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1.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-38673366

ABSTRACT

Methamphetamine contamination of residential properties remains a serious public health concern for members of the public. External stakeholders including Environmental Health Officers (EHOs) and testing and remediation technicians are engaged on investigating whether contamination has occurred from manufacturing or smoking processes. More specifically, local council EHOs are responsible for managing clandestine drug laboratories when notified by police and also for responding to public enquiries. However, the full scope of these contaminated properties is not seen by any single stakeholder, making it very challenging to quantify these situations. To evaluate the prevalence of methamphetamine related enquiries from the general public to EHOs, this study surveyed and interviewed officers from around Australia. It was found that public enquiries were infrequent with only 6% of respondents having received enquiries in the last month, which indicates that people are seeking information from other sources. Interestingly, there were case study scenarios that also mentioned issues with awareness and the flow of information. Concerns regarding difficult cases, police notifications, and site visits were also highlighted. The results of this study provide a benchmark of how methamphetamine related cases are managed and highlight the need for trustworthy information that is available to EHOs, governments, industry members, and the public in a unified location.


Subject(s)
Local Government , Methamphetamine , Humans , Australia , Environmental Health , Surveys and Questionnaires , Prevalence , Police
2.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-37962201

ABSTRACT

BACKGROUND: Traumatic injury with subsequent hemorrhage is one of the leading causes of mortality among military personnel and civilians alike. Post traumatic hemorrhage accounts for 40-50% of deaths in severe trauma patients occurring secondary to direct vessel injury or the development of trauma induced coagulopathy (TIC). Hyperfibrinolysis plays a major role in TIC and its presence increases a patient's risk of mortality. Early therapeutic intervention with intravenous (IV) tranexamic acid (TXA) prevents development of hyperfibrinolysis and subsequent TIC leading to decreased mortality. However, obtaining IV access in an austere environment can be challenging. In this study, we evaluated the efficacy of intramuscular (IM) versus IV TXA at preventing hyperfibrinolysis in a hemorrhaged swine. METHODS: Yorkshire cross swine were randomized on the day of study to receive IM or IV TXA or no treatment. Swine were sedated, intubated, and determined to be hemodynamically stable prior to experimentation. Controlled hemorrhaged was induced by the removal of 30% total blood volume. After hemorrhage, swine were treated with 1000 mg of IM or IV TXA. Control animals received no treatment. Thirty minutes post TXA treatment, fibrinolysis was induced with a 50 mg bolus of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). Blood samples were collected to evaluate blood TXA concentrations, blood gases, blood chemistry, and fibrinolysis. RESULTS: Blood TXA concentrations were significantly different between administration routes at the early timepoints, but were equivalent by 20 minutes after injection, remaining consistently elevated for up to three hours post administration. Induction of fibrinolysis resulted in 87.18 ± 4.63% lysis in control animals, compared to swine treated with IM TXA 1.96 ± 2.66 % and 1.5 ± 0.42% lysis in the IV TXA group. CONCLUSION: In the large swine model of hemorrhage with hyperfibrinolysis, IM TXA is bioequivalent and equally efficacious in preventing hyperfibrinolysis as IV TXA administration.

3.
Drug Test Anal ; 15(5): 551-565, 2023 May.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-36647693

ABSTRACT

Recent research reported that lurasidone degrades in unpreserved ante-mortem human whole blood inoculated with microorganisms known to dominate postmortem blood specimens. In vitro degradation occurred at a similar rate to risperidone, known to degrade in authentic postmortem specimens until below analytical detection limits. To identify the lurasidone degradation products formed, an Agilent 6520 liquid chromatograph quadrupole-time-of-flight mass spectrometer (LC-QTOF-MS) operating in auto-MS/MS mode was used. Numerous degradation products not previously reported in prior in vitro or in vivo pharmacokinetic studies or forced degradation studies were detected. Accurate mass data, mass fragmentation data, acetylation experiments, and a proposed mechanism of degradation analogous to risperidone supports initial identification of the major degradation product as N-debenzisothiazole-lurasidone (calculated m/z [M + H]+ = 360.2646). A standard was unavailable to conclusively confirm this identification. Retrospective data analysis of postmortem cases involving lurasidone identified the presence of the major degradation product in four of six cases where lurasidone was also detected. This finding is significant for toxicology laboratories screening for this drug in postmortem casework. The major postmortem lurasidone degradation product has consequently been added to the LC-QTOF-MS drug screen at Forensic Science SA (FSSA) to indicate postmortem lurasidone degradation in authentic postmortem blood specimens and as a marker of lurasidone administration in the event lurasidone is degraded to concentrations below detection limits.


Subject(s)
Lurasidone Hydrochloride , Tandem Mass Spectrometry , Humans , Risperidone , Retrospective Studies , Forensic Toxicology
4.
Drug Test Anal ; 15(2): 220-234, 2023 Feb.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-36269160

ABSTRACT

A systematic study was performed into the degradation of ziprasidone in simulated postmortem blood. Fifteen potential degradation products not previously reported in the literature were observed. Four resulted from degradation in human blood, whereas the remaining products resulted from reaction with solvents: four from alkaline degradation, four from reaction with acetaldehyde, and three from reaction with acetone. To identify possible degradation products, a liquid chromatograph-diode array detector (LC-DAD) and liquid chromatograph quadrupole-time-of-flight mass spectrometer (LC-QTOF-MS) operating in auto-MS/MS mode were used. It was indicated from red-shifted UV-Vis spectra, accurate mass data, mass fragmentation data, and a deuteration experiment that the site of ziprasidone degradation, in the in vitro blood experiments, was the methylene carbon of the oxindole moiety. The major in vitro blood degradation products were proposed to be E/Z isomers of 3-ethylidene-ziprasidone. Further, another in vitro degradation product in microbially inoculated blood specimens was proposed to be 3-ethyl-ziprasidone. 3-Ethylidene-ziprasidone was hypothesized to form from the reaction of ziprasidone with acetaldehyde derived from the ethanol used to spike ziprasidone into the in vitro blood experiments. Data from two postmortem investigations were available for retrospective reanalysis. Attempts were made to detect degradation products of ziprasidone, but none were found.


Subject(s)
Piperazines , Tandem Mass Spectrometry , Humans , Tandem Mass Spectrometry/methods , Retrospective Studies , Chromatography, Liquid/methods , Chromatography, High Pressure Liquid/methods
5.
Toxics ; 10(11)2022 Nov 21.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-36422918

ABSTRACT

Methamphetamine manufacture, use, and the resulting contamination is a significant issue that affects public health, the environment, and the economy. Third-hand exposure to methamphetamine can result in adverse health risks for individuals and first responders. Such exposures can result from the inhalation of airborne residues or from contact with contaminated objects. This review was conducted to determine the current methods used for methamphetamine extraction from indoor air and porous fabric materials. Dynamic solid phase microextraction (SPME) and sorbent sampling tubes have been applied to extract airborne methamphetamine residues from contaminated properties. SPME and solvent extraction have been applied to sample clothing and textiles for methamphetamine detection. This review demonstrates that there is limited literature on the detection of methamphetamine from indoor air and clothing. Supplementary and consistent methods to detect methamphetamine from air and porous surfaces should be developed and published to allow better assessment of the environmental risk to public health caused by third-hand exposure to methamphetamine.

7.
J Clin Microbiol ; 60(3): e0209821, 2022 03 16.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-35138924

ABSTRACT

The Acuitas antimicrobial resistance (AMR) gene panel is a qualitative, multiplex, nucleic acid-based in vitro diagnostic test for the detection and differentiation of 28 antimicrobial resistance markers associated with not susceptible results (NS; i.e., intermediate or resistant) to one or more antimicrobial agents among cultured isolates of select Enterobacterales, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Enterococcus faecalis. This study was conducted at four sites and included testing of 1,224 deidentified stocks created from 584 retrospectively collected isolates and 83 prospectively collected clinical isolates. The Acuitas results were compared with a combined reference standard including whole-genome sequencing, organism identification, and phenotypic antimicrobial susceptibility testing. The positive percent agreement (PPA) for FDA-cleared AMR targets ranged from 94.4% for MCR-1 to 100% for armA, CTX-M-2, DHA, IMP, OXA-9, SHV, vanA, and VEB. The negative percent agreement (NPA) for the majority of targets was ≥99%, except for AAC, AAD, CMY-41, P. aeruginosa gyrA mutant, Sul1, Sul2, and TEM targets (range, 96.5% to 98.5%). Three AMR markers did not meet FDA inclusion criteria (GES, SPM, and MCR-2). For each organism, 1 to 22 AMR targets met the minimum reportable PPA/NPA and correlated with ≥80% positive predictive value with associated NS results for at least one agent (i.e., the probability of an organism carrying an AMR marker testing NS to the associated agent). We demonstrate that the Acuitas AMR gene panel is an accurate method to detect a broad array of AMR markers among cultured isolates. The AMR markers were further associated with expected NS results for specific agent-organism combinations.


Subject(s)
Anti-Bacterial Agents , Anti-Infective Agents , Anti-Bacterial Agents/pharmacology , Anti-Bacterial Agents/therapeutic use , Drug Resistance, Bacterial/genetics , Humans , Microbial Sensitivity Tests , Pseudomonas aeruginosa/genetics , Retrospective Studies
8.
Mil Med ; 2022 Feb 01.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-35104347

ABSTRACT

INTRODUCTION: Ketamine is an alternative to opioids for prehospital analgesia following serious combat injury. Limited research has examined prehospital ketamine use, associated injuries including traumatic brain injury (TBI) and PTSD outcomes following serious combat injury. MATERIALS AND METHODS: We randomly selected 398 U.S. service members from the Expeditionary Medical Encounter Database who sustained serious combat injuries in Iraq and Afghanistan, 2010-2013. Of these 398 patients, 213 individuals had charted prehospital medications. Clinicians reviewed casualty records to identify injuries and all medications administered. Outcomes were PTSD diagnoses during the first year and during the first 2 years postinjury extracted from military health databases. We compared PTSD outcomes for patients treated with either (a) prehospital ketamine (with or without opioids) or (b) prehospital opioids (without ketamine). RESULTS: Fewer patients received prehospital ketamine (26%, 56 of 213) than only prehospital opioids (69%, 146 of 213) (5%, 11 of 213 received neither ketamine nor opioids). The ketamine group averaged significantly more moderate-to-serious injuries, particularly lower limb amputations and open wounds, compared with the opioid group (Ps < .05). Multivariable regressions showed a significant interaction between prehospital ketamine (versus opioids) and TBI on first-year PTSD (P = .027). In subsequent comparisons, the prehospital ketamine group had significantly lower odds of first-year PTSD (OR = 0.08, 95% CI [0.01, 0.71], P = .023) versus prehospital opioids only among patients who did not sustain TBI. We also report results from separate analyses of PTSD outcomes among patients treated with different prehospital opioids only (without ketamine), either morphine or fentanyl. CONCLUSIONS: The present results showed that patients treated with prehospital ketamine had significantly lower odds of PTSD during the first year postinjury only among patients who did not sustain TBI. These findings can inform combat casualty care guidelines for use of prehospital ketamine and opioid analgesics following serious combat injury.

9.
Drug Test Anal ; 14(7): 1200-1222, 2022 Jul.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-35170234

ABSTRACT

In the postmortem environment, some drugs and metabolites may degrade due to microbial activity, even forming degradation products that are not produced in humans. Consequently, underestimation or overestimation of perimortem drug concentrations or even false negatives are possible when analyzing postmortem specimens. Therefore, understanding whether medications may be susceptible to microbial degradation is critical in order to ensure that reliable detection and quantitation of drugs and their degradation products is achieved in toxicology screening methods. In this study, a "simulated postmortem blood" model constructed of antemortem human whole blood inoculated with a broad population of human fecal microorganisms was used to investigate the stability of 17 antidepressant and antipsychotic drugs. Microbial communities present in the experiments were determined to be relevant to postmortem blood microorganisms by 16S rRNA sequencing analyses. After 7 days of exposure to the community at 37°C, drug stability was evaluated using liquid chromatography coupled with diode array detection (LC-DAD) and with quadrupole time-of-flight mass spectrometry (LC-QTOF-MS). Most of the investigated drugs were found to be stable in inoculated samples and noninoculated controls. However, the 1,2-benzisothiazole antipsychotics, ziprasidone and lurasidone, were found to degrade at a rate comparable with the known labile control, risperidone. In longer experiments (7 to 12 months), where specimens were stored at -20°C, 4°C, and ambient temperature, N-dealkylation degradation products were detected for many of the drugs, with greater formation in specimens stored at -20°C than at 4°C.


Subject(s)
Antipsychotic Agents , Psychotropic Drugs , Chromatography, Liquid , Drug Stability , Forensic Toxicology/methods , Humans , Mass Spectrometry , Psychotropic Drugs/analysis , RNA, Ribosomal, 16S
11.
J Plant Physiol ; 269: 153582, 2022 Feb.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-34953413

ABSTRACT

Phloem sieve element (SE) occlusion has been hypothesized for decades to be a mechanism of resistance against phloem sap-feeding insects. Few studies have tested this hypothesis although it is likely a widespread phenomenon. This review focuses on SE occlusion by callose and P-proteins. Both are reversible, which would allow the plant to defend itself against phloem sap-feeders when SEs are penetrated and resume normal function when the insects give up and withdraw their stylets. Callose (ß-1,3 glucans with some ß-1,6 branches) serves many roles in plant physiology in many different tissues, each being under the control of different callose synthase genes; only callose deposited in SE sieve pores is relevant to SE occlusion. The amount of callose in sieve pores (and consequently how much it impedes sap flow) is determined by the balance in activity between callose synthase and ß-1,3 glucanase. Sieve pore callose deposition has been shown to provide resistance to some phloem sap-feeders in a few studies, and in one, the difference in resistance between a susceptible and resistant rice variety was due to the ability or inability of the insect to upregulate the plants' ß-1,3 glucanase that degrades the callose deposition. P-proteins occur only in dicotyledons and include a variety of proteins, not all of which are involved in SE occlusion. In some plants, P-proteins form distinct bodies in mature functional SEs. In papilionid legumes, these discrete bodies, called forisomes can expand and contract. In their expanded state, they effectively plug SEs and stop the flow of sap while in their contracted state, they provide negligible resistance to sap flow. Expansion of forisomes is triggered by an influx of Ca2+ into the SE. Penetration of a legume (Vicia faba) SE by a generalist aphid not adapted to legumes triggers forisome expansion which occludes the SE and prevents the aphid from ingesting sap. In contrast, a legume specialist aphid, Acyrthosiphon pisum, does not trigger forisome expansion and readily ingests sap from V. faba. P-protein bodies in SEs of non-legumes do not appear to be involved in SE occlusion. In most dicotyledons, P-proteins do not form discrete bodies, but rather occur as filamentous aggregations adhering to the parietal margins of the SE and in response to damage, are released into the lumen where they are carried by the flow of sap to the downstream sieve plate where they back up and clog the sieve pores. Their effectiveness at actually stopping the flow of sap is controversial. In one study, they seemed to provide little resistance to the flow of sap while in other studies, they provided considerable resistance. In response to injury in melon, they completely stop the flow of sap, and in an aphid-resistant melon, penetration of SEs by the melon aphid, Aphis gossypii, triggers P-protein occlusion which prevents the aphids from ingesting sap. The first P-protein described, PP1, occurs only in the genus Cucurbita, and although it has been often cited to function as a SE occlusion protein, experimental evidence suggests it does not play a significant role in SE occlusion. The most common strategy for phloem sap-feeders to mitigate P-protein occlusion seems to be avoid triggering it. A widely cited in vitro study suggested that aphid saliva can reverse P-protein occlusion, but a subsequent study demonstrated that saliva was ineffective at reversing P-protein occlusion in vivo. Lastly, SE callose deposition in wheat triggered by Russian wheat aphid has been hypothesized to create an artificial sink that benefits the aphid, but additional studies are needed to test that hypothesis.


Subject(s)
Aphids/physiology , Phloem/parasitology , Plant Physiological Phenomena , Vicia faba/parasitology , Animals
12.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-34501507

ABSTRACT

To better protect public health from third-hand exposure to methamphetamine, it is important to understand the techniques and current practices used within the methamphetamine testing and decontamination industry in Australia. A survey was conducted focusing on business owners that advertised testing and/or remediation services online. They were also invited to participate in a follow-up phone interview upon completion. The survey demonstrated that testing and decontamination methods were highly varied, which was expected for an industry with no regulation. Most companies offered methamphetamine testing and remediation which could be a conflict of interest. Participants also shared personal experiences, including the conduct of other industry members, demonstrating both poor practice and/or the competitive nature of the business. Participating business owners were following Australian guidelines to the best of their ability, and many are advocates for regulation to be implemented within the industry. This would address the inconsistencies between companies and establish trust for industry members and the public. It would also provide significant public health protection, which is currently lacking. A more consistent approach to the testing and remediation of methamphetamine contamination, aided by regulation, would address the significant risk to public health caused by third-hand exposure to methamphetamine.


Subject(s)
Methamphetamine , Australia , Decontamination , Humans , Industry , Public Health
13.
J Laryngol Otol ; 135(8): 746-748, 2021 Aug.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-34266517

ABSTRACT

BACKGROUND: Ingested foreign bodies are a common presentation to paediatric ENT services. Depending on the site, these are usually managed with flexible or rigid oesophagoscopy and retrieval. This paper presents a novel technique for removing a hollow foreign body that could not be removed using conventional means. METHOD AND RESULTS: After rigid and flexible approaches failed, a guidewire was passed through the foreign body under fluoroscopic guidance and a dilatation balloon passed through the lumen of the object. Inflating the balloon allowed dilatation of the inflamed mucosa above and below the object, facilitating straightforward removal under traction. CONCLUSION: This is a novel and reproducible technique that uses equipment readily available in tertiary referral centres. Employed in this context, the technique enabled removal of an impacted object surrounded by granulation tissue, and would be appropriate for other objects with a lumen.


Subject(s)
Dilatation/methods , Esophagus , Foreign Bodies/therapy , Esophagus/diagnostic imaging , Fluoroscopy , Foreign Bodies/diagnostic imaging , Gastroscopy , Humans , Infant , Radiography
14.
Diagn Microbiol Infect Dis ; 100(4): 115383, 2021 Aug.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-33894657

ABSTRACT

Urinary tract infections are leading causes of hospital admissions. Accurate and timely diagnosis is important due to increasing morbidity and mortality from antimicrobial resistance. We evaluated a polymerase chain reaction test (Acuitas AMR Gene Panel with the Acuitas Lighthouse Software) for detection of 5 common uropathogens (Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Proteus mirabilis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterococcus faecalis) and antibiotic resistance genes directly from urine for prediction of phenotypic resistance. Overall percent agreement was 97% for semiquantitative detection of uropathogens versus urine culture using a cut-off of 104 colony forming units per mL urine. Overall accuracy was 91% to 93% for genotypic prediction of common antibiotic resistance harbored by E. coli, K. pneumoniae, and P. mirabilis.


Subject(s)
Anti-Bacterial Agents/pharmacology , Bacteria/drug effects , Bacteria/genetics , Drug Resistance, Multiple, Bacterial/genetics , Genotype , Molecular Diagnostic Techniques/standards , Urinary Tract Infections/diagnosis , Bacteria/classification , Enterococcus faecalis/drug effects , Enterococcus faecalis/genetics , Humans , Klebsiella pneumoniae/drug effects , Klebsiella pneumoniae/genetics , Microbial Sensitivity Tests , Molecular Diagnostic Techniques/instrumentation , Polymerase Chain Reaction/standards , Proteus mirabilis/drug effects , Proteus mirabilis/genetics , Pseudomonas aeruginosa/drug effects , Pseudomonas aeruginosa/genetics , Tertiary Care Centers , Urinary Tract Infections/microbiology , Urinary Tract Infections/urine
15.
Eur. j. psychiatry ; 35(1): 41-45, enero-marzo 2021.
Article in English | IBECS | ID: ibc-217540

ABSTRACT

Background and objectives: COVID-19 has had a negative effect on mental health across the world's population. Healthcare workers in particular have experienced increased levels of psychological distress, depression and anxiety. Any perceived stress to an individual can provoke psychological defence mechanisms. Using psychoanalytic theory, a defence mechanism is described as an unconscious psychological strategy, with or without resulting behaviour, which aims to reduce or eliminate anxiety arising from unacceptable or potentially harmful stimuli. This paper aims to describe a range of psychological defence mechanisms encountered within colleagues in relation to the COVID-19 pandemic.MethodsUsing the methodology of a case series, specific defence mechanisms are explored with reference to further literature in the field.ResultsThe author has encountered varying psychological defence mechanisms, both within himself and in other members of the multidisciplinary team. These have been illustrated in the attached clinical vignettes, relating to the specific psychological coping mechanisms of; denial, hypochondriasis, altruism, sublimation and humour.ConclusionWe encourage acknowledgement of psychological defence mechanisms and their implications on day to day practice. Whilst defence mechanisms can have a number of negative consequences as described in this article, they also have an important role, particularly in the case of mature defence mechanisms, as protective factors against psychological distress and symptom formation. Deeper understanding of the gold-standard hierarchical organisation of defence mechanisms could help increase utilisation of specific therapeutic interventions for enhancing changes from immature to mature defensive responses to stressful experiences as the COVID-19 pandemic progresses.(AU)


Subject(s)
Humans , Severe acute respiratory syndrome-related coronavirus , Coronavirus Infections/epidemiology , Defense Mechanisms , Emotions , Mental Health
17.
Eur J Psychiatry ; 35(1): 41-45, 2021.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-33191967

ABSTRACT

BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES: COVID-19 has had a negative effect on mental health across the world's population. Healthcare workers in particular have experienced increased levels of psychological distress, depression and anxiety. Any perceived stress to an individual can provoke psychological defence mechanisms. Using psychoanalytic theory, a defence mechanism is described as an unconscious psychological strategy, with or without resulting behaviour, which aims to reduce or eliminate anxiety arising from unacceptable or potentially harmful stimuli. This paper aims to describe a range of psychological defence mechanisms encountered within colleagues in relation to the COVID-19 pandemic. METHODS: Using the methodology of a case series, specific defence mechanisms are explored with reference to further literature in the field. RESULTS: The author has encountered varying psychological defence mechanisms, both within himself and in other members of the multidisciplinary team. These have been illustrated in the attached clinical vignettes, relating to the specific psychological coping mechanisms of; denial, hypochondriasis, altruism, sublimation and humour. CONCLUSION: We encourage acknowledgement of psychological defence mechanisms and their implications on day to day practice. Whilst defence mechanisms can have a number of negative consequences as described in this article, they also have an important role, particularly in the case of mature defence mechanisms, as protective factors against psychological distress and symptom formation. Deeper understanding of the gold-standard hierarchical organisation of defence mechanisms could help increase utilisation of specific therapeutic interventions for enhancing changes from immature to mature defensive responses to stressful experiences as the COVID-19 pandemic progresses.

18.
Eur J Neurol ; 28(1): 117-123, 2021 01.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-32812674

ABSTRACT

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Mechanical thrombectomy (MT) is the standard of care for patients with anterior circulation large vessel occlusion. Early neurological improvement (ENI), defined as a reduction of ≥ 8 on the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) compared with baseline score, or an NIHSS score of 0 or 1 at 24 h after MT, is a strong predictor of 3-month favorable outcome in such patients. The impact of ENI after MT in stroke patients with basilar artery occlusion (BAO) on 3-month outcome is not clear. We aimed to study the effects of ENI in patients with BAO. METHODS: We performed a retrospective analysis of a multicenter prospective cohort of all consecutive stroke patients with BAO who underwent MT. We compared clinical outcomes between BAO patient groups according to ENI status. Multivariate analyses were performed to determine the impact of ENI on favorable 90-day outcome (modified Rankin scale score 0-3) and to report factors contributing to ENI. RESULTS: A total of 237 patients were included. ENI was observed in 70 patients (30%). Outcomes were significantly better in ENI-positive patients, with 84% achieving favorable outcome (mRS score 0-3) at 3 months versus 30% for ENI-negative patients (P < 0.0001). In multivariate analysis, ENI was an independent predictive factor associated with higher rates of favorable outcome {odds ratio (OR) 18.12 [95% confidence interval (CI) 3.95-83.10]; P = 0.0001}. Higher number of passes [OR 0.62 (95% CI 0.43-0.89); P = 0.010] and need for stenting [OR 0.27 (95% CI 0.07-0.95); P = 0.041] were negatively associated with ENI. CONCLUSION: Early neurological improvement on day 1 following MT for BAO is a strong independent predictor of a favorable 3-month clinical outcome.


Subject(s)
Endovascular Procedures , Stroke , Vertebrobasilar Insufficiency , Basilar Artery/diagnostic imaging , Humans , Prospective Studies , Retrospective Studies , Stroke/surgery , Thrombectomy , Treatment Outcome , Vertebrobasilar Insufficiency/surgery
19.
BMC Public Health ; 20(1): 1076, 2020 Jul 08.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-32641028

ABSTRACT

BACKGROUND: Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and hearing loss are hallmark public health issues related to military service in Iraq and Afghanistan. Although both are significant individual contributors to disability among veterans, their co-occurrence has not been specifically explored. METHODS: A total of 1179 male U.S. military personnel who sustained an injury between 2004 and 2012 during operations in Iraq or Afghanistan were identified from clinical records. Pre- and postinjury audiometric data were used to define new-onset hearing loss, which was categorized as unilateral or bilateral. Diagnosed PTSD was abstracted from electronic medical records. Logistic regression analysis examined the relationship between hearing loss and PTSD, while adjusting for age, year of injury, occupation, injury severity, injury mechanism, and presence of concussion. RESULTS: The majority of the study sample were aged 18-25 years (79.9%) and sustained mild-moderate injuries (94.6%). New-onset hearing loss was present in 14.4% of casualties (10.3% unilateral, 4.1% bilateral). Rates of diagnosed PTSD were 9.1, 13.9, and 29.2% for those with no hearing loss, unilateral hearing loss, and bilateral hearing loss, respectively. After adjusting for covariates, those with bilateral hearing loss had nearly three-times higher odds of PTSD (odds ratio = 2.92; 95% CI, 1.47-5.81) compared to those with no hearing loss. Unilateral hearing loss was not associated with PTSD. CONCLUSIONS: Both PTSD and hearing loss are frequent consequences of modern warfare that adversely affect the overall health of the military. Bilateral, but not unilateral, hearing loss was associated with a greater burden of PTSD. This has implications for warfighter rehabilitation and should encourage collaboration between audiology and mental health professionals.


Subject(s)
Hearing Loss/epidemiology , Military Personnel/statistics & numerical data , Stress Disorders, Post-Traumatic/epidemiology , Adolescent , Adult , Afghan Campaign 2001- , Age Factors , Brain Concussion/epidemiology , Humans , Iraq War, 2003-2011 , Male , Retrospective Studies , Trauma Severity Indices , United States/epidemiology , Warfare , Young Adult
20.
Aust Dent J ; 65(4): 278-285, 2020 12.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-32678914

ABSTRACT

INTRODUCTION: The aim of this study was to evaluate white spot lesion (WSL) remineralization and fluoride uptake by the application of fluoride varnishes directly onto artificial WSLs in vitro. METHODS: MI varnish containing casein phosphopeptide-amorphous calcium phosphate (CPP-ACP) and 2.26% fluoride and Duraphat varnish containing 2.26% fluoride (no added calcium) were compared with a placebo varnish (no added calcium or fluoride). Two WSLs were prepared in enamel slabs and varnish applied to cover one of the two lesions. Each slab was immersed in artificial saliva for 14 days at 37°C. Mineral content was determined using transverse microradiography and fluoride uptake using electron probe microanalysis. The data were statistically analysed using a linear mixed model. RESULTS: Both MI and Duraphat varnishes significantly remineralized the covered and uncovered WSLs when compared with the placebo varnish (P < 0.001). The WSLs covered with varnish showed greater remineralization than those uncovered. MI varnish produced the highest level of remineralization and significantly greater fluoride uptake (0.44 ± 0.08 wt%) compared with Duraphat (0.24 ± 0.03 wt%) and the placebo varnish (0.06 ± 0.05 wt%). CONCLUSION: Varnish containing fluoride and CPP-ACP was superior to varnish containing fluoride alone in promoting WSL remineralization and fluoride uptake.


Subject(s)
Dental Caries , Fluorides , Cariostatic Agents , Caseins , Dental Enamel , Fluorides, Topical , Humans , Minerals , Tooth Remineralization
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