Neurofilament heavy chain as a marker of neuroaxonal pathology and prognosis in acute encephalitis.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: The neurological outcome of acute encephalitis can be devastating and early prognosis remains difficult. Biomarkers that quantify the extent of early brain injury are needed to improve the prognostic accuracy and aid patient management. Our objective was to assess whether cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein biomarkers of neuroaxonal and glial cell injury are elevated in distinct forms of acute encephalitis and predictive of poor outcome. METHODS: This was a prospective study of patients presenting with acute encephalitis to three teaching hospitals in London, UK. Levels of neurofilament heavy chain (NfH, SMI35) and S100B were quantified in CSF using enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. The outcome was assessed by the Glasgow Outcome Scale (GOS). RESULTS: Fifty-six patients with acute encephalitis were recruited and classified into the following diagnostic categories: infectious (n = 20), inflammatory (n = 14) and unknown etiology (n = 22). Pathological levels of NfH and S100B were observed in 24/56 (43%) and 54/56 (96%), respectively. Patients with infectious encephalitis had significantly higher NfH levels compared with the other two groups (P < 0.05). A poor outcome (GOS < 5) was associated with significantly higher CSF NfH levels within samples taken 2 weeks after symptom onset. CONCLUSIONS: This study suggests that longitudinal CSF NfH levels are of superior prognostic value compared with CSF S100B levels. Prolonged release of NfH, a marker of neuroaxonal damage, was associated with poor outcome. Potentially there is a window of opportunity for future neuroprotective treatment strategies in encephalitis.

Myasthenia gravis--treatment of acute severe exacerbations in the intensive care unit results in a favourable long-term prognosis.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Acute severe exacerbations of myasthenia gravis (MG) are common in both early and late onset MG. We wished to examine the current management in the intensive care unit (ICU) of severe exacerbations of MG and to study the long-term prognosis of MG following discharge from the ICU. METHODS: We retrospectively reviewed the medical records of all patients admitted to a specialist neuro-ICU with acute exacerbations of MG over a 12-year period. RESULTS: We identified 38 patients. Over 60% were over the age of 50 years, and MG was newly diagnosed in over 40%. Intubation was required in 63%, and over 90% of patients were treated with prednisolone and/or intravenous immunoglobulin. Four patients died in hospital. The remainder of patients were followed up for a mean of 4 years, and the majority were either asymptomatic or had mild symptoms of MG at clinical review. CONCLUSIONS: Despite the significant morbidity and mortality associated with severe exacerbations of MG, specialized neurointensive care can result in a good long-term prognosis in both early- and late-onset MG.

Effect of Deep Margin Elevation on CAD/CAM-Fabricated Ceramic Inlays.

CLINICAL RELEVANCE: Using the deep margin elevation technique in preparations extending beyond the cemento-enamel junction appears to be beneficial in maintaining structural integrity of CAD/CAM-fabricated feldspathic ceramic inlays. SUMMARY: Objective: To evaluate the effect of deep margin elevation on structural and marginal integrity of ceramic inlays.Methods and Materials: Forty extracted human third molars were collected and randomly separated into four groups (n=10/group). In group 1 (enamel margin group), the gingival margin was placed 1 mm supragingival to the cemento-enamel junction (CEJ). In group 2 (cementum margin group), the gingival margin was placed 2 mm below the CEJ. In group 3 (glass ionomer [GI] margin group), the gingival margin was placed 2 mm below the CEJ, and then the margin elevated with GI to the CEJ. In group 4 (resin-modified glass ionomer [RMGI] margin group), the gingival margin was placed 2 mm below the CEJ, and then the margin elevated with RMGI to the CEJ. Standardized ceramic class II inlays were fabricated with computer-aided design/computer-aided manufacturing and bonded to all teeth, and ceramic proximal box heights were measured. All teeth were subjected to 10,000 cycles of thermocycling (5°C/55°C) and then underwent 1,200,000 cycles of vertical chewing simulation at 50 N of force. Ceramic restorations and marginal integrity were assessed with a Hirox digital microscope. The Fisher exact test (two-tailed) with adjusted p-values (α=0.05) and logistic regression were used for statistical analysis.Results: The cementum margin group had a significantly higher ceramic fracture rate (90%) compared to other groups (10% in enamel margin and GI margin groups, p=0.007; 0% in RMGI group, p<0.001). Logistic regression showed that with increased ceramic proximal box heights, the probability of ceramic fracture increased dramatically.Conclusion: Deep marginal elevation resulted in decreased ceramic fracture when preparation margins were located below the CEJ. There was no difference found between margin elevation with GI or RMGI. Increased heights of ceramic proximal box may lead to an increased probability of ceramic fracture.

The role of the thalamus in amnesia: a tractography, high-resolution MRI and neuropsychological study.

Although it is well established that thalamic lesions may lead to profound amnesia, the precise contribution of thalamic sub-regions to memory remains unclear. In an influential article Aggleton and Brown proposed that recognition memory depends on two processes supported by distinct thalamic and cortical structures. Familiarity is mediated by the mediodorsal (MD) thalamic nucleus and the entorhinal/perirhinal cortex. Recollection is mediated by the anterior thalamic nucleus (AN), the mamillothalamic tract (MTT) and the hippocampus. The authors also suggested that the lateral dorsal nucleus (LD) may contribute to the thalamic/hippocampus system, thereby implying that the LD may play a role in recollection. Given the finding that material specific amnesia can occur following thalamic lesions, we tested an extension of the Aggleton and Brown model. We predicted that patients with bilateral lesions with a bias to the left or right MD or AN/MTT/LD may exhibit impaired familiarity or recollection on verbal or non-verbal memoranda. We report two patients with highly focal thalamic lesions and profound memory impairments affecting verbal and non-verbal memoranda. For the first time, diffusion-weighted imaging was employed to perform tractography of the MTT along with high-resolution anatomical MRI and detailed assessments of verbal and non-verbal memory. Our data support only some aspects of the Aggleton and Brown model. Both patients had left MD nucleus and AN/MTT lesions and performed poorly on familiarity and recall for verbal memoranda, just as predicted by the model. However, both patients' performance for non-verbal memoranda (human faces and topography) is more difficult to reconcile with the model. Patient 1 had damage to the right AN/MTT/LD with sparing of the MD: familiarity should therefore have been preserved but was not. Patient 2 had damage to the right MD with sparing of AN/MTT: recollection should have been preserved but was not. This finding raises the possibility that fractionation of familiarity and recollection to separate thalamic nuclei may not fully capture the role of thalamic sub-regions in memory function.

Weakness on the intensive care unit.

Patients who are recovering from critical illness may be weak and difficult to wean from ventilatory support as a complication of their underlying disorder, intercurrent events or treatment given during prolonged intensive care. These patients are difficult to assess because of the severity of their weakness and any accompanying encephalopathy. It is essential to undertake a meticulous review, including assessment of any septic, hypoxic or metabolic derangements and a detailed look at the dosage and duration of medication including antibiotics, neuromuscular junction blocking agents and sedation. If a primary underlying neurological cause or an intercurrent event have been excluded, the likeliest cause of weakness is one of the neuromuscular complications of critical care such as: critical care polyneuropathy, an acute axonal neuropathy which develops in patients with preceding sepsis or multi-organ failure; the use of neuromuscular junction blocking agents or steroids; and critical illness myopathy, which is the most common cause of critical care related weakness.

Nerve excitability changes in critical illness polyneuropathy.

Patients in intensive care units frequently suffer muscle weakness and atrophy due to critical illness polyneuropathy (CIP), an axonal neuropathy associated with systemic inflammatory response syndrome and multiple organ failure. CIP is a frequent and serious complication of intensive care that delays weaning from mechanical ventilation and increases mortality. The pathogenesis of CIP is not well understood and no specific therapy is available. The aim of this project was to use nerve excitability testing to investigate the changes in axonal membrane properties occurring in CIP. Ten patients (aged 37-76 years; 7 males, 3 females) were studied with electrophysiologically proven CIP. The median nerve was stimulated at the wrist and compound action potentials were recorded from abductor pollicis brevis muscle. Strength-duration time constant, threshold electrotonus, current-threshold relationship and recovery cycle (refractoriness, superexcitability and late subexcitability) were recorded using a recently described protocol. In eight patients a follow-up investigation was performed. All patients underwent clinical examination and laboratory investigations. Compared with age-matched normal controls (20 subjects; aged 38-79 years; 7 males, 13 females), CIP patients exhibited reduced superexcitability at 7 ms, from -22.3 +/- 1.6% to -7.6 +/- 3.1% (mean +/- SE, P approximately 0.0001) and increased accommodation to depolarizing (P < 0.01) and hyperpolarizing currents (P < 0.01), indicating membrane depolarization. Superexcitability was reduced both in patients with renal failure and without renal failure. In the former, superexcitability correlated with serum potassium (R = 0.88), and late subexcitability was also reduced (as also occurs owing to hyperkalaemia in patients with chronic renal failure). In patients without renal failure, late subexcitability was normal, and the signs of membrane depolarization correlated with raised serum bicarbonate and base excess, indicating compensated respiratory acidosis. It is inferred that motor axons in these CIP patients are depolarized, in part because of raised extracellular potassium, and in part because of hypoperfusion. The chronic membrane depolarization may contribute to the development of neuropathy.

Probabilistic diffusion tractography: a potential tool to assess the rate of disease progression in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

The goal of probabilistic tractography is to obtain a connectivity index along a white matter pathway that reflects fibre organization and is sensitive to pathological abnormalities contributing to disability. Here, we present the development of voxel-based connectivity measures along the tractography-derived corticospinal tract (CST). We investigated whether these connectivity measures are different in patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and correlate with the rate of disease progression. We also investigated whether fractional anisotropy (FA), which reflects directional coherence of fibre tracts, is reduced in the CST of ALS patients and relates to disease progression rate. Thirteen patients with probable or definite ALS and 19 healthy subjects were studied. The probabilistic tractography algorithm segmented the bilateral CST, along which FA and connectivity values were obtained. To take into account the asymmetric distribution of connectivity values, two summary statistic measures that focused on voxels with higher connectivity values were selected and then used in the analysis, together with the mean connectivity and the mean FA. To complete the analysis, the same summary measures for FA were included. Differences in all these indices between patients with moderate or rapid disease progression rate and controls were investigated using linear regression, adjusted for age and white matter fraction. The association between FA or connectivity in the CST and the disease progression rate was assessed using linear regression. Patients with a rapid disease progression rate had significantly lower summary connectivity measures than controls in the left CST, but there was only a borderline statistical difference in mean connectivity. Patients with rapid progression had a significantly lower mean FA, and any other FA measure, in both CSTs than controls. When only patients were considered, strong associations between the rate of disease progression and all the connectivity measures in the left CST were found (P-values between P < 0.001 and P = 0.002, partial correlation coefficients between -0.90 and -0.82). However, there was no evidence of an association between disease progression rate and any of the FA measures in the bilateral CST. Our findings suggest that FA and connectivity provide complementary information, since FA is sensitive to the detection of all the group differences, whereas the summary connectivity measures correlate with disease progression rate. The development of such connectivity measures raises their potential as markers of disease progression in ALS, and provides guidance for their use in other neurological diseases.

Infection-associated encephalopathies: their investigation, diagnosis, and treatment.

Reduced level of consciousness is a common clinical finding in acutely sick patients. In the majority of cases a cause for the encephalopathy is readily identifiable,whilst in a minority the aetiology is more difficult to ascertain. Frequently the onset of encephalopathy is associated with, or follows, infection. The mechanisms through which infection leads to encephalopathy are diverse. They range from direct microbial invasion of the brain or its supporting structures, to remote, infection-triggered mechanisms such as acute disseminated encephalomyelitis. Most common however, is the encephalopathy caused through a remote effect of systemic sepsis-septic encephalopathy. This article discusses the clinical presentation and underlying pathogeneses of the acute encephalopathies associated with infection, aiming to aid both their recognition and treatment.

CD56 expression in acute promyelocytic leukemia: a possible indicator of poor treatment outcome?

PURPOSE: Blast expression of CD56 is frequent in patients with t(8;21)(q22;q22) acute myeloid leukemia and is associated with an inferior outcome. The expression of CD56 has rarely been reported in acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) and has not been clinically characterized. Therefore, we examined the prognostic significance of CD56 expression in APL. PATIENTS AND METHODS: We identified all reported cases of CD56+ APL in the medical literature and collected clinical, biologic, and therapeutic details. RESULTS: Data were obtained for 12 patients with CD56+ APL (> 20% blast expression of CD56), including four cases from a single institution with a total of 42 APL patients. All of the CD56+ APL patients had documented cytogenetic presence of t(15;17), and of the nine reported isotypes, eight (89%) were S-isoform. Only six CD56+ patients (50%) attained complete remission (CR); the other six individuals died within 35 days of presentation. Of the six patients who attained a CR, three (50%) relapsed at 111, 121, and 155 weeks, whereas three remained in continuous CR at 19, 90, and 109 weeks. Comparison of the control CD56- to CD56+ APL patients demonstrated that the latter group had a significantly lower fibrinogen level (P = .007), and among patients for whom data were available, there was a higher frequency of the S-isoform (P = .006). Additionally, the CR rate (50% v 84%, P = .025) and overall median survival (5 v 232 weeks; P = .019) were significantly inferior for CD56+ APL patients. CONCLUSION: CD56+ acute promyelocytic leukemia is infrequent, seems to occur more frequently with the S-isoform subtype, and may be associated with a lower CR rate and inferior overall survival.

Rituximab using a thrice weekly dosing schedule in B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia and small lymphocytic lymphoma demonstrates clinical activity and acceptable toxicity.

PURPOSE: Rituximab has been reported to have little activity in small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL)/chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and to be associated with significant infusion-related toxicity. This study sought to decrease the initial toxicity and optimize the pharmacokinetics with an alternative treatment schedule. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Thirty three patients with SLL/CLL received dose 1 of rituximab (100 mg) over 4 hours. In cohort I (n = 3; 250 mg/m(2)) and cohort II (n = 7; 375 mg/m(2)) rituximab was administered on day 3 and thereafter three times weekly for 4 weeks using a standard administration schedule. Cohort III (n = 23; 375 mg/m(2)) administered rituximab similar to cohort II for the first two treatments and then over 1 hour thereafter. RESULTS: A total of 33 CLL/SLL patients were enrolled; only one patient discontinued therapy because of infusion-related toxicity. Thirteen patients developed transient hypoxemia, hypotension, or dyspnea that were associated with significant changes in baseline interleukin-6, interleukin-8, tumor necrosis factor alpha, and interferon gamma compared with those not experiencing such reactions. Infusion-related toxicity occurred more commonly in older (median age 73 v 62 years; P =.02) patients with no other pretreatment clinical or laboratory features predicting occurrence of these events. The overall response rate was 45% (3% CR, 42% PR; 95% CI 28% to 64%). Median response duration for these 15 patients was 10 months (95% CI, 6.8-13.2; range, 3 to 17+). CONCLUSION: Rituximab administered thrice weekly for 4 weeks demonstrates clinical efficacy and acceptable toxicity. Initial infusion-related events seem to be cytokine mediated and resolve by the third infusion making rapid administration possible. Future combination studies of rituximab with other therapies in CLL seem warranted.

Analysis of an adult Duchenne muscular dystrophy population.

BACKGROUND: Advances in management have led to increasing numbers of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) reaching adulthood. Older patients with DMD are necessarily severely disabled, and their management presents particular practical issues. AIM: To review the management of a late adolescent and adult DMD population, and to identify areas in which the present service provisions may be inadequate to their needs. DESIGN: Retrospective review. METHODS: We studied 25 patients with DMD referred to an adult neuromuscular clinic over a 7-year period. Clinical details were obtained retrospectively, from case notes or direct observations. RESULTS: There were 24 males and one symptomatic female carrier. Nine patients died during the observation period. There was no significant correlation between age of wheelchair confinement and age of death. Sixteen patients received non-invasive positive pressure support. Twelve attended mainstream schools and 12, residential special schools. All the patients lived at home for some or all of the time, when their main carers were either one or both of the parents. The most striking difficulties were with the provision of practical aids, including appropriate hoists and belts, feeding and toileting aids, and the conversion of accommodation. Patients rarely wished to discuss the later stages of their disease, and death was often more precipitate than expected. Death usually occurred outside hospital and the final cause was often difficult to establish. DISCUSSION: Adult patients with DMD develop progressive impairment, due to respiratory, orthopaedic and general medical factors. However, the particular areas of difficulty in this study often reflected inadequate and poorly directed social and medical support, illustrating the need for improvements in the structure, co-ordination and breadth of rehabilitation services for adult patients with DMD.

Frontotemporal lobar degeneration with ubiquitin-only-immunoreactive neuronal changes: broadening the clinical picture to include progressive supranuclear palsy.

The frontotemporal lobar degenerations (FTLDs) are a group of disorders in which the clinical picture is not necessarily predictive of the underlying neuropathology. The FTLD with ubiquitin-only-immunoreactive neuronal changes (FTLD-U) subtype is pathologically characterized by ubiquitin-positive, tau and alpha-synuclein-negative neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions in the frontotemporal cortex and hippocampal dentate fascia. When similar pathological changes are accompanied by histological features of motor neuron disease (MND), the term FTLD-MND is used. The latter pathological changes may be found in patients with or without clinical evidence of MND. We retrospectively reviewed the clinical details of three patients with a rapidly progressive, levodopa-unresponsive bradykinetic-rigid syndrome and frontal cognitive impairment. A diagnosis of progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP) had been considered in all three cases at initial presentation. Two of the cases fulfilled clinical diagnostic criteria for PSP, which was the final clinical diagnosis during life. Pathological analysis showed typical histological appearances of FTLD-MND in two cases and of FTLD-U in one case. Semi-quantitative analysis of pathological load seemed to correlate with the clinical phenotype. FTLD-U or FTLD-MND should be considered in the differential diagnosis of progressive frontal dementia with an akinetic rigid syndrome and supranuclear gaze palsy or Steele-Richardson-Olszewski disease.

Transient abnormalities in serum bilirubin and lactate dehydrogenase levels following red blood cell transfusions in adults.

BACKGROUND: The effect of transfusion of small amounts of packed red blood cells (PRBC) on serum chemistry values is not known. METHODS: We studied 73 adult patients without evidence of bleeding who received 2-unit PRBC transfusions. In study 1 (n=39), we examined multiple laboratory values pretransfusion and 15 minutes, 1 hour, 2 hours, and 24 hours posttransfusion. In study 2 (n=34), we examined changes in fractionated bilirubin, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin prior to and 1 hour following the transfusion. RESULTS: Total bilirubin increased from a median pretransfusion baseline of 0.7 mg/dL to 1.4 mg/dL shortly after transfusion (P <0.0005), and then returned to normal 24 hours later. Of the 36 patients with normal pretreatment total bilirubin levels, 17 (47%) became transiently abnormal. The lactate dehydrogenase level increased similarly 15 minutes after transfusion, but returned to baseline 24 hours later. The unconjugated bilirubin level increased from a median baseline pretransfusion value of 0.3 mg/dL to 1.1 mg/dL at 1 hour posttransfusion (P <0.0005). No significant changes were noted in conjugated bilirubin levels or haptoglobin concentration following transfusion. CONCLUSIONS: Transient increases in serum bilirubin and lactate dehydrogenase are seen following transfusion of PRBC. These data should be considered when interpreting laboratory values during the first few hours after a transfusion.

Treatment of premenstrual dysphoric disorder with sertraline during the luteal phase: a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled crossover trial.

BACKGROUND: The authors designed a randomized, double-blind, crossover study to assess the efficacy of sertraline in the treatment of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) when given only during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. METHOD: Thirty-one subjects were selected for a 7-month study period that included an initial 2 months of screening, 2 months of treatment with placebo or sertraline, 1 washout month, and 2 months of crossover treatment with either placebo or sertraline. Eleven subjects completed the study. Symptoms were monitored with daily reports using the Calendar of Premenstrual Experience (COPE). For each study phase, premenstrual COPE scores (7 days prior to menses) were examined using repeated measures analysis of variance. Scores were logarithmically transformed. Comparison of baseline scores between the luteal and follicular phases was examined using the paired t test. RESULTS: Analysis of COPE results during the treatment periods of the luteal phase showed a significant treatment effect, with higher scores during the placebo cycles compared with the sertraline-treated cycles (p = .0052 behavioral, p = .014 physical). CONCLUSION: This study is the first to demonstrate a significant response to a serotonin selective reuptake inhibitor used only during the luteal phase. The authors point out the importance of this finding both in terms of economic cost of patients as well as how it may add to the growing understanding of the etiology of PMDD.

Accuracy of respiratory inductive plethysmography for the diagnosis of upper airway resistance syndrome.

OBJECTIVE: To determine the sensitivity and specificity of quantitative respiratory inductive plethysmography (RIP) compared with the "gold standard," nocturnal esophageal pressure (Pes) measurement, in the diagnosis of upper airway resistance syndrome (UARS) in adults. METHODS: Fourteen consecutive patients without obstructive sleep apnea and suspected of having UARS underwent simultaneous measurement of Pes with a catheter and standard nocturnal polysomnography along with RIP. UARS events (RERAs, respiratory effort-related arousals) were identified by observing crescendo changes in Pes with a Pes nadir < or = -12 cm H2O, followed by an arousal or microarousal. UARS was defined as > or = 10 RERAs per hour. For each patient, the ratio of peak inspiratory flow to mean inspiratory flow (PIFMF) measured by RIP was performed during quiet wakefulness and with 40 randomly selected breaths in the supine position for two conditions: stage 2 sleep, immediately prior to arousals in any sleep stage. The mean PIFMF (wake-sleep) was calculated for each condition. RESULTS: The sensitivities and specificities, respectively, of RIP to distinguish UARS patients from non-UARS patients are from stage 2 sleep (67%, 80%), immediately prior to arousals (100%, 100%). For breaths occurring immediately prior to arousals, the mean PIFMF (wake-sleep) is > or = 0.13 for UARS patients and < 0.13 for non-UARS patients. CONCLUSION: The PIFMF measured by RIP allows for the most accurate identification of UARS patients when breaths are selected for analysis immediately prior to arousals.

Sensitivity and specificity of bronchial provocation testing. An evaluation of four techniques in exercise-induced bronchospasm.

The thresholds used to define a positive result for bronchial provocation challenges (BPC) are arbitrary. Requiring smaller decrements in expired flow to define a positive study would capture more cases of reactive airways (increased sensitivity) but would include some "normal" responses (decreased specificity). To examine the relationship between threshold definition and the ability to correctly classify subjects as either normal or as having airways hyperresponsiveness (AHR), four different BPC tests were administered on different days to 20 patients with a clinical diagnosis of exercise-induced bronchospasm (EIB) and 20 control subjects. The four BPC tests were indoor exercise on a cycle ergometer, methacholine inhalation challenge (MIC), eucapnic voluntary hyperventilation (EVH) with dry gas, and EVH with cold gas. Our results indicate that the thresholds which best separate the two groups are different for each of the four BPC techniques. For methacholine inhalation (MIC), a fall in FEV1 (d%FEV1) of 15 percent or greater at 188 cumulative breath units was 100 percent specific for AHR but had a sensitivity of only 55 percent. Eucapnic voluntary hyperventilation (EVH) with room temperature dry gas was 100 percent specific at a d%FEV1 of 11 percent, but, at that threshold, sensitivity was only 50 percent. EVH with cold air was 100 percent specific at a d%FEV1 of 12 percent but sensitivity was only 35 percent. The bicycle ergometer challenge was far too insensitive to be of value in evaluating AHR. Based on their respective receiver operating characteristic curves, the best separation of the two subject groups occurred at a d%FEV1 of 5 percent and 12 percent for the two EVH techniques and MIC, respectively. An individual's response to one test was highly correlated with the response to either of the other two (r = 0.66, p less than 0.001 for dry vs cold gas EVH; r = 0.56, p less than 0.001 for dry gas EVH vs methacholine; and r = 0.69, p less than 0.001 for cold gas EVH vs methacholine). Thus, MIC and EVH techniques are equally useful in defining AHR and each has its optimal threshold for a positive test result.

Do-not-resuscitate decisions in the medical ICU: comparing physician and nurse opinions.

STUDY OBJECTIVE: To determine how soon after admission to a medical ICU physicians and nurses decide that attempts at resuscitation are inappropriate and how frequently physicians and nurses disagree about do-not-resuscitate (DNR) decisions. DESIGN: Prospective, opinion survey of care providers. SETTING: Ten-bed adult medical ICU in a university-affiliated tertiary care referral hospital. PATIENTS: Consecutive adult medical ICU admissions. INTERVENTIONS: Over 10 months, physicians and nurses were surveyed independently every day regarding their opinions about DNR issues on each patient in the ICU. MEASUREMENTS: ICU day when DNR order was deemed appropriate by either physicians or nurses. RESULTS: Of 368 consecutive admissions, 84 (23%) patients were designated DNR during their ICU stay. In 6 of these 84 cases (7%), the responsible nurse did not agree that DNR orders were appropriate. In the remaining 78 patients designated DNR, the median time for physicians to recommend DNR (median, 1 day; range, 0 to 22 days) was not significantly different from the median time for nurses (median, 1 day; range, 0 to 13 days); (p=0.45). For the 284 patients not designated DNR, physicians and nurses both believed DNR was appropriate in 14 cases (5%), but a DNR order was not written five times (2%) because there was not time to do so and nine times (3%) because patient or family did not concur. Physicians and nurses disagreed about a DNR recommendation in 33 of the 284 patients not designated DNR (12%). Physicians were more likely to believe that DNR was appropriate than were nurses (p<0.0005), with physicians alone recommending DNR 29 times (10%) and nurses alone favoring DNR in four cases (1%). CONCLUSIONS: At our institution, recognition of DNR appropriateness by nurses and physicians occurs over a similar time frame. However, physicians are more likely to recommend DNR in cases of disagreement between nurses and physicians.

Bronchial vasodilation by histamine in sheep: characterization of receptor subtype.

Histamine has been shown to mediate features of pulmonary allergic reactions including increased tracheobronchial blood flow. To determine whether the increase in blood flow was due to stimulation of H1- or H2-histamine receptors, we gave histamine base (0.1 micrograms/kg iv) or histamine dihydrochloride as an aerosol (10 breaths of 0.5% "low dose" or 5% "high dose") before and after H1- or H2-receptor antagonists. Blood velocity in the common bronchial branch of the bronchoesophageal artery (Vbr) was continuously measured using a chronically implanted Doppler flow probe. Pretreatment with H2-receptor antagonists cimetidine, ranitidine, or metiamide did not affect the increase in Vbr induced by intravenous histamine [106 +/- 45% (SD)]. Addition of the H1-receptor antagonists diphenhydramine or chlorpheniramine, however, reduced the Vbr response to 16 +/- 22, 21 +/- 28, 23 +/- 23, and 37 +/- 32% of the unblocked responses (P less than 0.05) when intravenous histamine was given at 3, 10, 20, and 30 min, respectively, after the H1 antagonist. At 40, 50, and 60 min the H1-receptor blockade appeared to attenuate, but subsequent continuous infusion of chlorpheniramine (2 mg.kg-1.min-1) then blocked the histamine response for 60 min. Low-dose histamine aerosol did not change mean arterial or pulmonary arterial pressures, cardiac output, or arterial blood gases but increased Vbr transiently from 15.2 +/- 3.4 to 37.6 +/- 8.4 (SE) cm/s. After chlorpheniramine, the Vbr response to histamine, 16.3 +/- 2.2 to 22.6 +/- 3.6 cm/s, was significantly reduced (P less than 0.05).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

Cecal volvulus. A case for nonresectional therapy.

Sixteen cases of acute cecal volvulus were retrospectively evaluated. A follow-up was obtained averaging 5.6 years. The average age of the 14 female and two male patients was 47 years. Sixty-two percent of the patients were younger than 50 years of age. Eighty-one percent of the patients had undergone prior operation, with four of these 13 patients having been operated on within the preceding 30 days. Gynecologic procedures accounted for 40% of the previously performed operations. Plain abdominal films and results of barium enema examination were diagnostic or highly suspicious of cecal volvulus. Fourteen nonresectional procedures were performed. No subsequent abdominal operations for recurrence have been required. The concept that this lesion requires resection in the absence of necrosis cannot be supported by our data.

Evaluation of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay in Thai scrub typhus patients.

We report the development of an improved enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect Orientia (formerly Rickettsia) tsutsugamushi antibody in human sera. Results were compared with a standard test, the indirect immunoperoxidase assay (IIP). Control serum samples were collected from 96 American soldiers and 198 Royal Thai Army soldiers with no recent history of clinical illness. Sera were examined from 79 febrile, Thai scrub typhus patients presenting at Chiang Rai (76) and Bangkraui Nontaburi (3) Provincial hospitals (cases confirmed by elevated IIP IgG levels > or = 1:1,600, IgM levels > or = 1:400, or presence of an eschar). The mean + 2 SD, used for the upper limit of normal reactions in the IgG ELISA, was 0.10 for U.S. soldiers and 0.42 for Thai soldiers. Using the 0.10 cutoff value, 29% of the asymptomatic Thai soldiers would be designated as antibody positive. Variability of IgG ELISA values was greater in the Thai soldier group than in American soldiers, possibly reflecting previous exposure to O. tsutsugamushi. In the Thai patients, there was a significant correlation between IIP titers and single serum dilution (1:100) ELISA values (IgG, r = 0.75, n = 104; P < 0.0005; IgM, r = 0.70, n = 75; P < 0.0005) and between IIP titers and ELISA titers (IgG, r = 0.87, n = 103; P < 0.0005; IgM, r = 0.76, n = 75; P < 0.0005). The single serum dilution ELISA was as effective as the titration in determining presence of specific antibodies. The O. tsutsugamushi ELISA is a rapid and objective test amenable to accurately testing the large numbers of sera often obtained in seroepidemiologic investigations.