Structure and regulation of the Salmonella typhimurium rnc-era-recO operon.

The Escherichia coli rnc-era-recO operon encodes ribonuclease III (RNase III; a dsRNA endonuclease involved in rRNA and mRNA processing and decay), Era (an essential G-protein of unknown functions and RecO (involved in the RecF homologous recombination pathway). Expression of the rnc and era genes is negatively autoregulated: RNase III cleaves the rncO 'operator' in the untranslated leader, destabilizing the operon mRNA. As part of a larger effort to understand RNase III and Era structure and function, we characterized rnc operon structure, function and regulation in the closely related bacterium Salmonella typhimurium. Construction of a S typhimurium strain conditionally defective for RNase III and Era expression showed that Era is essential for cell growth. This mutant strain also enabled selection of recombinant clones containing the intact S typhimurium rnc-era-recO operon, whose nucleotide sequence, predicted protein sequence, and predicted rncO RNA secondary structure were all highly conserved with those of E coli. Furthermore, genetic and biochemical analysis revealed that S typhimurium rnc gene expression is negatively autoregulated by a mechanism very similar or identical to that in E coli, and that the cleavage specificities of RNase IIIs.t. and RNase IIIE.c. are indistinguishable with regard to rncO cleavage and S typhimurium 23S rRNA fragmentation in vivo.

Improved survival in severely burned animals using intravenous Corynebacterium parvum vaccine post injury.

This study was designed to determine the potential benefit or toxicity of an immunomodulator, Corynebacterium parvum vaccine, when it is given after severe burn injury. Forty conditioned beagles received a 33% total body surface 3-degree flame burn and were resuscitated with Ringer's lactate solution (3 ml/kg/% burn). Wounds were treated daily for 10 days with silver sulfadiazine cream. Two days and nine days after burn, 21 of the animals received C. parvum vaccine (10 mg/kg IV) in a saline infusion, while 19 control animals were given only saline infusion according to a double-blind protocol. Serial measurements were made of temperature, weight, food intake, hematocrit, hemoglobin, red blood count, white blood count, differential, platelet count, fibrin degradation products, activated partial thromboplastin time, clot retraction, C3, blood cultures, neutrophil function, monocyte function, opsonic index, Na, K, Cl, BUN, glucose creatinine, total protein albumin, albumin/globulin ratio, alkaline phosphatase, SGPT, and SGOT. During 45 days of observation, only 16% of the saline control dogs survived compared to 47% of the treated animals. Total white counts and neutrophil function were the only values which were significantly better in animals receiving C. parvum. However, their correlation with increased survival was marginal This preclinical trial suggests that C. parvum is an effective immunodulator for prevention of fatal infection following burn injury. There were no demonstrable toxic effects of the material in this study.

Relative accuracy of fine-needle aspiration and frozen section in the diagnosis of well-differentiated thyroid cancer.

The need for and extent of thyroid surgery for a thyroid nodule is usually primarily based on fine-needle aspiration (FNA) and frozen section diagnosis. The relative role of these modalities in 66 patients who had undergone FNA and subsequent thyroidectomy with frozen section was investigated. Cases that demonstrated discordance between FNA and frozen section (n = 22; 33%) were identified, and all slides were re-reviewed by a cytopathologist using current established cytologic criteria. A change in diagnosis was made in 13 cases with an increase in accuracy of FNA from 71% to 88%. The accuracy of frozen section (92%) did not change appreciably with re-review (94%). The accuracy of FNA and frozen section combined was found to be 98%. The rate of discordance decreased from 33% to 13% with re-review. When strict histologic and cytologic criteria are applied, FNA and frozen section are accurate and complementary methods that help in determining the operative management of thyroid masses. However, when FNA yields a diagnosis of "follicular neoplasm," frozen section is unlikely to change this diagnosis.

Case report: metolazone-associated hypercalcemia and acute pancreatitis.

Metolazone-induced acute pancreatitis and hypercalcemia are described in a 58-year-old woman with severe congestive cardiac failure. Her symptoms and laboratory abnormalities rapidly resolved upon discontinuation of metolazone. Both clinical and laboratory findings make other etiologies for the patient's pancreatitis extremely unlikely. The pathophysiology of thiazide-related hypercalcemia and pancreatitis is reviewed. To our knowledge, neither hypercalcemia nor the combination of acute pancreatitis with hypercalcemia has been reported previously in association with metolazone therapy, and the association of pancreatitis and metolazone has been noted previously only once.

Operation of the National Preventive Dentistry Demonstration Program.

Operation of large-scale, multiple-site demonstration programs is an infrequent activity, one for which most investigators have had little previous experience. The success of a demonstration program, however, often rests on operational aspects. Following the completion of a major demonstration, the writers discuss the design of their program, the problems they encountered in its operation, and the aspects they would change in future demonstrations.

A review of the practice of fibreoptic endoscopic dilatation of oesophageal stricture.

Over a 5-year period 82 patients underwent 244 fibreoptic endoscopic dilatations for oesophageal stricture. A total of 55 patients had benign peptic oesophageal stricture caused by reflux oesophagitis. Two-thirds of these patients had good symptomatic relief with dilatation combined with medical treatment of reflux, whereas one-third had an unsatisfactory result. The practice of endoscopic dilatation in benign stricture proved to be safe and was cost-effective as the procedure was carried out under intravenous sedation on a day-care basis. Three patients underwent dilatation for achalasia with good results in two cases. There were 16 patients with malignant oesophageal stricture and, in this group, fibreoptic endoscopic dilatation had little role to play in relieving dysphagia and its practice was associated with a substantial morbidity and mortality. Dilatation of malignant strictures facilitated biopsy and was used prior to oesophageal intubation. The virtues of the Atkinson or Celestin tube put in with the Nottingham introducer are summarised. Eight patients developed anastomotic stricture after resection of carcinoma of the oesophagus and dilatation provided only very transient relief of dysphagia in this group. Most anastomotic strictures represented recurrent malignancy and the difficulty in gaining biopsy proof endoscopically is emphasised. We advocate the early use of a CT scan in this situation to make the diagnosis of recurrent malignancy so that, if appropriate, palliative treatment can be instituted while the patient's general condition is good enough to benefit from it.

Prolonged treatment with omeprazole does not improve the eradication rate of Helicobacter pylori infection--a short report [corrected].

Omeprazole has been shown to have a suppressive effect on Helicobacter pylori. The aim of this study was to determine if prolonged treatment with omeprazole would result in a higher eradication rate than short course treatment. Twenty patients with endoscopy proven duodenal ulcers and unequivocal evidence of Helicobacter pylori (HP) infection based on culture, histology, urease test and Gram's stain of a fresh tissue smear were treated with omeprazole 40 mg om for 2-4 weeks. Following ulcer healing, patients received either maintenance omeprazole 20 mg om or placebo for up to one year. All 20 patients had healed ulcers following a 2-4 week course of omeprazole 40 mg om.. All were negative for HP at the end of treatment. Thirteen patients received short course therapy with omeprazole only, followed by placebo. On follow-up endoscopy at 3 months, only one of 13 (7.7%) had eradicated the bacteria. Seven patients received maintenance treatment with omeprazole 20mg om for one year. Following completion of treatment, patients were followed up at 1, 3 and 6 months. Only one of 7 (14.3%) patients had eradicated the infection on long term follow-up. The eradication rates of HP with both short and long course omeprazole monotherapy were low.

Correlations between the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator and the Neo Personality Inventory facets.

Using data obtained from 48 male and 161 female undergraduate students in psychology, correlations between scores on the scales of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator and the facets of the Neuroticism, Extraversion, and Openness domains of the NEO Personality Inventory were low to moderate.

Neutropenic enterocolitis treated by primary resection with anastomosis in a leukaemic patient receiving chemotherapy.

Neutropenic enterocolitis is a complication of patients receiving chemotherapy for malignant disease. It has a characteristic presentation and may lead to gut perforation with consequent high mortality. It is best treated by early surgical intervention. Considerable mortality is inevitable in these gravely ill patients.

FlbT, the post-transcriptional regulator of flagellin synthesis in Caulobacter crescentus, interacts with the 5' untranslated region of flagellin mRNA.

Flagellar gene expression' in Caulobacter crescentus is regulated by a complex trans-acting hierarchy, in which the assembly of early structural proteins is required for the expression of later structural proteins. The flagellins that comprise the filament are regulated at both the transcriptional and the post-transcriptional levels. Post-transcriptional regulation is sensitive to the assembly of the flagellar basal body and hook structures. In mutant strains lacking these structures, flagellin genes are transcribed, but not translated. Mutations in the flagellar regulatory gene, flbT, restore flagellin translation in the absence of flagellar assembly. In this report, we investigate the mechanism of FlbT-mediated post-transcriptional regulation. We show that FlbT is associated with the 5' untranslated region (UTR) of fljK (25 kDa flagellin) mRNA and that this association requires a predicted loop structure in the transcript. Mutations within this loop abolished FlbT association and resulted in increased mRNA stability, indicating that FlbT promotes the degradation of flagellin mRNA by associating with the 5' UTR. We also assayed the effects on gene expression using mutant transcripts fused to lacZ. Interestingly, the mutant transcript that failed to associate with FlbT in vitro was still repressed in mutants defective in flagellum assembly, suggesting that other factors in addition to FlbT couple assembly to translation.

Radiologic manifestations in alcaptonuria.

Alcaptonuria is a rare, hereditary disorder of amino acid metabolism, secondary to lack of homogentisic acid oxydase . As a consequence, there is an accumulation of homogentisic acid, which is excreted in the urine and deposited in the connective tissues. This deposition results in ochronotic pigmentation and arthropathy, of which some characteristic radiological findings are demonstrated.

Reversal of jejunoileal bypass in patients with morbid obesity.

Jejunoileal bypass for morbid obesity was performed on 182 patients between 1971 and 1982. At 19 years' follow-up 60 (33 per cent) have had to undergo reversal. The compelling reasons for reversal were life-threatening malnutrition, immune complex disease, renal oxalate stones, osteomalacia and severe electrolyte disturbance. All patients gained weight after reversal of the jejunoileal bypass; most gained all the weight they had lost. Thirty-one patients returned to grade III obesity and 14 to grade II. Twelve patients had an associated vertical gastroplasty: ten regained their previous weight and only two stayed within normal weight. Patients were generally free from bypass-associated symptoms and complications apart from arthralgia and arthritis. This report concludes a series of articles published by the authors on jejunoileal bypass over the past 20 years describing the rise and fall of this surgical procedure.

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) symptoms in PTSD patients' families of origin.

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) patients, psychiatric controls, and hospital employee controls rated their father, mother, and oldest sibling of each sex on 14 PTSD Interview (PTSD-I) symptom ratings. The stress disorder patients assigned their relatives significantly higher PTSD-I ratings than the control group members did in 35 of 120 comparisons. The number of significant differences was nearly identical in the fathers, mothers, sisters, and brothers. Differences were particularly frequent on items pertaining to intrusive thoughts, impoverished relationships, and guilt. The results suggest that a trauma survivor's risk for PTSD may be related to his family's history for PTSD-like behaviors.

Do computer-administered Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventories underestimate booklet-based scores?

We ran meta-analyses that compared the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scale scores produced in 770 booklet and 762 computer administrations described by nine studies. While most of the differences were small, the computer-based scores significantly underestimated their booklet counterparts on 8 of the 13 scales. The average underestimate was about three-quarters of a T-score point and accounted for around 4% of the reliable variance. These findings suggest that separate norms and profile sheets for computer-administered MMPIs might be helpful.

Social maladjustment indicators in PTSD patients' families of origin.

We compared the frequencies with which PTSD patients, psychiatric controls, and hospital employee controls reported that their fathers, mothers, and oldest siblings of each sex had been incarcerated or had received psychiatric/psychological treatment. We also compared estimates of the number of psychiatric hospitalizations, incarcerations, courses of outpatient treatment, treatment sessions, and days of institutionalization undergone by the relatives. Only a chance number of significant differences appeared, which suggests that general psychosocial maladjustment in one's family of origin does not appear to increase trauma survivors' risk for PTSD.

Conservative treatment and long term prophylactic thyroxine in the prevention of recurrence of multinodular goiter.

It has not been universally agreed upon that there is an optimum treatment for multinodular goiter and that use of thyroxine postoperatively in preventing recurrence is effective. We have studied a group of 185 patients who underwent thyroid gland operations and who were observed for a mean period of 10.25 years. Of these, 171 patients received postoperative thyroxine in a dose of 100 micrograms per day and a small group (14 patients) received no medication. In the group receiving no thyroxine, there were six recurrences, and in the group that received postoperative prophylactic thyroxine, there were nine recurrences, which is statistically significant (p = 0.003 per cent). When recurrences did occur in the thyroxine treated group they were small and easily managed by increasing the dose of thyroxine. No patient who took thyroxine postoperatively continuously underwent a second thyroidectomy. We conclude that, in this series, our policy of resecting only macroscopically pathologic thyroid tissue and prescribing prophylactic postoperative thyroxine is successful in preventing recurrent nodular goiter.

The PTSD interview: rationale, description, reliability, and concurrent validity of a DSM-III-based technique.

This paper describes the PTSD Interview (PTSD-I). It was developed to meet four specifications: (a) close correspondence to DSM-III standards; (b) binary present/absent and continuous severity/frequency outputs on each symptom and the entire syndrome; (c) administrable by trained subprofessionals; and (d) substantial reliability and validity. It was written to meet the first three criteria. It demonstrated very high internal consistency (alpha = .92) and test-retest reliability (Total score r = .95; diagnostic agreement = 87%). It correlated strongly with parallel DIS criteria (Total score vs. DIS diagnosis rbis = .94, sensitivity = .89, specificity = .94, overall hit rate = .92, and kappa = .84). Earlier studies revealed correlations with a military stress scale and Keane et al.'s MMPI PTSD subscale. It is apparently the only PTSD instrument that meets all of the above criteria.

A factor analysis of the DSM-III post-traumatic stress disorder criteria.

The authors factor analyzed DSM-III-based post-traumatic stress disorder symptom ratings made on 131 Vietnam-veteran PTSD patients. Five factors--termed Intrusive Thoughts and Their Effects, Increased Arousal, Impoverished Relationships, Guilt, and Cognitive Interference--emerged. The factor structure gave more support to Laufer, Brett and Gallops' conceptualization of PTSD than to the Horowitz, DSM-III, or DSM-III-R systems. It also generated suggestions for future editions of the diagnostic manual.

The relationships between premilitary school record data and risk for posttraumatic stress disorder among Vietnam war veterans.

The purpose of this study was to determine whether Vietnam veterans' risk for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) was correlated with their premilitary school performance. The authors compared both primary and secondary school record data on hospitalized chemically dependent PTSD patients with those of both non-PTSD, chemically dependent and community controls. All participants were male Vietnam war combat veterans. The comparisons were made with MANCOVA analyses with the effects of combat and age differences between groups controlled. For the most part, primary-school grade point average, absenteeism, and tardiness data on three groups did not differ significantly. However, the mean secondary school grade points of the future PTSD patients were generally substantially lower than those of controls. Additionally, more secondary school absenteeism and tardiness were reported among future PTSD patients than in the controls. The groups did not differ significantly on number of extracurricular activities. Academic weakness, absenteeism, and tardiness in secondary school appear to be moderately strong predictors of vulnerability to PTSD after traumatization. It also supports the claim that chronic PTSD is, in part, the result of weaknesses present before exposure to trauma.

What does the Keane et al. PTSD scale for the MMPI measure?

The correlations of the Keane, Malloy, and Fairbank (1984) MMPI PTSD scale with DSM-III-based post-traumatic stress disorder symptom, section, and factor score ratings, and with combat history, were studied to determine what aspects of the disturbance it measures (N = 61). The scale's correlations with the various symptom criteria were both substantial and strikingly consistent. However, its relationships with trauma history measures were modest and frequently nonsignificant. The data suggest that the scale is a moderately strong measure of the various PTSD symptoms, but is related only weakly to trauma history.