different commercial assay kits has been documented in inter-laboratory surveys (UK NEQAS). This investigation assessed the differences between nine commercial ELISA assays currently available in the UK. The anti-TPO kits varied in terms of their imprecision and accuracy and in the density of coated antigen. Recombinant antigen containing kits demonstrated partial destruction of the B epitope, possibly due to the close proximity of both epitope regions in the recombinant molecule. None of the kits expressed only one epitope although there were differences in the degrees of expression of each epitope. Clinicians should be aware of the variability of the numbers generated, when interpreting test results.

Chlamydia trachomatis infection mimicking testicular malignancy in a young man.

A young man with a low risk history for sexually transmitted diseases presented with an apparently longstanding, previously asymptomatic scrotal mass, highly suggestive of testicular malignancy on palpation. Ultrasound sited the lesion in the epididymis. Although there was no evidence of urethritis, chlamydia polymerase chain reaction testing was positive. Tumour markers were negative. Complete clinical and radiological response was achieved after a long course of doxycycline treatment, without surgical exploration of the scrotum, confirming the diagnosis of chlamydial epididymitis.

The value of prostate specific antigen (PSA) density and free: total PSA ratio in selecting patients with a normal digital rectal examination and intermediate total PSA levels for further investigation.

OBJECTIVES: To examine the use of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) density (PSAD) and free to total PSA ratio (f/tPSA) in enhancing the specificity of PSA in the diagnosis of prostate cancer in patients with a total PSA (tPSA) of 4-10 ng/mL and with a normal digital rectal examination (DRE). PATIENTS AND METHODS: The study comprised 77 consecutive men in whom the fPSA and tPSA levels were obtained before DRE and transrectal ultrasonography-guided sextant prostate biopsy. Prostate cancer was found in 39 patients and the histology was benign in 38. Receiver operator characteristic curves, obtained from all 77 patients, were used to determine the optimal thresholds for PSAD and f/tPSA in detecting cancer. A subset of 28 patients, including seven with prostate cancer, was identified who had a normal DRE and a tPSA of 4-10 ng/mL; PSAD and f/tPSA values were applied at the optimal thresholds to assess their use in identifying those patients with cancer. RESULTS: When applied to the selected group of 28 patients, the PSAD (threshold 0.15) failed to identify any with prostate cancer. The f/tPSA (threshold 0.12) yielded a sensitivity of 65% and a specificity of 38%, identifying only three of seven patients with cancer. By increasing the threshold to 0.25, six patients were correctly identified, giving a sensitivity of 86%, with a lower specificity of 14%. CONCLUSIONS: These findings suggest that the neither PSAD nor f/tPSA either significantly reduce the negative biopsy rate or identify patients at greater risk of prostate cancer, particularly when the tPSA is equivocal at 4-10 ng/mL.

Prediction of local recurrence of ductal carcinoma in situ of the breast using five histological classifications: a comparative study with long follow-up.

The increased detection of ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) by mammographic screening and the more widespread use of breast-conserving surgery have led to a search for histological features associated with the risk of recurrence. In a case control study of 141 patients with long follow-up, we compared the ability of five morphological classifications to predict recurrence after local excision. A significant correlation was not found between recurrence and growth pattern when a traditional classification based on architecture was used nor with necrosis when a scheme based principally on this feature was employed. A correlation was, however, found between recurrence and "differentiation" as defined by nuclear features and cell polarization in a classification recently formulated by the European Pathologists Working Group (EPWG), but this failed to reach statistical significance at the 5% level. A stronger and statistically significant correlation was found between nuclear grade as defined by the EPWG and recurrence when cell polarization was disregarded, using the classification currently employed by the UK National Health Service and European Commission-funded Breast Screening Programmes. This was attributable to a small number of recurring cases being downgraded as a consequence of exhibiting polarized cells. A significant correlation between histology and recurrence was also observed using the Van Nuys classification, which is based on nuclear grade and necrosis. Whether the tumor recurred as in situ or invasive carcinoma was unrelated to histological classification, as was the time course over which it occurred. These findings strongly support the use of nuclear grade to identify cases of DCIS at high risk of recurrence after local excision, but further work is necessary to determine whether nuclear grade or necrosis is more appropriate to subdivide the non-high-grade cases.

Ureteropelvic junction obstruction in children. Unique considerations for open operative intervention.

The treatment of UPJ obstruction in children should be approached in a fashion that recognizes the differences between children and adults. Radiographic definition of the urinary tract is different in children than in adults because of the size of the child and technical difficulties with instrumentation. Retrograde pyelography, in general, is not necessary in children, although this decision must be individualized. The surgical incision should be chosen based on the size of the child and the unique considerations of individual renal anatomy and pathology, as well as the surgeon's experience. In children, tubeless surgery may be performed with excellent results, however, diversion with nephrostomies and stents may be necessary in selected cases. With attention to technical details and the unique considerations in children, the results of repair of the UPJ should be excellent and reproducible.

Should continent diversion be performed in patients with locally advanced bladder cancer?

OBJECTIVES: To assess the effect of local, regional, and distant recurrence on pouch function in patients with locally advanced bladder cancer treated by cystectomy and continent diversion. METHODS: A review of 64 consecutive patients undergoing orthotopic (n = 40) or continent cutaneous (n = 24) urinary diversion was performed; 25 patients (39.1%) had locally advanced cancers as defined by deep muscle invasion, extension into perivesical fat, stromal invasion of the prostate, or node-positive disease. Patients were followed at 6-month intervals with physical examination, assessment of voiding function, and computed tomography (CT) scans. RESULTS: The pelvic recurrence rate was 4.7% in the overall group and 12% in patients with locally advanced disease. In the 39 patients with organ-confined tumors, 34 (87%) are alive without evidence of recurrence and have normal pouch function with a median follow-up of 27 months. Four patients in this group receiving systemic chemotherapy for clinical recurrences have retained normal pouch function until last follow-up or death. In the 25 patients with locally advanced tumors, 15 (60%) are alive without evidence of recurrence and have normal pouch function with a median follow-up of 15 months. Seven patients in this group received a median three cycles of adjuvant chemotherapy, and 4 patients received chemotherapy for clinically evident recurrences. Surgical recovery did not delay the onset of adjuvant therapy in any patient, nor did problems specifically related to the presence of a continent pouch delay any cycle of chemotherapy in those patients treated for recurrent disease in either group. Only 1 patient (1.5%) experienced treatment-related toxicity related to the presence of a continent diversion. CONCLUSIONS: This experience suggests that the use of orthotopic or continent cutaneous diversions after cystectomy in patients with locally advanced bladder cancer is safe, does not interfere with the delivery of subsequent therapy, and allows most patients to anticipate normal pouch function even in the presence of recurrent disease.

Alpha-1-antitrypsin phenotypes and associated disease patterns in neurological patients.

INTRODUCTION: Alpha-1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is usually associated with lung or liver disease. It is often detected as a qualitative reduction of the alpha-1 band on the serum protein electrophoretic pattern. MATERIAL AND METHODS: We examined the protein electrophoretic pattern in sera of 22980 unselected consecutive patients with neurological disorders and noted a reduced alpha-1 band in 88. Their phenotypes were compared with the clinical disease. RESULTS: 75 patients had a deficient or non-M and 13 the usual MM phenotype. Contrary to in the general population, PiMZ was four times more common than PiMS. Vascular disease was more common in patients with PiMZ while multiple sclerosis significantly more frequent in patients with PiMS than with other phenotypes, including PiMM. CONCLUSIONS: Other genetic abnormalities have previously been found in AAT associated with multiple sclerosis, but not PiMS. Since PIMS leads to modest reduction of AAT activity, the association may be through other mechanisms than reduced protease activity.

Management of type 2 diabetes in Western Australian metropolitan general practice.

The purpose of this study was: (1) to record GP opinions, practices and outcomes for the care of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (DM2), (2) compare practice facilities and process of care with a criterion of recommended competent care and (3) determine if there were any differences between vocationally registered and non-vocationally registered GPs. A random sample of 204 metropolitan doctors from 124 practices was selected and an audit performed on 467 of their patient records. GPs pursued good blood sugar control and advocated lifestyle changes before hypoglycaemic drugs. Over 80% regard uncomplicated DM2 as a condition for general practice management. However, only 15% conducted an annual diabetes check, 9% had a diabetic register, 6% a diabetic recall system and 8% used a diabetic health care checklist for monitoring their patients. The most commonly recorded processes of medical audit in the previous 12 months were: blood pressure (94%), duration of diabetes (72%), blood glucose (70%), diet (66%), body weight (56%), HBA1c (52%) and ophthalmoscopy (50%). The least commonly recorded processes of care were body mass index (5%), inspection of the feet (18%), enquiries about vaginitis or impotence (23%). The amount of exercise, alcohol and tobacco was recorded in only 34% of records. Hypoglycaemic drugs were used appropriately but the most commonly used drugs for treating hypertension in DM2 patients were thiazide diuretics and beta-blockers. Vocationally registered (VR) doctors had better records, higher process of care scores and more were willing to participate in the study than non-vocationally registered (NVR) doctors. However, there was no difference in metabolic control between patients from either group. The use of a Diabetic Health Care Checklist would improve diabetes care especially in the search for early complications and in the recording of HBA1c and other metabolic parameters. The drugs commonly used to control hypertension can have adverse effects on glucose and lipid metabolism and should be replaced with glucose and lipid neutral drugs.

Free beta human choriogonadotropin in Down's syndrome screening: a multicentre study of its role compared with other biochemical markers.

To ascertain the value of maternal serum free beta-human choriogonadotropin subunit measurement in Down's syndrome screening and to compare its effectiveness when screening with a variety of biochemical markers, we have evaluated maternal serum free beta-human choriogonadotropin, total human choriogonadotropin, alpha-fetoprotein and unconjugated oestriol in a large multicentre study of over 2800 unaffected cases and 90 affected cases, the largest collection of Down's cases ever reported. Of all the markers identified to date, free beta-human choriogonadotropin is the marker of choice for use in Down's syndrome screening. When used in early gestation (14-16 weeks) in combination with alpha-fetoprotein and maternal age, it will allow the detection of 77% of Down's cases. A side-by-side comparison with the performance of total human choriogonadotropin shows the superior detection efficiency of free beta-human choriogonadotropin. Unconjugated oestriol adds nothing further to the detection rate compared with the use of alpha-fetoprotein and free beta-human choriogonadotropin alone, and its use results in a 1% increase in false positive rate. We conclude that unconjugated oestriol has no value in Down's screening. The superior detection rate obtained using free beta-human choriogonadotropin is a result of superior detection of Down's cases in women under 30 years old, where the free beta-human choriogonadotropin combination detects 100% more cases than does the total human choriogonadotropin combination.