Health-Related Quality of Life Following Simultaneous Resection for Synchronous Colorectal Cancer Liver Metastases.

INTRODUCTION: Up to 25% of colorectal cancer patients present with synchronous liver metastases that can be treated with two operations or a single 'simultaneous' operation. Morbidity and mortality appear similar between approaches, however changes in health-related quality-of-life following simultaneous resection are not well reported. METHODS: A prospective, feasibility trial for simultaneous resection of synchronous colorectal liver metastases was conducted. Patients completed the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer QLQ-C30 and LMC21 at baseline (preoperatively), and 4 and 12 weeks postoperatively. Week 4 and 12 scores were compared with baseline using t-tests. Minimally important clinical differences were considered as a 10-point difference from baseline. RESULTS: C30 and QLQ-LMC21 were completed at baseline, 4 weeks, and 12 weeks by 39 (95%), 35 (85%) and 34 (83%) patients, and 39 (95%), 33 (80%) and 33 (80%) patients, respectively; 79% and 75% had at least one MICD according to QLQ-C30 at 4 and 12 weeks. At 4 weeks, physical functioning (mean difference (MD) - 11.9%, p = 0.002), role functioning (MD - 23.6, p = 0.007), and pain (MD + 19.7, p = 0.017) had significant worsening from baseline. At 12 weeks postoperatively, role functioning (MD - 19.7, p = 0.011) and fatigue (MD + 14.3, p = 0.03) were the only domains that remained significantly worse. By 12 weeks, pain and physical functioning had returned to baseline. There were no major demographic differences among those with and without an MICD at 12 weeks. CONCLUSIONS: Simultaneous resection of colorectal liver metastases led to clinically significant worsening fatigue and role functioning that persisted at 12 weeks post-surgery.

Influencing factors on the safety and effectiveness of venom immunotherapy.

BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVE: The safety profile of venom immunotherapy (VIT) is a relevant issue and considerable differences in safety and efficacy of VIT have been reported. The primary aim of this study was to evaluate the safety of ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers during VIT, which has already been published. For a second analysis, data concerning premedication and venom preparations in relation to systemic adverse events (AE) during the up-dosing phase and the first year of the maintenance phase were evaluated as well as the outcome of field stings and sting challenges. METHODS: The study was conducted as an open, prospective, observational, multicenter study. In total, 1,425 patients were enrolled and VIT was performed in 1,342 patients. RESULTS: Premedication with oral antihistamines was taken by 52.1% of patients during the up-dosing and 19.7% of patients during the maintenance phase. Taking antihistamines had no effect on the frequency of systemic AE (p=0.11) but large local reactions (LLR) were less frequently seen (OR: 0.74; 95% CI: 0.58-0.96; p=0.02). Aqueous preparations were preferentially used for up-dosing (73.0%) and depot preparations for the maintenance phase (64.5%). The type of venom preparation neither had an influence on the frequency of systemic AE nor on the effectiveness of VIT (p=0.26 and p=0.80, respectively), while LLR were less frequently seen when depot preparations were used (p<0.001). CONCLUSION: Pretreatment with oral antihistamines during VIT significantly reduces the frequency of LLR but not systemic AE. All venom preparations used were equally effective and did not differ in the frequency of systemic AE.

Helios-Negative Regulatory T Cells as a Key Factor of Immune Tolerance in Nonallergic Beekeepers.

BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES: Although exposure to stings has been identified as the leading risk factor for anaphylaxis due to Hymenoptera venom allergy, professional beekeepers receive hundreds of stings yearly without developing systemic reactions. This study aims to analyze the mechanisms underlying bee venom tolerance in beekeepers. METHODS: A cross-sectional study was conducted. Participants were recruited and classified into 3 groups: allergic patients (APs), who experienced systemic reactions after bee stings, with a positive intradermal test and specific IgE (sIgE) to Apis mellifera venom (AmV); tolerant beekeepers (TBKs), who received ≥50 stings/year; and healthy nonexposed controls (HCs). We measured serum levels of sIgE and specific IgG4 (sIgG4) to AmV, rApi m 1, rApi m 2, rApi m 3, Api m 4, rApi m 5, and rApi m10, as well as AmV-induced basophil degranulation, percentage of T-cell subsets, regulatory T cells (Treg), and IL-10 production. RESULTS: Compared with TBKs, APs had high levels of sIgE to AmV and all its allergic components (P<.001), together with a high basophil activation rate (P<.001). Conversely, compared with APs, TBKs had higher levels of sIgG4 (P<.001) and IL-10 (P<.0001), as well as an enhanced CTLA-4+ Treg population (P=.001), expanded Helios- Treg (P<.003), and reduced type 1 helper T cells (TH1) (P=.008), TH2 (P=.004), and TH17 (P=.007) subsets. CONCLUSIONS: The profile of TBKs, which was strongly marked by Treg activity, differed from that of TBKs. This natural tolerance would be led by the expansion of inducible Helios- Treg cells at the peripheral level. The Helios- Treg population could be a novel candidate biomarker for monitoring tolerance.

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia due to anti-HPA 5a in a HPA-5a homozygous neonate.

The most frequently involved antigen in severe fetal and neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (FNAIT) is the human platelet antigen 1a. Cases of FNAIT caused by HPA-5a antigen are extremely rare, and usually not severe. We report a case of FNAIT caused by anti-HPA antibodies directed to the HPA-5a antigen. The thrombocytopenia was moderate with a minimal platelet count of 36 × 109/L by day 3, and spontaneously resolved by day 10. The pregnancy had been obtained by in vitro fertilization using embryo donation, creating a complete genetic disparity between the HPA 5b5b mother and the HPA 5a5a homozygous neonate. The use of ART with gamete donation can increase the risk and the severity of alloimmune thrombocytopenia and must be considered in new and subsequent pregnancies.

Long-Term Safety of In Utero Exposure to Anti-TNFα Drugs for the Treatment of Inflammatory Bowel Disease: Results from the Multicenter European TEDDY Study.

OBJECTIVES: The long-term safety of exposure to anti-tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNFα) drugs during pregnancy has received little attention. We aimed to compare the relative risk of severe infections in children of mothers with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) who were exposed to anti-TNFα drugs in utero with that of children who were not exposed to the drugs. METHODS: Retrospective multicenter cohort study. Exposed cohort: children from mothers with IBD receiving anti-TNFα medication (with or without thiopurines) at any time during pregnancy or during the 3 months before conception. Non-exposed cohort: children from mothers with IBD not treated with anti-TNFα agents or thiopurines at any time during pregnancy or the 3 months before conception. The cumulative incidence of severe infections after birth was estimated using Kaplan-Meier curves, which were compared using the log-rank test. Cox-regression analysis was performed to identify potential predictive factors for severe infections in the offspring. RESULTS: The study population comprised 841 children, of whom 388 (46%) had been exposed to anti-TNFα agents. Median follow-up after delivery was 47 months in the exposed group and 68 months in the non-exposed group. Both univariate and multivariate analysis showed the incidence rate of severe infections to be similar in non-exposed and exposed children (1.6% vs. 2.8% per person-year, hazard ratio 1.2 (95% confidence interval 0.8-1.8)). In the multivariate analysis, preterm delivery was the only variable associated with a higher risk of severe infection (2.5% (1.5-4.3)). CONCLUSIONS: In utero exposure to anti-TNFα drugs does not seem to be associated with increased short-term or long-term risk of severe infections in children.

Retrospective study of perampanel efficacy and tolerability in myoclonic seizures.

OBJECTIVES: Perampanel is an antiepileptic drug (AED) approved for add-on treatment of focal seizures (with or without generalization) and primary generalized tonic-clonic (GTC) seizures. Our objective was to explore the effectiveness and tolerability of adjunctive perampanel in patients with drug-resistant myoclonic seizures, after failure of other AEDs. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Retrospective, multicenter, observational study. Data were collected from individual patient clinical files and analysed using appropriate descriptive statistics and inferential analyses. RESULTS: Data are reported for 31 patients with mean age 36.4 years, who had an average epilepsy duration of 18 years, previously taken an average of 5.03 AEDs, and were taking an average of 2.4 AEDs on perampanel initiation. Patients exhibited myoclonic, GTC, absence, tonic and focal seizures, and most had associated cognitive decline and/or ataxia. Median time on perampanel was 6 months, most common dose was 6 mg, and overall retention rate was 84%. The responder rate for myoclonic seizures was defined via reduction of days with myoclonic seizures per month. At 6 months, 15 (48.4%) of the 31 patients were classed as myoclonic seizure responders, 10 (32.3%) were myoclonic seizure free, and 39% saw improvements in functional ability. Of 17 patients with GTC seizures at baseline, 9 (53%) were responders at 6 months, and 8 (47.1%) were seizure free. The most frequent side effects were psychiatric disorders, instability, dizziness and irritability, and mostly resolved with dose reduction. Five patients discontinued perampanel due to side effects. CONCLUSIONS: Perampanel caused clinically meaningful improvements in patients with drug-resistant myoclonic seizures. It was generally well tolerated, but psychiatric and neurological side effects sometimes required follow-up and dose reduction.

Application of recombinant antigen 5 allergens from seven allergy-relevant Hymenoptera species in diagnostics.

BACKGROUND: Hymenoptera stings can cause severe anaphylaxis in untreated venom-allergic patients. A correct diagnosis regarding the relevant species for immunotherapy is often hampered by clinically irrelevant cross-reactivity. In vespid venom allergy, cross-reactivity between venoms of different species can be a diagnostic challenge. To address immunological IgE cross-reactivity on molecular level, seven recombinant antigens 5 of the most important Vespoidea groups were assessed by different diagnostic setups. METHODS: The antigens 5 of yellow jackets, hornets, European and American paper wasps, fire ants, white-faced hornets, and Polybia wasps were recombinantly produced in insect cells, immunologically and structurally characterized, and their sIgE reactivity assessed by ImmunoCAP, ELISA, cross-inhibition, and basophil activation test (BAT) in patients with yellow jacket or Polistes venom allergy of two European geographical areas. RESULTS: All recombinant allergens were correctly folded and structural models and patient reactivity profiles suggested the presence of conserved and unique B-cell epitopes. All antigens 5 showed extensive cross-reactivity in sIgE analyses, inhibition assays, and BAT. This cross-reactivity was more pronounced in ImmunoCAP measurements with venom extracts than in sIgE analyses with recombinant antigens 5. Dose-response curves with the allergens in BAT allowed a differentiated individual dissection of relevant sensitization. CONCLUSIONS: Due to extensive cross-reactivity in various diagnostic settings, antigens 5 are inappropriate markers for differential sIgE diagnostics in vespid venom allergy. However, the newly available antigens 5 from further vespid species and the combination of recombinant allergen-based sIgE measurements with BAT represents a practicable way to diagnose clinically relevant sensitization in vespid venom allergy.

Chitosan-dextran sulphate nanoparticles for GnRH release in rabbit insemination extenders.

This study was designed to develop chitosan (CS)-dextran sulphate (DS) nanoparticles containing a GnRH analogue and to study their effect on rabbit (Oryctolagus cuniculus) semen quality. Six experimental extenders were tested as follows: (control) Tris-citric acid-glucose (TCG), (1) 0.05% CS-0.05% DS (4:1), (2) 0.1% CS-0.05% DS (4:1), (3) 0.05% CS-0.05% DS (3:1), (4) 0.1% CS-0.05% DS (3:1), (5) 0.1% CS-0.05% DS (2:1). CS and DS were dissolved in TCG medium, and nanoparticles were obtained through magnetic stirring. Rabbit seminal samples were incubated up to 5 hr at 37°C in the extenders, and seminal quality was evaluated. The entrapment efficiency was 40%-50%. After 5 hr at 37°C, a 20% of the hormone was released. Results showed that the presence of CS-DS nanoparticles did not affect rabbit semen motility, viability and membrane functionality; however, acrosome integrity was significantly higher versus control (p < .001).

IgE-Api m 4 Is Useful for Identifying a Particular Phenotype of Bee Venom Allergy.

BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVE: Different clinical behaviors have been identified in patients allergic to bee venom. Compound-resolved diagnosis could be an appropriate tool for investigating these differences. The aims of this study were to analyze whether specific IgE to Api m 4 (sIgE-Api m 4) can identify a particular kind of bee venom allergy and to describe response to bee venom immunotherapy (bVIT). METHODS: Prospective study of 31 patients allergic to bee venom who were assigned to phenotype group A (sIgE-Api m 4 <0.98 kU/L), treated with native aqueous (NA) extract, or phenotype group B (sIgE-Api m 4 ≥0.98 kU/L), treated with purified aqueous (PA) extract. Sex, age, cardiovascular risk, severity of preceding sting reaction, exposure to beekeeping, and immunological data (intradermal test, sIgE/sIgG4-Apis-nApi m 1, and sIgE-rApi m 2-Api m 4 were analyzed. Systemic reactions (SRs) during bVIT build-up were analyzed. Immunological and sting challenge outcomes were evaluated in each group after 1 and 2 years of bVIT. RESULTS: Phenotype B patients had more severe reactions (P=.049) and higher skin sensitivity (P=.011), baseline sIgE-Apis (P=.0004), sIgE-nApi m 1 (P=.0004), and sIgG4-Apis (P=.027) than phenotype A patients. Furthermore, 41% of patients in group B experienced SRs during the build-up phase with NA; the sting challenge success rate in this group was 82%. There were no significant reductions in serial intradermal test results, but an intense reduction in sIgE-nApi m 1 (P=.013) and sIgE-Api m 4 (P=.004) was observed after the first year of bVIT. CONCLUSION: Use of IgE-Api m 4 as the only discrimination criterion demonstrated differences in bee venom allergy. Further investigation with larger populations is necessary.

Reduction in the mRNA expression of sVEGFR1 and sVEGFR2 is associated with the selection of dominant follicle in cows.

The vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) is essential for follicular development by promoting follicular angiogenesis, as well as for the proliferation and survival of granulosa cells. The biological effects of VEGF are regulated by two membrane receptors, VEGFR1 and VEGFR2, and two soluble receptors, sVEGFR1 and sVEGFR2, which play an antagonistic role. Thus, the objective of this study was to identify the mRNA expression pattern of total VEGF, VEGFR1, VEGFR2, sVEGFR1 and sVEGFR2 in bovine preselected follicles (PRF) and post-selected follicles (POF). The mRNA expression of these five genes in both granulosa cells (GC) and theca cells (TC) was compared between follicles classified as PRF and POF based on their diameter and on their ratio of estradiol/progesterone (E2/P4). Results showed a lower expression of mRNA of sVEGFR1 and sVEGFR2 in POF than in PRF (p < .05). Regarding the mRNA expression of total VEGF, VEGFR1 and VEGFR2, there was no difference between POF and PRF follicles (p > .05). Our results showed that the mRNA expression of VEGFR2 and sVEGFR1 was more abundant than the expression of VEGFR1 and sVEGFR2, while GC was the main source of mRNA for total VEGF. On the other hand, TC was the follicular compartment where the receptors were most expressed. Our results suggest that non-dominant follicles maintain a greater concentration of the mRNA expression of both membrane and soluble VEGF receptors. On the other hand, follicular dominance is related to a reduction in the mRNA expression of sVEGFR1 and sVEGFR2, which may favour VEGF binding with VEGFR2 and, hence, improve the follicular health and development.

Dermoscopy of tumours arising in naevus sebaceous: a morphological study of 58 cases.

BACKGROUND: Naevus sebaceous is a congenital hamartoma commonly associated with the development of secondary neoplasms. There are sparse data relating to the dermoscopy of tumours arising in naevus sebaceous. OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the dermoscopic features of a large series of neoplasms arising in naevus sebaceous. METHODS: Digital dermoscopic images of 58 histopathologically confirmed cases of secondary neoplasms arising in naevus sebaceous collected from 11 hospitals in Spain, France, Italy and Austria were evaluated for the presence of dermoscopic structures and patterns. RESULTS: The most frequent tumours collected were: trichoblastoma (39.6%), basal cell carcinoma (20.7%) and syringocystadenoma papilliferum (15.6%). The most remarkable findings were: (i) the pattern composed of asymmetrical large blue-grey ovoid nests was more common in basal cell carcinomas than in trichoblastoma (58.3% vs. 4.3%; P < 0.001) and the pattern composed of a symmetrical total large blue-grey ovoid nest (a blue-grey homogeneous area which occupies the whole lesion) was more common in trichoblastoma (82.6% vs. 16.6%; P < 0.001); (ii) the most frequent pattern associated with syringocystadenoma papilliferum was a symmetric, erythematous lesion with exophytic papillary structures, ulceration and vessels (55.5%); (iii) the most common pattern associated with apocrine hidrocystomas was a total symmetric homogeneous area and arborizing telangiectasias (60%). CONCLUSIONS: Benign adnexal tumours associated with naevus sebaceous are dermoscopic mimickers of basal cell carcinomas. A pigmented nodule arising in a naevus sebaceous with a total blue large ovoid nest on dermoscopy could be a trichoblastoma, basal cell carcinoma, hidrocystoma or hidradenoma. Dermoscopy can be a useful diagnostic tool which generates a more accurate preoperative diagnosis.

Dermoscopy of apocrine hidrocystomas: a morphological study.

BACKGROUND: The dermoscopic morphology of apocrine hidrocystomas remains to be elucidated. OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the morphological findings of apocrine hidrocystomas under dermoscopic observation. METHODS: Dermoscopic examination of 22 cases of apocrine hidrocystomas was performed to evaluate specific dermoscopic criteria and patterns. RESULTS: The most frequently occurring dermoscopic features were found to be: (i) A translucent to opaque, homogeneous area which occupies the whole lesion in all apocrine hidrocystomas (100%). The colour of this homogeneous area was skin-colored in 31.8% of our cases; yellow, in 31.8% and blue, in 22.7% of apocrine hidrocystomas. (ii) Vascular structures were identified in 81.8% of our cases; arborizing vessels, in 68.2% and linear-irregular vessels in 9.1% of our cases; and (iii) Whitish structures were identified in 22.7% of the lesions. The results of our study reveal that the presence of a homogeneous area that occupies the whole lesion and arborizing vessels is the most common dermoscopic pattern in apocrine hidrocystomas (68.2%). CONCLUSION: Apocrine hidrocystomas, above all in its pigmented variant, may represent a dermoscopic pitfall, being difficult to differentiate clinically and dermoscopically from basal cell carcinomas.

Use of thoracic fluid content for prediction of fluid balance and postoperative pulmonary complications after major abdominal surgery: an observational study.

BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES: The harmful effects of excess fluids frequently manifest in the lungs. Thoracic fluid content (TFC) is a variable provided by the STARLINGTM bioreactance monitor, which represents the total volume of fluid in the chest. The objective is to analyse the association between the variation in TFC values (TFCd0%) at 24 h postoperatively, postoperative fluid balance, and postoperative pulmonary complications. MATERIAL AND METHODS: Prospective and analytical observational study. Patients scheduled for major abdominal surgery at a tertiary teaching hospital were included. They were monitored during the intervention and the first 24 postoperative hours with the monitor. STARLINGTM, measuring TFC and its variation in different stages of the perioperative period. Serial lung ultrasounds were performed and postoperative pulmonary complications were recorded. Logistic regression was performed to predict the occurrence of atelectasis and pulmonary congestion. The Pearson correlation coefficient was calculated to verify the association between TFC and fluid balance. RESULTS: 50 patients were analyzed. TFCd0% measured on the morning of the first postoperative day increased by a median of 27.1% [IQR: 20.3-37.5] and was correlated at r = 0.44 with the postoperative balance of 677 ml [IQR: 125.5-1,412]. Increased TFC was related to a higher risk of atelectasis (OR = 1.24) and pulmonary congestion (OR = 1.3). CONCLUSIONS: TFCd0% measured 24 h after surgery presents a moderate correlation with postoperative fluid balance. Its increase is a risk factor for the appearance of postoperative pulmonary complications.

Alcohol administration blocks stress-induced impairments in memory and anxiety, and alters hippocampal neurotransmitter receptor expression in male rats.

Chronic exposure to stress has many deleterious effects on behavior, which can often lead to self-medication with anxiolytics, antidepressants, or alcohol. We determined the effects of alcohol administration following a stressor on established behavioral, physiological, and neural responses to stress. Male Sprague-Dawley rats received: No alcohol/No stress (CON), Alcohol alone (ALC), Stress alone (STR), or Stress plus Alcohol (STR+ALC). For seven consecutive days, two cohorts received an oral dose of 2.0 g/kg of either 20% ethanol or saline. In Cohort 1, behavioral testing began after the final treatment (day-8). Memory was tested using the object recognition (OR) and Y-maze, anxiety on the plus maze, and depression on the forced swim task. Memory on OR and Y-maze tasks was impaired in the ALC and STR groups. This deficit was reversed in the STR+ALC group, which performed not differently from the CON group. Stress alone was associated with increased anxiety, which was alleviated with alcohol treatment. No treatment effects were found in the forced swim task. In Cohort 2, hippocampal GABAα4 was upregulated in the STR+ALC group and GluN2B was upregulated in the ALC and STR+ALC groups. The STR+ALC group in Cohort 1 showed enhanced corticosterone levels after forced swim. The STR+ALC group in Cohort 2 showed increased corticosterone levels on day-1 of treatment and a habituation by day-7. In conclusion, this study found a reversal of stress-induced deficits in cognition and anxiety when alcohol was given post-stress, and changes in neurotransmitter receptor expression may contribute to these behavioral effects.

MFCC Parameters of the Speech Signal: An Alternative to Formant-Based Instantaneous Vocal Tract Length Estimation.

On the one hand, the relationship between formant frequencies and vocal tract length (VTL) has been intensively studied over the years. On the other hand, the connection involving mel-frequency cepstral coefficients (MFCCs), which concisely codify the overall shape of a speaker's spectral envelope with just a few cepstral coefficients, and VTL has only been modestly analyzed, being worth of further investigation. Thus, based on different statistical models, this article explores the advantages and disadvantages of the latter approach, which is relatively novel, in contrast to the former which arises from more traditional studies. Additionally, VTL is assumed to be a static and inherent characteristic of speakers, that is, a single length parameter is frequently estimated per speaker. By contrast, in this paper we consider VTL estimation from a dynamic perspective using modern real-time Magnetic Resonance Imaging (rtMRI) to measure VTL in parallel with audio signals. To support the experiments, data obtained from USC-TIMIT magnetic resonance videos were used, allowing for the 2D real-time analysis of articulators in motion. As a result, we observed that the performance of MFCCs in case of speaker-dependent modeling is higher, however, in case of cross-speaker modeling, which uses different speakers' data for training and evaluating, its performance is not significantly different of that obtained with formants. In complement, we note that the estimation based on MFCCs is robust, with an acceptable computational time complexity, coherent with the traditional approach.

Management of preeclampsia with severe features in a patient with relapsing polychondritis affecting the tracheobronchial tree.

Relapsing polychondritis is a rare disease that affects cartilaginous structures throughout the body. Progressive destruction of the laryngeal structures and the tracheobronchial tree occurs in 50% of patients, potentially leading to loss of patency and collapse of the airway. Respiratory involvement in relapsing polychondritis includes airway stenosis, tracheomalacia and recurrent lung infections due to chronic inflammation caused by the destruction of upper and lower airway cartilage. Pregnancy and preeclampsia can worsen pharyngolaryngeal oedema, while treatment with magnesium sulphate can affect neuromuscular function, exacerbating the degree of airway collapse in the most serious cases of relapsing polychondritis, possibly altering obstetric outcomes. Here, we present the management of a pregnant woman with relapsing polychondritis who presented with features of severe preeclampsia at 29 weeks and 6 days gestation. We believe that this is the first published case of the combination of the two disorders, complicated by acute respiratory failure after treatment with magnesium sulphate.

[Validity and usefulness of the RAE-CMBD studying patients hospitalised with influenza]. / Validez y utilidad del RAE-CMBD en el estudio de los pacientes hospitalizados con gripe.

OBJECTIVE: Understanding the hospital impact of influenza requires enriching epidemiological surveillance registries with other sources of information. The aim of this study was to determine the validity of the Hospital Care Activity Record - Minimum Basic Data Set (RAE-CMBD) in the analysis of the outcomes of patients hospitalised with this infection. METHODS: Observational and retrospective study of adults admitted with influenza in a tertiary hospital during the 2017/2018 and 2018/2019 seasons. We calculated the concordance of the RAE-CMBD with the influenza epidemiological surveillance registry (gold standard), as well as the main parameters of internal and external validity. Logistic regression models were used for risk adjustment of in-hospital mortality and length of stay. RESULTS: A total of 907 (97.74%) unique matches were achieved, with high inter-observer agreement (ƙ=0.828). The RAE-CMBD showed a 79.87% sensitivity, 99.72% specificity, 86.71% positive predictive value and 99.54% negative predictive value. The risk-adjusted mortality ratio of patients with influenza was lower than that of patients without influenza: 0.667 (0.53-0.82) vs. 1.008 (0.98-1.04) and the risk-adjusted length of stay ratio was higher: 1.15 (1.12-1.18) vs. 1.00 (0.996-1.001). CONCLUSIONS: The RAE-CMBD is a valid source of information for the study of the impact of influenza on hospital care. The lower risk-adjusted mortality of patients admitted with influenza compared to other inpatients seems to point to the effectiveness of the main clinical and organisational measures adopted.