Radiofrequency echographic multispectrometry compared with dual X-ray absorptiometry for osteoporosis diagnosis on lumbar spine and femoral neck.

An innovative, non-ionizing technique to diagnose osteoporosis on lumbar spine and femoral neck was evaluated through a multicenter study involving 1914 women. The proposed method showed significant agreement with reference gold standard method and, therefore, a potential for early osteoporosis diagnoses and possibly improved patient management. INTRODUCTION: To assess precision (i.e., short term intra-operator precision) and diagnostic accuracy of an innovative non-ionizing technique, REMS (Radiofrequency Echographic Multi Spectrometry), in comparison with the clinical gold standard reference DXA (dual X-ray absorptiometry), through an observational multicenter clinical study. METHODS: In a multicenter cross-sectional observational study, a total of 1914 postmenopausal women (51-70 years) underwent spinal (n = 1553) and/or femoral (n = 1637) DXA, according to their medical prescription, and echographic scan of the same anatomical sites performed with the REMS approach. All the medical reports (DXA and REMS) were carefully checked to identify possible errors that could have caused inaccurate measurements: erroneous REMS reports were excluded, whereas erroneous DXA reports were re-analyzed where possible and otherwise excluded before assessing REMS accuracy. REMS precision was independently assessed. RESULTS: In the spinal group, quality assessment on medical reports produced the exclusion of 280 patients because of REMS errors and 78 patients because of DXA errors, whereas 296 DXA reports were re-analyzed and corrected. Analogously, in the femoral group there were 205 exclusions for REMS errors, 59 exclusions for DXA errors, and 217 re-analyzed DXA reports. In the resulting dataset (n = 1195 for spine, n = 1373 for femur) REMS outcome showed a good agreement with DXA: the average difference in bone mineral density (BMD, bias ± 2SD) was -0.004 ± 0.088 g/cm2 for spine and - 0.006 ± 0.076 g/cm2 for femur. Linear regression showed also that the two methods were well correlated: standard error of the estimate (SEE) was 5.3% for spine and 5.8% for femur. REMS precision, expressed as RMS-CV, was 0.38% for spine and 0.32% for femur. CONCLUSIONS: The REMS approach can be used for non-ionizing osteoporosis diagnosis directly on lumbar spine and femoral neck with a good level of accuracy and precision. However, a more rigorous operator training is needed to limit the erroneous acquisitions and to ensure the full clinical practicability.

Cooking influence in tolerance acquisition in egg-induced acute food protein enterocolitis syndrome.

BACKGROUND: Few studies on the age of resolution of Food Protein Induced Enterocolitis Syndrome (FPIES) induced by solid foods are available. In particular, for FPIES induced by egg, the mean age of tolerance acquisition reported in the literature ranges from 42 to 63 months. OBJECTIVE: We have assessed whether the age of tolerance acquisition in acute egg FPIES varies depending on whether the egg is cooked or raw. METHODS: We conducted a retrospective and multicentric study of children with diagnosis of acute egg FPIES seen in 10 Italian allergy units between July 2003 and October 2017. The collected data regarded sex, presence of other allergic diseases, age of onset of symptoms, kind and severity of symptoms, cooking technique of the ingested egg, outcome of the allergy test, age of tolerance acquisition. RESULTS: Sixty-one children with acute egg FPIES were enrolled, 34 (56%) males and 27 (44%) females. Tolerance to cooked egg has been demonstrated by 47/61 (77%) children at a mean age of 30.2 months. For 32 of them, tolerance to raw egg has been demonstrated at a mean age of 43.9 months. No episodes of severe adverse reaction after baked egg ingestion have been recorded. CONCLUSIONS: It is possible to perform an OFC with baked egg, to verify the possible acquisition of tolerance, at about 30 months of life in children with acute egg FPIES.

Diagnostic relevance of IgE sensitization profiles to eight recombinant Phleum pratense molecules.

BACKGROUND: Grass pollen-related seasonal allergic rhinoconjunctivitis (SARg) is clinically heterogeneous in severity, comorbidities, and response to treatment. The component-resolved diagnostics disclosed also a high heterogeneity at molecular level. Our study aimed at analyzing the characteristics of the IgE sensitization to Phleum pratense molecules and investigating the diagnostic relevance of such molecules in childhood. METHODS: We examined 1120 children (age 4-18 years) with SARg. Standardized questionnaires on atopy were acquired through informatics platform (AllergyCARD™). Skin prick tests were performed with pollen extracts. Serum IgE to airborne allergens and eight P. pratense molecules (rPhl p 1, rPhl p 2, rPhl p 4, rPhl p 5b, rPhl p 6, rPhl p 7, rPhl p 11, rPhl p 12) were tested by ImmunoCAP FEIA. RESULTS: The analysis of IgE responses against eight P. pratense molecules showed 87 profiles. According to the number of molecules recognized by IgE, the more complex profiles were characterized by higher serum total IgE, higher grass-specific serum IgE, and higher number and degree of sensitization to pollens. The most frequent IgE sensitization profile was the monomolecular Phl p 1. Sensitization to Phl p 7 was a reliable biomarker of asthma, whereas Phl p 12 of oral allergy syndrome. Sensitization to Phl p 7 was associated with a higher severity of SARg, and complex profiles were associated with longer disease duration. CONCLUSIONS: In a large pediatric population, the complexity of IgE sensitization profiles against P. pratense molecules is related to high atopic features although useless for predicting the clinical severity. The detection of serum IgE to Phl p 1, Phl p 7, and Phl p 12 can be used as clinical biomarkers of SARg and comorbidities. Further studies in different areas are required to test the impact of different IgE molecular profiles on AIT response.

True and false contraindications to vaccines.

Nowadays, the awareness of risks related to infectious diseases has decreased, whereas THE perception of risks related to vaccination is growing. Therefore, it may be difficult for health care providers to convince people of the importance of vaccination and adherence to the immunisation schedule. Selected situations that might raise uncertainties about vaccine recommendations are discussed in order to help health care providers to identify real and perceived contraindications to vaccines, and cases to be referred to specialised pre-vaccination consultation due to an increased risk of adverse events to vaccines.

Endotypes of pollen-food syndrome in children with seasonal allergic rhinoconjunctivitis: a molecular classification.

BACKGROUND: Pollen-food syndrome (PFS) is heterogeneous with regard to triggers, severity, natural history, comorbidities, and response to treatment. Our study aimed to classify different endotypes of PFS based on IgE sensitization to panallergens. METHODS: We examined 1271 Italian children (age 4-18 years) with seasonal allergic rhinoconjunctivitis (SAR). Foods triggering PFS were acquired by questionnaire. Skin prick tests were performed with commercial pollen extracts. IgE to panallergens Phl p 12 (profilin), Bet v 1 (PR-10), and Pru p 3 (nsLTP) were tested by ImmunoCAP FEIA. An unsupervised hierarchical agglomerative clustering method was applied within PFS population. RESULTS: PFS was observed in 300/1271 children (24%). Cluster analysis identified five PFS endotypes linked to panallergen IgE sensitization: (i) cosensitization to ≥2 panallergens ('multi-panallergen PFS'); (ii-iv) sensitization to either profilin, or nsLTP, or PR-10 ('mono-panallergen PFS'); (v) no sensitization to panallergens ('no-panallergen PFS'). These endotypes showed peculiar characteristics: (i) 'multi-panallergen PFS': severe disease with frequent allergic comorbidities and multiple offending foods; (ii) 'profilin PFS': oral allergy syndrome (OAS) triggered by Cucurbitaceae; (iii) 'LTP PFS': living in Southern Italy, OAS triggered by hazelnut and peanut; (iv) 'PR-10 PFS': OAS triggered by Rosaceae; and (v) 'no-panallergen PFS': mild disease and OAS triggered by kiwifruit. CONCLUSIONS: In a Mediterranean country characterized by multiple pollen exposures, PFS is a complex and frequent complication of childhood SAR, with five distinct endotypes marked by peculiar profiles of IgE sensitization to panallergens. Prospective studies in cohorts of patients with PFS are now required to test whether this novel classification may be useful for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes in the clinical practice.

Improving adherence to and persistence with oral therapy of osteoporosis.

UNLABELLED: Osteoporosis treatment has low adherence and persistence. This study evaluated if greater patient involvement could improve them. At 12 months, only 114 out of 344 participants were "fully adherent and persistent" (all drug doses taken throughout the study). Only frequency of drug administration had a significant influence on adherence. INTRODUCTION: Osteoporosis affects millions of individuals worldwide. There are now several effective drugs, but adherence to and persistence with treatment are low. This 12-month multicenter, prospective, randomized study evaluated the efficacy of two different methods aimed at improving adherence and persistence through greater patient involvement, compared with standard clinical practice. METHODS: Three hundred thirty-four post-menopausal women, receiving an oral prescription for osteoporosis for the first time, were recruited and randomized into three groups: group 1 (controls, managed according to standard clinical practice) and groups 2 and 3 (managed with greater patient and caregiver involvement and special reinforcements: group 2, instructed to use several different "reminders"; group 3, same "reminders" as group 2, plus regular phone calls from and meetings at the referring Center). All enrolled women had two visits (baseline and 12 months). RESULTS: Of 334 enrolled women, 247 (74%) started the prescribed therapy. Of those who started, 219 (88.7%) persisted in therapy for at least 10 months. At final evaluation, only 114 women were considered as "fully adherent and persistent" (all doses taken throughout the 12 months). There were no significant differences regarding "full adherence" among the three randomized groups. The frequency of drug administration had a significant influence: weekly administration had a >5-fold higher adherence and monthly administration an 8-fold higher adherence (p < 0.0001) than daily administration. CONCLUSIONS: The special effort of devising and providing additional reminders did not prove effective. Additional interventions during the follow-up, including costly interventions such as phone calls and educational meetings, did not provide significant advantages.

Quality of sleep in allergic children and their parents.

BACKGROUND: Quality of sleep is essential for physical and mental health and influences the perception of the patient's well-being during the day. In patients with chronic allergic diseases sleep disorders may increase the severity of the condition, complicate the management and impair their quality of life. When children are concerned, their parents are also affected by the problem. We evaluated the presence of disrupted sleep in parents of children with atopic disorders, and its relationship with clinical features and the presence of disturbed sleep in children. METHODS: Parents of children suffering from allergic diseases were recruited from the Pediatric Allergy Units of Parma University. Evaluation of sleep in parents was based on the Pittsburg Sleep Quality Index (PSQI), while in children it was based on the Sleep Disturbance Scale for Children (SDSC). RESULTS: Of the 102 parents invited, 92 filled in the questionnaire. Only the questionnaires with more than a 95% completion rate were considered for analysis. PSQI mean score in parents was 6.6 (SD 2.6); 75.6% of them had a PSQI ≥ 5, indicating that most parents had a sleep quality perceived as bad. The PSQI ≥ 5 was more common in parents of children with asthma and rhinitis. In children, SDSC mean score was 42.1 (SD: 9.4); 62.3% had a total score ≥ 39. The quality of sleep in parents and children was significantly correlated (p<0.001). CONCLUSION: These findings make it apparent that an alteration of sleep in children can also affect the parents. Such effect further weighs the burden of respiratory allergy and needs to be considered in future studies.

A comparative study of dual-X-ray absorptiometry and quantitative ultrasonography for the evaluating bone status in subjects with Rett syndrome.

Rett syndrome, an X-linked neurodevelopmental disorder primarily affecting girls, is frequently characterized by a reduced bone mineral density (BMD) with an increased risk of fragility fractures. The aim of the study was to assess bone status by DXA technique and by quantitative ultrasound (QUS) in subjects with Rett syndrome and to evaluate which DXA or QUS parameters better correlate with clinical features. In 156 Rett subjects (mean age 13.6 ± 8.2 years) and in 62 controls, we measured BMD at femoral neck (BMD-FN) and at total femur (BMD-TF). Apparent volumetric bone mineral density (vBMAD) was also calculated. In all subjects, QUS parameters at phalanges by Bone Profiler-IGEA (amplitude-dependent speed of sound: AD-SoS and bone transmission time: BTT) were evaluated. We found that both DXA parameters and QUS parameters were significantly lower in Rett subjects than in controls. All clinical characteristics were positively correlated to BMD-FN, BMD-TF, AD-SoS, and BTT (p < 0.001) but not with vBMAD-FN. All ultrasonographic parameters were significantly correlated to BMD-FN and BMD-TF, whereas vBMAD-FN showed only positive significant correlation with densitometric parameters (p < 001). In Rett subjects BMD-FN was predicted primarily by weight and movement capacity, whereas vBMAD-FN was predicted by weight, height, and calcium intake. Moreover, AD-SoS was predicted by weight, height, and age, while BTT was predicted only by height. In conclusion, in our study the performance of QUS at phalanges was similar to those of BMD at femur, therefore, both areal BMD at femur and QUS at phalanges (AD-SoS and BTT) may be equally useful in the evaluation of skeletal status in Rett patients.

Gender-specific associations of appendicular muscle mass with BMD in elderly Italian subjects.

Currently used diagnostic measures for sarcopenia are based on the evaluation of appendicular skeletal muscle mass (ASMM) divided by height-squared (ASMMI). This study aimed to investigate the associations between different operational definitions of appendicular muscle mass and BMD at different skeletal sites in aging Italian men and women. In 1199 consecutive healthy Italian subjects, aged 55 years or more (854 women, age 64.2 ± 6.4 years and 165 men, age 65.3 ± 6.1 years), we measured BMD at the lumbar spine (LS-BMD), at femoral neck (FN-BMD),at total hip (TH-BMD), at total body (WB-BMD) and at the right hand (H-BMD) and body composition parameters [ASMM, ASMMI, ASMM/Weight, total lean mass and total fat mass by DXA]. In all subjects, we also measured sex hormones, 25-hydroxyvitamin D and bone turnover markers. In men, both ASMM and ASMMI were positively correlated with BMD at all sites, whereas in women, ASMM and ASMMI did not show any significant correlation with BMD. In men, multiple regression analyses showed that ASMM was positively associated (p < 0.01) with FN-BMD, TH-BMD and H-BMD; however, these associations were no longer present when lean mass was included. In women, both fat mass and lean mass were found positively associated with BMD at all sites. In conclusion, among the different operational measures of the ASMM, only ASMM was significantly associated with BMD in elderly men, but not in elderly women.

The assessment of vertebral fractures in elderly women with recent hip fractures: the BREAK Study.

UNLABELLED: This study aimed to evaluate the prevalence of vertebral fractures in elderly women with a recent hip fracture. The burden of vertebral fractures expressed by the Spinal Deformity Index (SDI) is more strictly associated with the trochanteric than the cervical localization of hip fracture and may influence short-term functional outcomes. INTRODUCTION: This study aimed to determine the prevalence and severity of vertebral fractures in elderly women with recent hip fracture and to assess whether the burden of vertebral fractures may be differently associated with trochanteric hip fractures with respect to cervical hip fractures. METHODS: We studied 689 Italian women aged 60 years or over with a recent low trauma hip fracture and for whom an adequate X-ray evaluation of spine was available. All radiographs were examined centrally for the presence of any vertebral deformities and radiological morphometry was performed. The SDI, which integrates both the number and the severity of fractures, was also calculated. RESULTS: Prevalent vertebral fractures were present in 55.7% of subjects and 95 women (13.7%) had at least one severe fracture. The women with trochanteric hip fracture showed higher SDI and higher prevalence of diabetes with respect to those with cervical hip fracture, p=0.017 and p=0.001, respectively. SDI, surgical menopause, family history of fragility fracture, and type2 diabetes mellitus were independently associated with the risk of trochanteric hip fracture. Moreover, a higher SDI was associated with a higher percentage of post-surgery complications (p=0.05) and slower recovery (p<0.05). CONCLUSIONS: Our study suggests that the burden of prevalent vertebral fractures is more strictly associated with the trochanteric than the cervical localisation of hip fracture and that elevated values of SDI negatively influence short term functional outcomes in women with hip fracture.

Relationship between quantitative ultrasound parameters at the calcaneus and health-related quality of life in postmenopausal Italian women: the FEDRO study.

Reduced bone mineral density has been reported to adversely affect health-related quality of life (HRQoL) in postmenopausal women without vertebral fracture. To date, no data exist in the literature about any possible influences of quantitative ultrasonographic (QUS) parameters on HRQoL. This study aimed to assess whether QUS parameters at the calcaneus may be associated with HRQoL. In 1,812 ambulatory postmenopausal women aged 60 years or over, we measured HRQoL by the Quality of Life Questionnaire of the European Foundation for Osteoporosis (QUALEFFO-41) and stiffness index using QUS at the calcaneus. By grouping the 1,812 women on the basis of stiffness index, a highly significant (p < 0.001) difference was found for both total QUALEFFO and five domains of the QUALEFFO, whereas for the Pain and Mental Function domains the significance was modest. Stiffness was inversely associated (p < 0.01) with total QUALEFFO and with all QUALEFFO domains. In stepwise multiple logistic regression analysis stiffness values were negatively associated with both QUALEFFO total score and all domains of the QUALEFFO-41. The presence of concomitant diseases was associated with a worsening of HRQoL in all domains of the QUALEFFO, whereas age was associated with the three domains of physical function but not with the Pain and Mental Function domains. Our study suggests that in postmenopausal women there is a close relationship between bone status measured by QUS at the calcaneus and quality of life assessed by the QUALEFFO. Therefore, QUS at the calcaneus may have a role in early strategies to prevent HRQoL impairment and osteoporosis exacerbation.

Predictive value ofMP4 (Milk Prick Four), a panel of skin prick test for the diagnosis of pediatric immediate cow's milk allergy.

Background. Oral food challenge (OFC) is the gold standard for the diagnosis of food allergy (FA), but it is risky, expensive and time-consuming. Many studies aimed to avoid OFC by finding a cut off (CO) of skin prick test (SPT) to predict a positive outcome of OFC. Unfortunately the results of these studies are poorly reproducible for various reasons, including the absence of known protein concentration in the extracts. It has also been documented that some doctors mistakenly attributed some symptom/disease, for example recurrent respiratory infections of the upper airways, to the FA, expecially cow milk allergy (CMA). These doctors often performed SPT in their studies to confirm, if the result was positive, their diagnostic suspicion and prescribe an elimination diet without seeking the advice of allergy specialist (AS) and without making an OFC. Objective. To test the diagnostic performances of SPT with fresh cow's milk and commercial extracts of casein, beta-lactoglobulin, alpha-lactoalbumin at known protein concentrations (Milk Prick Four [MP4] test). To look for 2 clusters of SPT CO with positive predictive value (PPV) > 95%, one for AS, one for general practitioner (GP). Methods. A prospective study was carried out on 191 children referred by their GP to the allergy center for suspected immediate-type CMA (iCMA). Based on the history, the allergist has divided the children into two groups: a) group A, children with suspected (subgroup A1, 55 children) or known (subgroup A2, 27 children) diagnosis of iCMA; b) group B, 109 children with a clinical history incompatible with iCMA suspicion according to the AS (in this case the GP was wrong to send those patients to the allergy center). SPT with MP4 test was performed on all patients, and OFC was performed on all patients of group A. CO with PPV > 95% was calculated separately for the entire population of 191 children (CO for GP) and for the only group A (CO for AS). Results. Fresh cow's milk SPT was the most sensitive single prick test (sensitivity [SE] 94%, negative predictive value [NPV] 98%). The positivity to any of 3 SPT extracts (performed at the same time) had the same SE and NPV of the single fresh cow's milk SPT. Moreover, fresh cow's milk SPT or any of 3 SPT extract had 100% SE and 100% NPV, having excluded 2 children with Food Protein Induced Enterocolitis Syndorme from data analysis. MP4 CO for GP allow a total savings of 4% of OFC, a percentage that rises to 22% in the subgroup A2, and does not give false positives. MP4 CO for AS allow a total saving of 33% of OFC, rising to 67% in the subgroup A2, but they give a 7/82 false positives in group A. SPT CO of alpha-lactoalbumin had the best performance in both settings. Conclusion. MP4 is a safe and cheap test, easy to perform. All doctors may be confident in excluding iCMA if fresh cow's milk SPT is negative. GP could perform SPT to fresh milk at his own clinic, and safely diagnose iCMA by using our CO for GP, although this may happen only in a few cases. MP4 test performed by AS can help save a greater number of OFC, especially among children with known diagnosis of iCMA.

The association of body composition and sex hormones with quantitative ultrasound parameters at the calcaneus and phalanxes in elderly women.

We investigated the associations of body composition and sex hormones with quantitative ultrasound (QUS) parameters carried out at different skeletal sites. In 897 postmenopausal women (64.1 ± 6.6 years) we measured QUS at the calcaneus (stiffness) by Achilles-GE and at phalanxes (amplitude-dependent speed of sound [AD-SOS], bone transmission time [BTT], and ultrasound bone profile index [UBPI]) by Bone Profiler-IGEA. In all subjects we measured fat mass (FM), lean mass (LM), android fat, and gynoid fat by DXA. In all subjects we also assessed serum testosterone (T), estradiol (E(2)), sex-hormone binding globulin, free estrogen index (FEI), free androgen index, 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25OHD), bone alkaline phosphatase (B-ALP), and type I collagen ß carboxy telopeptide. Both E(2) and FEI showed weak but significant correlations with stiffness and QUS parameters at phalanxes. No significant relationships were found between T and QUS. BMI and LM were positively correlated with stiffness (r = 0.14 and r = 0.17, respectively), whereas BMI and FM showed negative correlations with AD-SOS, BTT, and UBPI. 25OHD showed positive relationships with stiffness and QUS at phalanxes. In multivariate models LM and age were associated with stiffness whereas E(2) and age were significant predictors of BTT. AD-SOS was negatively associated with FM, B-ALP, and age but positively with E(2) and 25OHD. In postmenopausal women QUS parameters at the calcaneus and at phalanxes are significantly, but diversely, associated with body composition, sex hormones, 25OHD, and bone turnover markers.

Immunological modifications induced from products used during the perioperative period.

Anesthetics and other products used during the perioperative period may influence immune function not only merely by reducing the HPA-axis stress response but also by directly modulating innate and adaptive immune responses. Most of the literature on the immune effects of anesthetics has been derived from in vitro or animal studies, due to the number of confounding variables in real life surgical settings. These immunosuppressive effects might not normally have clinical consequences for an immune-competent patient, but may act as important modifiers in postoperative morbidity and mortality. Furthermore, some inhibitory effects on neutrophil functions may provide a therapeutically beneficial effect under specific surgical clinical conditions, such as ischemia-reperfusion injury.

Perioperative anaphylaxis: epidemiology.

The clinical diagnosis of an anesthesia-related immediate hypersensitivity reaction is a difficult task for clinicians. Anaphylaxis may present as cardiovascular collapse or airway obstruction, associated or not with cutaneous manifestations. Drug hypersensitivity reactions that occur during anesthesia are responsible for significant morbidity and mortality and socio-economic costs. Perioperative anaphylaxis is becoming more common, probably because of the more frequent use of anesthesia and the increasing complexity of the drugs used. However, despite increased awareness of anaphylactic reactions to drugs and compounds used in anesthesia, their incidence remains poorly defined. Moreover, current epidemiological data should be carefully evaluated since the various studies published concerned non-homogeneous populations and gave differing definitions of drug hypersensitivity.

Perioperative latex allergy.

The prevalence of latex allergy varies greatly depending on the population studied and the methods used to detect sensitization. Subjects considered to be at high risk for latex allergy are rubber industry workers, children with spina bifida and urological abnormalities, children undergoing multiple surgical procedures and with urinary catheterization, health care workers and people with food allergy (latex fruit syndrome). In this paper we report a review of latex proteins, the symptoms of latex allergy, diagnosis and management in subjects with latex allergy.

Perioperative allergy: risk factors.

Perioperative anaphylactic as well as anaphylactoid reactions can be elicited by drugs, diagnostic agents, antiseptics, disinfectants and latex. In some individuals, allergic reactions occur in the absence of any evident risk factor. Previous history of specific safe exposure to a product does not permit to exclude the risk of having a reaction. We have systematically reviewed characteristics in the patient's history or clinical parameters that affect the risk of developing reactions during anesthesia. Evidence shows that patients with previous unexplained reaction during anesthesia are at risk for perioperative allergic reactions. An allergic reaction to an agent is associated with previous reaction to a product that is related with the culprit agent. Multiple surgery procedures, professional exposure to latex and allergy to fruit are associated with an increased frequency of latex allergy. It has been shown that in some instances, allergic perioperative reactions may be more common in atopic patients and in females.

Perioperative allergy: therapy.

Perioperative allergic reactions manifest in various ways. The majority of systemic reactions occur during anesthesia within minutes of intravenous induction; however, agents which are administered via other routes may cause reactions after more than 15 minutes. Anaphylaxis during anesthesia may present in many different ways and the signs and symptoms, which do not vary from those of anaphylactic reactions in general, may be masked by hypovolemia, light, deep anesthesia or extensive regional blockade. Recommendations for treatment are based on available evidence in the literature. A treatment algorithm is suggested, with emphasis on the incremental titration of adrenaline and fluid therapy as first-line treatment. Increased focus on this subject will hopefully lead to prompt diagnosis and rapid, correct treatment.

Muscle relaxants allergy.

The most common agents that are responsible for intraoperative anaphylaxis are muscle relaxants. In fact, neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) contribute to 50-70 percent of allergic reactions during anaesthesia. The main mechanism of hypersensitivity reactions to NMBAs is represented by acute type I allergic reactions and the most severe form is anaphylaxis. The rate of non IgE mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions usually varies between 20 percent and 35 percent of the reported cases in most large series. In a recent report, non allergic suspected reactions to NMBAs occurred with almost the same frequency as did those with an allergic component. Although the precise mechanisms of these reactions remain difficult to ascertain, they usually result from direct non specific mast cell and basophil activation. After diagnostic procedures, regardless of the specific IgE results, NMBAs are contraindicated if the skin tests were positive. In view of the constantly evolving anesthesiologic practices, and of the complexity of allergy investigation, an active policy to identify patients at risk and to provide any necessary support to anaesthetists and allergologists should be promoted. The high frequency of IgE anaphylactic reactions and the feasibility of skin tests in children justify systematic allergy testing whenever hypersensitivity reaction occurs during general anaesthesia.