Early rhombic lip Protogenin+ve stem cells in a human-specific neurovascular niche initiate and maintain group 3 medulloblastoma.

We identify a population of Protogenin-positive (PRTG+ve) MYChigh NESTINlow stem cells in the four-week-old human embryonic hindbrain that subsequently localizes to the ventricular zone of the rhombic lip (RLVZ). Oncogenic transformation of early Prtg+ve rhombic lip stem cells initiates group 3 medulloblastoma (Gr3-MB)-like tumors. PRTG+ve stem cells grow adjacent to a human-specific interposed vascular plexus in the RLVZ, a phenotype that is recapitulated in Gr3-MB but not in other types of medulloblastoma. Co-culture of Gr3-MB with endothelial cells promotes tumor stem cell growth, with the endothelial cells adopting an immature phenotype. Targeting the PRTGhigh compartment of Gr3-MB in vivo using either the diphtheria toxin system or chimeric antigen receptor T cells constitutes effective therapy. Human Gr3-MBs likely arise from early embryonic RLVZ PRTG+ve stem cells inhabiting a specific perivascular niche. Targeting the PRTGhigh compartment and/or the perivascular niche represents an approach to treat children with Gr3-MB.

Histone H3.3G34-Mutant Interneuron Progenitors Co-opt PDGFRA for Gliomagenesis.

Histone H3.3 glycine 34 to arginine/valine (G34R/V) mutations drive deadly gliomas and show exquisite regional and temporal specificity, suggesting a developmental context permissive to their effects. Here we show that 50% of G34R/V tumors (n = 95) bear activating PDGFRA mutations that display strong selection pressure at recurrence. Although considered gliomas, G34R/V tumors actually arise in GSX2/DLX-expressing interneuron progenitors, where G34R/V mutations impair neuronal differentiation. The lineage of origin may facilitate PDGFRA co-option through a chromatin loop connecting PDGFRA to GSX2 regulatory elements, promoting PDGFRA overexpression and mutation. At the single-cell level, G34R/V tumors harbor dual neuronal/astroglial identity and lack oligodendroglial programs, actively repressed by GSX2/DLX-mediated cell fate specification. G34R/V may become dispensable for tumor maintenance, whereas mutant-PDGFRA is potently oncogenic. Collectively, our results open novel research avenues in deadly tumors. G34R/V gliomas are neuronal malignancies where interneuron progenitors are stalled in differentiation by G34R/V mutations and malignant gliogenesis is promoted by co-option of a potentially targetable pathway, PDGFRA signaling.

Metabolic Regulation of the Epigenome Drives Lethal Infantile Ependymoma.

Posterior fossa A (PFA) ependymomas are lethal malignancies of the hindbrain in infants and toddlers. Lacking highly recurrent somatic mutations, PFA ependymomas are proposed to be epigenetically driven tumors for which model systems are lacking. Here we demonstrate that PFA ependymomas are maintained under hypoxia, associated with restricted availability of specific metabolites to diminish histone methylation, and increase histone demethylation and acetylation at histone 3 lysine 27 (H3K27). PFA ependymomas initiate from a cell lineage in the first trimester of human development that resides in restricted oxygen. Unlike other ependymomas, transient exposure of PFA cells to ambient oxygen induces irreversible cellular toxicity. PFA tumors exhibit a low basal level of H3K27me3, and, paradoxically, inhibition of H3K27 methylation specifically disrupts PFA tumor growth. Targeting metabolism and/or the epigenome presents a unique opportunity for rational therapy for infants with PFA ependymoma.

The U1 spliceosomal RNA is recurrently mutated in multiple cancers.

Cancers are caused by genomic alterations known as drivers. Hundreds of drivers in coding genes are known but, to date, only a handful of noncoding drivers have been discovered-despite intensive searching1,2. Attention has recently shifted to the role of altered RNA splicing in cancer; driver mutations that lead to transcriptome-wide aberrant splicing have been identified in multiple types of cancer, although these mutations have only been found in protein-coding splicing factors such as splicing factor 3b subunit 1 (SF3B1)3-6. By contrast, cancer-related alterations in the noncoding component of the spliceosome-a series of small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs)-have barely been studied, owing to the combined challenges of characterizing noncoding cancer drivers and the repetitive nature of snRNA genes1,7,8. Here we report a highly recurrent A>C somatic mutation at the third base of U1 snRNA in several types of tumour. The primary function of U1 snRNA is to recognize the 5' splice site via base-pairing. This mutation changes the preferential A-U base-pairing between U1 snRNA and the 5' splice site to C-G base-pairing, and thus creates novel splice junctions and alters the splicing pattern of multiple genes-including known drivers of cancer. Clinically, the A>C mutation is associated with heavy alcohol use in patients with hepatocellular carcinoma, and with the aggressive subtype of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia with unmutated immunoglobulin heavy-chain variable regions. The mutation in U1 snRNA also independently confers an adverse prognosis to patients with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. Our study demonstrates a noncoding driver in spliceosomal RNAs, reveals a mechanism of aberrant splicing in cancer and may represent a new target for treatment. Our findings also suggest that driver discovery should be extended to a wider range of genomic regions.

Childhood cerebellar tumours mirror conserved fetal transcriptional programs.

Study of the origin and development of cerebellar tumours has been hampered by the complexity and heterogeneity of cerebellar cells that change over the course of development. Here we use single-cell transcriptomics to study more than 60,000 cells from the developing mouse cerebellum and show that different molecular subgroups of childhood cerebellar tumours mirror the transcription of cells from distinct, temporally restricted cerebellar lineages. The Sonic Hedgehog medulloblastoma subgroup transcriptionally mirrors the granule cell hierarchy as expected, while group 3 medulloblastoma resembles Nestin+ stem cells, group 4 medulloblastoma resembles unipolar brush cells, and PFA/PFB ependymoma and cerebellar pilocytic astrocytoma resemble the prenatal gliogenic progenitor cells. Furthermore, single-cell transcriptomics of human childhood cerebellar tumours demonstrates that many bulk tumours contain a mixed population of cells with divergent differentiation. Our data highlight cerebellar tumours as a disorder of early brain development and provide a proximate explanation for the peak incidence of cerebellar tumours in early childhood.

Age-related remodelling of oesophageal epithelia by mutated cancer drivers.

Clonal expansion in aged normal tissues has been implicated in the development of cancer. However, the chronology and risk dependence of the expansion are poorly understood. Here we intensively sequence 682 micro-scale oesophageal samples and show, in physiologically normal oesophageal epithelia, the progressive age-related expansion of clones that carry mutations in driver genes (predominantly NOTCH1), which is substantially accelerated by alcohol consumption and by smoking. Driver-mutated clones emerge multifocally from early childhood and increase their number and size with ageing, and ultimately replace almost the entire oesophageal epithelium in the extremely elderly. Compared with mutations in oesophageal cancer, there is a marked overrepresentation of NOTCH1 and PPM1D mutations in physiologically normal oesophageal epithelia; these mutations can be acquired before late adolescence (as early as early infancy) and significantly increase in number with heavy smoking and drinking. The remodelling of the oesophageal epithelium by driver-mutated clones is an inevitable consequence of normal ageing, which-depending on lifestyle risks-may affect cancer development.

Recurrent noncoding U1 snRNA mutations drive cryptic splicing in SHH medulloblastoma.

In cancer, recurrent somatic single-nucleotide variants-which are rare in most paediatric cancers-are confined largely to protein-coding genes1-3. Here we report highly recurrent hotspot mutations (r.3A>G) of U1 spliceosomal small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) in about 50% of Sonic hedgehog (SHH) medulloblastomas. These mutations were not present across other subgroups of medulloblastoma, and we identified these hotspot mutations in U1 snRNA in only <0.1% of 2,442 cancers, across 36 other tumour types. The mutations occur in 97% of adults (subtype SHHδ) and 25% of adolescents (subtype SHHα) with SHH medulloblastoma, but are largely absent from SHH medulloblastoma in infants. The U1 snRNA mutations occur in the 5' splice-site binding region, and snRNA-mutant tumours have significantly disrupted RNA splicing and an excess of 5' cryptic splicing events. Alternative splicing mediated by mutant U1 snRNA inactivates tumour-suppressor genes (PTCH1) and activates oncogenes (GLI2 and CCND2), and represents a target for therapy. These U1 snRNA mutations provide an example of highly recurrent and tissue-specific mutations of a non-protein-coding gene in cancer.

Recent advances in the molecular understanding of medulloblastoma.

Medulloblastoma is the most common pediatric malignant brain tumor composed of four molecular subgroups. Recent intensive genomics has greatly contributed to our understanding of medulloblastoma pathogenesis. Sequencing studies identified novel mutations involved in the cyclic AMP-dependent pathway or RNA processing in the Sonic Hedgehog (SHH) subgroup, and core-binding factor subunit alpha (CBFA) complex in the group 4 subgroup. Likewise, single-cell sequencing provided detailed insights into the cell of origin associated with brain development. In this review, we will summarize recent findings by sequencing analyses for medulloblastoma.

Klotho Supplementation Reverses Renal Dysfunction and Interstitial Fibrosis in Remnant Kidney.

INTRODUCTION: While recent investigations show that klotho exerts renoprotective actions, it has not been fully addressed whether klotho protein supplementation reverses renal damage. METHODS: The impacts of subcutaneous klotho supplementation on rats with subtotal nephrectomy were examined. Animals were divided into 3 groups: group 1 (short remnant [SR]): remnant kidney for 4 weeks, group 2 (long remnant [LR]): remnant kidney for 12 weeks, and group 3 (klotho supplementation [KL]): klotho protein (20 µg/kg/day) supplementation on the remnant kidney. Blood pressure, blood and urine compositions with conventional methods such as enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and radioimmunoassay, kidney histology, and renal expressions of various genes were analyzed. In vitro studies were also performed to support in vivo findings. RESULTS: Klotho protein supplementation decreased albuminuria (-43%), systolic blood pressure (-16%), fibroblast growth factor (FGF) 23 (-51%) and serum phosphate levels (-19%), renal angiotensin II concentration (-43%), fibrosis index (-70%), renal expressions of collagen I (-55%), and transforming growth factor ß (-59%) (p < 0.05 for all). Klotho supplementation enhanced fractional excretion of phosphate (+45%), glomerular filtration rate (+76%), renal expressions of klotho (+148%), superoxide dismutase (+124%), and bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) 7 (+174%) (p < 0.05 for all). CONCLUSION: Our data indicated that klotho protein supplementation inactivated renal renin-angiotensin system, reducing blood pressure and albuminuria in remnant kidney. Furthermore, exogenous klotho protein supplementation elevated endogenous klotho expression to increase phosphate excretion with resultant reductions in FGF23 and serum phosphate. Finally, klotho supplementation reversed renal dysfunction and fibrosis in association with improved BMP7 in remnant kidney.

Prospective study of three saliva qualitative antigen testing kits for the detection of SARS-CoV-2 among mainly symptomatic patients in Japan.

INTRODUCTION: Rapid qualitative antigen testing has been widely used for the laboratory diagnosis of COVID-19 with nasopharyngeal samples. Saliva samples have been used as alternative samples, but the analytical performance of those samples for qualitative antigen testing has not been sufficiently evaluated. METHODS: A prospective observational study evaluated the analytical performance of three In Vitro Diagnostics (IVD) approved COVID-19 rapid antigen detection kits for saliva between June 2022 and July 2022 in Japan using real-time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-qPCR) as a reference. A nasopharyngeal sample and a saliva sample were simultaneously obtained, and RT-qPCR was performed. RESULTS: In total, saliva samples and nasopharyngeal samples were collected from 471 individuals (RT-qPCR-positive, n = 145) for the analysis. Of these, 96.6% were symptomatic. The median copy numbers were 1.7 × 106 copies/mL for saliva samples and 1.2 × 108 copies/mL for nasopharyngeal samples (p < 0.001). Compared with the reference, the sensitivity and specificity were 44.8% and 99.7% for ImunoAce SARS-CoV-2 Saliva, 57.2% and 99.1% for Espline SARS-CoV-2 N, and 60.0% and 99.1% for QuickChaser Auto SARS-CoV-2, respectively. The sensitivities of all antigen testing kit were 100% for saliva samples with a high viral load (>107 copies/mL), whereas the sensitivities were <70% for high-viral-load nasopharyngeal samples (>107 copies/mL). CONCLUSION: COVID-19 rapid antigen detection kits with saliva showed high specificity, but the sensitivity varied among kits, and were also insufficient for the detection of symptomatic COVID-19 patients.

Analytical performance of the rapid qualitative antigen kit for the detection of SARS-CoV-2 during widespread circulation of the Omicron variant.

INTRODUCTION: Rapid qualitative antigen testing is essential in the clinical management of COVID-19. However, most evaluations of antigen tests have been performed before the emergence of the Omicron variant. METHODS: This prospective observational study evaluated QuickNavi-COVID19 Ag, a rapid antigen detection test between December 2021 and February 2022 in Japan, using real-time reverse transcription (RT)-PCR as a reference. Two nasopharyngeal samples were simultaneously collected for antigen testing and for RT-PCR. Variant analysis of the SARS-CoV-2 genomic sequencing was also performed. RESULTS: In total, nasopharyngeal samples were collected from 1073 participants (417 positive; 919 symptomatic; 154 asymptomatic) for analysis. Compared with those of RT-PCR, the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value were 94.2% (95% CI: 91.6%-96.3%), 99.5% (95% CI: 98.7%-99.9%), 99.2% (95% CI: 97.8%-99.8%), and 96.5% (95% CI: 94.8%-97.7%), respectively. The sensitivity among symptomatic individuals was 94.3% (95% CI: 91.5%-96.4%). Overall, 85.9% of sequences were classified as Omicron sublineage BA.1, 12.4% were Omicron sublineage BA.2, and 1.6% were Delta B.1.617.2. (Delta variant). Most of the samples (87.1%) had Ct values of <25, and the sensitivity was 47.4% for low viral load samples (Ct ≥ 30); a similar trend has been observed in both symptomatic and asymptomatic groups. CONCLUSIONS: The QuickNavi-COVID19 Ag test showed sufficient diagnostic performance for the detection of the SARS-CoV-2 Omicron sublineages BA.1 and BA.2 from nasopharyngeal samples. However, the current study was mainly performed in symptomatic patients and the results are not sufficiently applicable for asymptomatic patients.

The landscape of genetic aberrations in myxofibrosarcoma.

Myxofibrosarcoma (MFS) is a rare subtype of sarcoma, whose genetic basis is poorly understood. We analyzed 69 MFS cases using whole-genome (WGS), whole-exome (WES) and/or targeted-sequencing (TS). Newly sequenced genomic data were combined with additional deposited 116 MFS samples. WGS identified a high number of structural variations (SVs) per tumor most frequently affecting the TP53 and RB1 loci, 40% of tumors showed a BRCAness-associated mutation signature, and evidence of chromothripsis was found in all cases. Most frequently mutated/copy number altered genes affected known disease drivers such as TP53 (56.2%), CDKN2A/B (29.7%), RB1 (27.0%), ATRX (19.5%) and HDLBP (18.9%). Several previously unappreciated genetic aberrations including MUC17, FLG and ZNF780A were identified in more than 20% of patients. Longitudinal analysis of paired diagnosis and relapse time points revealed a 1.2-fold mutation number increase accompanied with substantial changes in clonal composition over time. Our study highlights the genetic complexity underlying sarcomagenesis of MFS.

Aberrant PD-L1 expression through 3'-UTR disruption in multiple cancers.

Successful treatment of many patients with advanced cancer using antibodies against programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; also known as PDCD1) and its ligand (PD-L1; also known as CD274) has highlighted the critical importance of PD-1/PD-L1-mediated immune escape in cancer development. However, the genetic basis for the immune escape has not been fully elucidated, with the exception of elevated PD-L1 expression by gene amplification and utilization of an ectopic promoter by translocation, as reported in Hodgkin and other B-cell lymphomas, as well as stomach adenocarcinoma. Here we show a unique genetic mechanism of immune escape caused by structural variations (SVs) commonly disrupting the 3' region of the PD-L1 gene. Widely affecting multiple common human cancer types, including adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma (27%), diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (8%), and stomach adenocarcinoma (2%), these SVs invariably lead to a marked elevation of aberrant PD-L1 transcripts that are stabilized by truncation of the 3'-untranslated region (UTR). Disruption of the Pd-l1 3'-UTR in mice enables immune evasion of EG7-OVA tumour cells with elevated Pd-l1 expression in vivo, which is effectively inhibited by Pd-1/Pd-l1 blockade, supporting the role of relevant SVs in clonal selection through immune evasion. Our findings not only unmask a novel regulatory mechanism of PD-L1 expression, but also suggest that PD-L1 3'-UTR disruption could serve as a genetic marker to identify cancers that actively evade anti-tumour immunity through PD-L1 overexpression.

Diagnostic performance of a novel digital immunoassay (RapidTesta SARS-CoV-2): A prospective observational study with nasopharyngeal samples.

INTRODUCTION: Digital immunoassays are generally regarded as superior tests for the detection of infectious disease pathogens, but there have been insufficient data concerning SARS-CoV-2 immunoassays. METHODS: We prospectively evaluated a novel digital immunoassay (RapidTesta SARS-CoV-2). Two nasopharyngeal samples were simultaneously collected for antigen tests and Real-time RT-PCR. RESULTS: During the study period, 1127 nasopharyngeal samples (symptomatic patients: 802, asymptomatic patients: 325) were evaluated. For digital immunoassay antigen tests, the sensitivity was 78.3% (95% CI: 67.3%-87.1%) and the specificity was 97.6% (95% CI: 96.5%-98.5%). When technicians visually analyzed the antigen test results, the sensitivity was 71.6% (95% CI: 59.9%-81.5%) and the specificity was 99.2% (95% CI: 98.5%-99.7%). Among symptomatic patients, the sensitivity was 89.4% (95% CI; 76.9%-96.5%) with digital immunoassay antigen tests, and 85.1% (95% CI; 71.7%-93.8%) with visually analyzed the antigen test, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: The sensitivity of digital immunoassay antigen tests was superior to that of visually analyzed antigen tests, but the rate of false-positive results increased with the introduction of a digital immunoassay device.

Evaluation and clinical implications of the time to a positive results of antigen testing for SARS-CoV-2.

INTRODUCTION: Antigen tests for severe acute respiratory coronavirus 2 sometimes show positive lines earlier than their specified read time, although the implication of getting the results at earlier time is not well understood. METHODS: We prospectively collected additional nasopharyngeal samples from patients who had already tested positive for SARS-CoV-2 by reverse transcription PCR. The swab was used for an antigen test, QuickNavi™-COVID19 Ag, and the time periods to get positive results were measured. RESULTS: In 84 of 96 (87.5%) analyzed cases, the results of QuickNavi™-COVID19 Ag were positive. The time to obtain positive results was 15.0 seconds in median (inter quartile range: 12.0-33.3, range 11-736) and was extended in samples with higher cycle thresholds (p < 0.001). Positive lines appeared within a minute in 85.7% of cases and within 5 min in 96.4%. CONCLUSION: QuickNavi™-COVID19 Ag immediately showed positive results in most cases, and the time to a positive reaction may have indicated the viral load.

A prospective clinical evaluation of the diagnostic accuracy of the SARS-CoV-2 rapid antigen test using anterior nasal samples.

INTRODUCTION: The diagnostic accuracy of antigen testing of anterior nasal (AN) samples for the severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) infection has not been evaluated in the Japanese population. This study assessed the diagnostic accuracy of the Roche SARS-CoV-2 rapid antigen test (rapid antigen test) using AN samples. METHODS: Two AN samples and one nasopharyngeal (NP) sample were collected from individuals undergoing screening for SARS-CoV-2 infection. The results of the rapid antigen test and the reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) test using AN samples were compared to those of RT-PCR tests using NP samples. RESULTS: Samples were collected from 800 participants, 95 and 110 of whom tested positive for SARS-CoV-2 on RT-PCR tests of AN and NP samples, respectively. The overall sensitivity/specificity of the AN rapid antigen test and AN RT-PCR were 72.7%/100% and 86.4%/100%, respectively. In symptomatic cases, the sensitivities of the AN rapid antigen test and AN RT-PCR were 84.7% and 94.9%, respectively. In asymptomatic cases, the sensitivities of the AN rapid antigen test and AN RT-PCR were 58.8% and 76.5%, respectively. The sensitivity of the AN rapid antigen test was over 80% in cases with cycle threshold (Ct) values < 25; it significantly decreased with an increase in the Ct values (p < 0.001). CONCLUSION: The rapid antigen test with AN samples had a favorable sensitivity, especially in symptomatic cases or in cases with Ct values < 25. It gave no false-positive results. Compared with AN-RT PCR, the AN rapid antigen test had a modestly lower sensitivity in asymptomatic cases.

A prospective evaluation of diagnostic performance of a combo rapid antigen test QuickNavi-Flu+COVID19 Ag.

INTRODUCTION: Since respiratory sample collection is an uncomfortable experience, simultaneous detection of pathogens with a single swab is preferable. We prospectively evaluated the clinical performance of a newly developed antigen test QuickNavi-Flu+COVID19 Ag (Denka Co., Ltd., Tokyo, Japan) which can detect severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) and influenza viruses at the same time with a single testing device. METHODS: We included those who were suspected of contracting coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) and were referred to a PCR center at Ibaraki prefecture in Japan, between August 2, 2021 to September 13, 2021, when the variant carrying L452R spike mutation of SARS-CoV-2 were prevalent. Additional nasopharyngeal samples and anterior nasal samples were obtained for the antigen test and were compared with a reference real-time reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR) using nasopharyngeal samples. RESULTS: In total, 1510 nasopharyngeal samples and 862 anterior nasal samples were evaluated. During the study period, influenza viruses were not detected by QuickNavi-Flu+COVID19 Ag and reference real-time RT-PCR. For SARS-CoV-2 detection in nasopharyngeal samples, the sensitivity and specificity of the antigen test were 80.9% and 99.8%, respectively. The sensitivity and specificity using anterior nasal samples were 67.8% and 100%, respectively. In symptomatic cases, the sensitivities increased to 88.3% with nasopharyngeal samples and 73.7% with anterior nasal samples. There were three cases of discrepant results between the antigen test and the real-time RT-PCR. All of them were positive with the antigen test but negative with the real-time RT-PCR in SARS-CoV-2 detection. CONCLUSION: A combo kit, QuickNavi-Flu+COVID19 Ag, showed an acceptable sensitivity and sufficient specificity for SARS-CoV-2 detection, especially using nasopharyngeal sample collected from symptomatic patients.

Clinical evaluation of the rapid nucleic acid amplification point-of-care test (Smart Gene SARS-CoV-2) in the analysis of nasopharyngeal and anterior nasal samples.

INTRODUCTION: Smart Gene is a point-of-care (POC)-type automated molecular testing platform that can be performed with 1 min of hands-on-time. Smart Gene SARS-CoV-2 is a newly developed Smart Gene molecular assay for the detection of SARS-CoV-2. The analytical and clinical performance of Smart Gene SARS-CoV-2 has not been evaluated. METHODS: Nasopharyngeal and anterior nasal samples were prospectively collected from subjects referred to the local PCR center from March 25 to July 5, 2021. Two swabs were simultaneously obtained for the Smart Gene SARS-CoV-2 assay and the reference real-time RT-PCR assay, and the results of Smart Gene SARS-CoV-2 were compared to the reference real-time RT-PCR assay. RESULTS: Among a total of 1150 samples, 68 of 791 nasopharyngeal samples and 51 of 359 anterior nasal samples were positive for SARS-CoV-2 in the reference real-time RT-PCR assay. In the testing of nasopharyngeal samples, Smart Gene SARS-CoV-2 showed the total, positive and negative concordance of 99.2% (95% confidence interval [CI]: 98.4-99.7%), 94.1% (95% CI: 85.6-98.4%) and 99.7% (95% CI: 99.0-100%), respectively. For anterior nasal samples, Smart Gene SARS-CoV-2 showed the total, positive and negative concordance of 98.9% (95% CI: 97.2-99.7%), 98.0% (95% CI: 89.6-100%) and 99.0% (95% CI: 97.2-99.8%), respectively. In total, 5 samples were positive in the reference real-time RT-PCR assay and negative in the Smart Gene SARS-CoV-2 assay, whereas 5 samples were negative in the reference real-time RT-PCR assay and positive in the Smart Gene SARS-CoV-2 assay. CONCLUSION: Smart Gene SARS-CoV-2 showed sufficient analytical performance for the detection of SARS-CoV-2 in nasopharyngeal and anterior nasal samples.

Oral fidaxomicin versus vancomycin for the treatment of Clostridioides difficile infection: A systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials.

BACKGROUND: Fidaxomicin (FDX) has received considerable attention as a novel therapeutic alternative agent to vancomycin (VCM) for Clostridioides difficile infection (CDI). However, the superiority and efficacy profile of FDX are not sufficiently determined by high-quality evidence. This study aimed to clarify the superiority of FDX for CDI treatment through a systematic review and meta-analysis. METHODS: We conducted a meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials (RCTs) which evaluated the efficacy and safety of FDX and VCM in patients with CDI. Electronic databases (PubMed, Cochrane Library, Web of Science, and Clinicaltrials.gov) were searched for studies published until October 15, 2021. The primary endpoint was global cure. The secondary endpoints were clinical cure, recurrence, and adverse event. Risk ratios (RRs), risk differences (RDs), and 95% confidence intervals were calculated using Mantel-Haenszel random-effects model. The risk of bias was assessed using Cochrane Handbook for Systematic Reviews of Interventions and Assessment Criteria. RESULTS: Six RCTs were included in this meta-analysis. Compared to VCM, FDX was associated with significantly higher global cure rates (RR = 1.18, P < 0.00001; RD = 0.11, 95% CI = 0.07-0.16). In addition, clinical cure rates were comparable between FDX and VCM (P = 0.31). FDX was associated with significantly lower recurrence rates compared to VCM (RR = 0.59, P < 0.0001). In addition, adverse event rates were not significantly different between the drugs (P = 0.41). CONCLUSION: FDX achieves significantly higher global cure rates and lower recurrence rates and is comparable to VCM in clinical cure rates and adverse event rates in patients with CDI. Collectively, FDX is superior to VCM as a therapeutic agent for CDI.

Central and brachial pulse pressure predicts cardiovascular and renal events in treated hypertensive patients.

PURPOSES: Central blood pressure is a stronger predictor of cardiovascular prognosis rather than brachial blood pressure. The reflection wave reaches the abdominal aorta sooner than ascending aorta. Thus, the contribution of central pulse pressure (cPP) to renal events may differ from that of cardiovascular events. METHODS: The subanalysis of the ABC-J II study was performed. Subjects were 3434 treated hypertensive patients with a mean follow-up of 4.7 years. Left ventricular hypertrophy, an index of cardiovascular risk, correlated with cPP better than central systolic blood pressure in this cohort. The contribution of brachial pulse pressure (bPP) and cPP to cardiovascular and renal events was analysed. RESULTS: Cox proportional-hazard analysis revealed that sex (p < 0.001), height (p < 0.05), history of cardiovascular diseases (p < 0.001), number of antihypertensive drugs (p < 0.05), and cPP (p < 0.05) contributed to cardiovascular events. However, Cox proportional-hazard analysis disclosed that baseline serum creatinine (p < 0.001) and bPP (p < 0.05) predicted renal events. After adjusting for the history of cardiovascular diseases, Cox regression demonstrated only sex as a significant predictor of cardiovascular events. After adjusting for baseline serum creatinine, no parameters were shown to predict renal events. CONCLUSIONS: The present findings support our previous data that the absence of cardiovascular or renal diseases is an important determinant for event-free survival, and suggest that cPP and bPP contribute to cardiovascular and renal events in treated hypertensive patients.