Water-driven microbial nitrogen transformations in biological soil crusts causing atmospheric nitrous acid and nitric oxide emissions.

Biological soil crusts (biocrusts) release the reactive nitrogen gases (Nr) nitrous acid (HONO) and nitric oxide (NO) into the atmosphere, but the underlying microbial process controls have not yet been resolved. In this study, we analyzed the activity of microbial consortia relevant in Nr emissions during desiccation using transcriptome and proteome profiling and fluorescence in situ hybridization. We observed that < 30 min after wetting, genes encoding for all relevant nitrogen (N) cycling processes were expressed. The most abundant transcriptionally active N-transforming microorganisms in the investigated biocrusts were affiliated with Rhodobacteraceae, Enterobacteriaceae, and Pseudomonadaceae within the Alpha- and Gammaproteobacteria. Upon desiccation, the nitrite (NO2-) content of the biocrusts increased significantly, which was not the case when microbial activity was inhibited. Our results confirm that NO2- is the key precursor for biocrust emissions of HONO and NO. This NO2- accumulation likely involves two processes related to the transition from oxygen-limited to oxic conditions in the course of desiccation: (i) a differential regulation of the expression of denitrification genes; and (ii) a physiological response of ammonia-oxidizing organisms to changing oxygen conditions. Thus, our findings suggest that the activity of N-cycling microorganisms determines the process rates and overall quantity of Nr emissions.

Bi-allelic variants in DNA mismatch repair proteins MutS Homolog MSH4 and MSH5 cause infertility in both sexes.

STUDY QUESTION: Do bi-allelic variants in the genes encoding the MSH4/MSH5 heterodimer cause male infertility? SUMMARY ANSWER: We detected biallelic, (likely) pathogenic variants in MSH5 (4 men) and MSH4 (3 men) in six azoospermic men, demonstrating that genetic variants in these genes are a relevant cause of male infertility. WHAT IS KNOWN ALREADY: MSH4 and MSH5 form a heterodimer, which is required for prophase of meiosis I. One variant in MSH5 and two variants in MSH4 have been described as causal for premature ovarian insufficiency (POI) in a total of five women, resulting in infertility. Recently, pathogenic variants in MSH4 have been reported in infertile men. So far, no pathogenic variants in MSH5 had been described in males. STUDY DESIGN, SIZE, DURATION: We utilized exome data from 1305 men included in the Male Reproductive Genomics (MERGE) study, including 90 males with meiotic arrest (MeiA). Independently, exome sequencing was performed in a man with MeiA from a large consanguineous family. PARTICIPANTS/MATERIALS, SETTING, METHODS: Assuming an autosomal-recessive mode of inheritance, we screened the exome data for rare, biallelic coding variants in MSH4 and MSH5. If possible, segregation analysis in the patients' families was performed. The functional consequences of identified loss-of-function (LoF) variants in MSH5 were studied using heterologous expression of the MSH5 protein in HEK293T cells. The point of arrest during meiosis was determined by γH2AX staining. MAIN RESULTS AND THE ROLE OF CHANCE: We report for the first time (likely) pathogenic, homozygous variants in MSH5 causing infertility in 2 out of 90 men with MeiA and overall in 4 out of 902 azoospermic men. Additionally, we detected biallelic variants in MSH4 in two men with MeiA and in the sister of one proband with POI. γH2AX staining revealed an arrest in early prophase of meiosis I in individuals with pathogenic MSH4 or MSH5 variants. Heterologous in vitro expression of the detected LoF variants in MSH5 showed that the variant p.(Ala620GlnTer9) resulted in MSH5 protein truncation and the variant p.(Ser26GlnfsTer42) resulted in a complete loss of MSH5. LARGE SCALE DATA: All variants have been submitted to ClinVar (SCV001468891-SCV001468896 and SCV001591030) and can also be accessed in the Male Fertility Gene Atlas (MFGA). LIMITATIONS, REASONS FOR CAUTION: By selecting for variants in MSH4 and MSH5, we were able to determine the cause of infertility in six men and one woman, leaving most of the examined individuals without a causal diagnosis. WIDER IMPLICATIONS OF THE FINDINGS: Our findings have diagnostic value by increasing the number of genes associated with non-obstructive azoospermia with high clinical validity. The analysis of such genes has prognostic consequences for assessing whether men with azoospermia would benefit from a testicular biopsy. We also provide further evidence that MeiA in men and POI in women share the same genetic causes. STUDY FUNDING/COMPETING INTEREST(S): This study was carried out within the frame of the German Research Foundation sponsored Clinical Research Unit 'Male Germ Cells: from Genes to Function' (DFG, CRU326), and supported by institutional funding of the Research Institute Amsterdam Reproduction and Development and funds from the LucaBella Foundation. The authors declare no conflict of interest.

Divergent roles for KLF4 and TFCP2L1 in naive ground state pluripotency and human primordial germ cell development.

During embryo development, human primordial germ cells (hPGCs) express a naive gene expression program with similarities to pre-implantation naive epiblast (EPI) cells and naive human embryonic stem cells (hESCs). Previous studies have shown that TFAP2C is required for establishing naive gene expression in these cell types, however the role of additional naive transcription factors in hPGC biology is not known. Here, we show that unlike TFAP2C, the naive transcription factors KLF4 and TFCP2L1 are not required for induction of hPGC-like cells (hPGCLCs) from hESCs, and they have no role in establishing and maintaining a naive-like gene expression program in hPGCLCs with extended time in culture. Taken together, our results suggest a model whereby the molecular mechanisms that drive naive gene expression in hPGCs/hPGCLCs are distinct from those in the naive EPI/hESCs.

BSACI guideline for the diagnosis and management of peanut and tree nut allergy.

Peanut nut and tree nut allergy are characterised by IgE mediated reactions to nut proteins. Nut allergy is a global disease. Limited epidemiological data suggest varying prevalence in different geographical areas. Primary nut allergy affects over 2% of children and 0.5% of adults in the UK. Infants with severe eczema and/or egg allergy have a higher risk of peanut allergy. Primary nut allergy presents most commonly in the first five years of life, often after the first known ingestion with typical rapid onset IgE-mediated symptoms. The clinical diagnosis of primary nut allergy can be made by the combination of a typical clinical presentation and evidence of nut specifc IgE shown by a positive skin prick test (SPT) or specific IgE (sIgE) test. Pollen food syndrome is a distinct disorder, usually mild, with oral/pharyngeal symptoms, in the context of hay fever or pollen sensitisation, which can be triggered by nuts. It can usually be distinguish clinically from primary nut allergy. The magnitude of a SPT or sIgE relates to the probability of clinical allergy, but does not relate to clinical severity. SPT of ≥ 8 mm or sIgE ≥ 15 KU/L to peanut is highly predictive of clinical allergy. Cut off values are not available for tree nuts. Test results must be interpreted in the context of the clinical history. Diagnostic food challenges are usually not necessary but may be used to confirm or refute a conflicting history and test result. As nut allergy is likely to be a long-lived disease, nut avoidance advice is the cornerstone of management. Patients should be provided with a comprehensive management plan including avoidance advice, patient specific emergency medication and an emergency treatment plan and training in administration of emergency medication. Regular re-training is required.

BSACI guideline for the diagnosis and management of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis (Revised Edition 2017; First edition 2007).

This is an updated guideline for the diagnosis and management of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis, first published in 2007. It was produced by the Standards of Care Committee of the British Society of Allergy and Clinical Immunology, using accredited methods. Allergic rhinitis is common and affects 10-15% of children and 26% of adults in the UK, it affects quality of life, school and work attendance, and is a risk factor for development of asthma. Allergic rhinitis is diagnosed by history and examination, supported by specific allergy tests. Topical nasal corticosteroids are the treatment of choice for moderate to severe disease. Combination therapy with intranasal corticosteroid plus intranasal antihistamine is more effective than either alone and provides second line treatment for those with rhinitis poorly controlled on monotherapy. Immunotherapy is highly effective when the specific allergen is the responsible driver for the symptoms. Treatment of rhinitis is associated with benefits for asthma. Non-allergic rhinitis also is a risk factor for the development of asthma and may be eosinophilic and steroid-responsive or neurogenic and non- inflammatory. Non-allergic rhinitis may be a presenting complaint for systemic disorders such as granulomatous or eosinophilic polyangiitis, and sarcoidoisis. Infective rhinitis can be caused by viruses, and less commonly by bacteria, fungi and protozoa.

Can we identify patients at risk of life-threatening allergic reactions to food?

Anaphylaxis has been defined as a 'severe, life-threatening generalized or systemic hypersensitivity reaction'. However, data indicate that the vast majority of food-triggered anaphylactic reactions are not life-threatening. Nonetheless, severe life-threatening reactions do occur and are unpredictable. We discuss the concepts surrounding perceptions of severe, life-threatening allergic reactions to food by different stakeholders, with particular reference to the inclusion of clinical severity as a factor in allergy and allergen risk management. We review the evidence regarding factors that might be used to identify those at most risk of severe allergic reactions to food, and the consequences of misinformation in this regard. For example, a significant proportion of food-allergic children also have asthma, yet almost none will experience a fatal food-allergic reaction; asthma is not, in itself, a strong predictor for fatal anaphylaxis. The relationship between dose of allergen exposure and symptom severity is unclear. While dose appears to be a risk factor in at least a subgroup of patients, studies report that individuals with prior anaphylaxis do not have a lower eliciting dose than those reporting previous mild reactions. It is therefore important to consider severity and sensitivity as separate factors, as a highly sensitive individual will not necessarily experience severe symptoms during an allergic reaction. We identify the knowledge gaps that need to be addressed to improve our ability to better identify those most at risk of severe food-induced allergic reactions.

BSACI guideline for the management of chronic urticaria and angioedema.

This guidance for the management of patients with chronic urticaria and angioedema has been prepared by the Standards of Care Committee of the British Society for Allergy and Clinical Immunology (BSACI). The guideline is based on evidence as well as on expert opinion and is aimed at both adult physicians and paediatricians practising in allergy. The recommendations are evidence graded. During the development of these guidelines, all BSACI members were included in the consultation process using a Web-based system. Their comments and suggestions were carefully considered by the Standards of Care Committee. Where evidence was lacking, a consensus was reached by the experts on the committee. Included in this management guideline are clinical classification, aetiology, diagnosis, investigations, treatment guidance with special sections on children with urticaria and the use of antihistamines in women who are pregnant or breastfeeding. Finally, we have made recommendations for potential areas of future research.

Management of allergy to penicillins and other beta-lactams.

The Standards of Care Committee of the British Society for Allergy and Clinical Immunology (BSACI) and an expert panel have prepared this guidance for the management of immediate and non-immediate allergic reactions to penicillins and other beta-lactams. The guideline is intended for UK specialists in both adult and paediatric allergy and for other clinicians practising allergy in secondary and tertiary care. The recommendations are evidence based, but where evidence is lacking, the panel reached consensus. During the development of the guideline, all BSACI members were consulted using a Web-based process and all comments carefully considered. Included in the guideline are epidemiology of allergic reactions to beta-lactams, molecular structure, formulations available in the UK and a description of known beta-lactam antigenic determinants. Sections on the value and limitations of clinical history, skin testing and laboratory investigations for both penicillins and cephalosporins are included. Cross-reactivity between penicillins and cephalosporins is discussed in detail. Recommendations on oral provocation and desensitization procedures have been made. Guidance for beta-lactam allergy in children is given in a separate section. An algorithm to help the clinician in the diagnosis of patients with a history of penicillin allergy has also been included.

Differential expression patterns of N-acetylglucosaminyl transferases and polylactosamines in uterine lesions.

Polylactosamine (polyLacNAc) is a fundamental structure in glycoconjugates and it is expressed in specific cells/tissues associated with the development and carcinogenesis. ß1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyl transferases (ß3GnTs) play an important role in polyLacNAc synthesis, however the roles of these glycosyltransferases and their products in cancer progression are still unclear. In this sense, this work aimed to evaluate differential expression pattern of the N-acetylglucosaminyl transferases and polylactosamines in invasive and premalignant lesions of the uterus cervix. The expression of ß3GnT2 and ß3GnT3 were evaluated in normal (n=10) and uterine cervix lesions (n= 120) malignant (squamous carcinoma - SC) and premalignant (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia - CIN - grades 1, 2 and 3) using immunohistochemistry. Besides, lectin histochemistry with Phytolacca americana lectin (PWM) and Wheat germ agglutinin (WGA) was also carried out to observe the presence of polyLacNAc chains and N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc), respectively. The ß3GnT3 was expressed in almost all samples (99%) and ß3GnT2 was higher expressed in disease samples mainly in CIN 3, when compared with normal (P=0.002), CIN 1 (P=0.009) and CIN 2 (P=0.03). The expression of polyLacNAc was higher is SC samples, when compared with normal (P=0.03), CIN 1 (P=0.02) and CIN 3 (P=0.004), and was observed only nuclear expression in nearly 50% of the SC samples, showing a statistically significant when compared with normal (P=0.01), CIN 1 (P=0.002), CIN 2 (P=0.007) and CIN 3 (P=0.04). Deferring from transferases and polyLacNAc chains, GlcNAc (WGA ligand) reveals a gradual staining pattern decrease with the increase of the lesion degree, being more expressed in CIN 1 lesions when compared with normal (P<0.0001), CIN 2 (P<0.0001), SC (P<0.0001) and CIN 3 (P=0.0003). Our data reveals ß3GnT2 and polyLacNAc may be involved in the progression of the pre-malignant lesions of human the uterine cervix. In addition, polyLacNAc expression only in the nucleus can be associated a poor prognostic in uterine lesions.

Anaphylaxis: guidelines from the European Academy of Allergy and Clinical Immunology.

Anaphylaxis is a clinical emergency, and all healthcare professionals should be familiar with its recognition and acute and ongoing management. These guidelines have been prepared by the European Academy of Allergy and Clinical Immunology (EAACI) Taskforce on Anaphylaxis. They aim to provide evidence-based recommendations for the recognition, risk factor assessment, and the management of patients who are at risk of, are experiencing, or have experienced anaphylaxis. While the primary audience is allergists, these guidelines are also relevant to all other healthcare professionals. The development of these guidelines has been underpinned by two systematic reviews of the literature, both on the epidemiology and on clinical management of anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening condition whose clinical diagnosis is based on recognition of a constellation of presenting features. First-line treatment for anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline. Useful second-line interventions may include removing the trigger where possible, calling for help, correct positioning of the patient, high-flow oxygen, intravenous fluids, inhaled short-acting bronchodilators, and nebulized adrenaline. Discharge arrangements should involve an assessment of the risk of further reactions, a management plan with an anaphylaxis emergency action plan, and, where appropriate, prescribing an adrenaline auto-injector. If an adrenaline auto-injector is prescribed, education on when and how to use the device should be provided. Specialist follow-up is essential to investigate possible triggers, to perform a comprehensive risk assessment, and to prevent future episodes by developing personalized risk reduction strategies including, where possible, commencing allergen immunotherapy. Training for the patient and all caregivers is essential. There are still many gaps in the evidence base for anaphylaxis.

BSACI guideline for the diagnosis and management of cow's milk allergy.

This guideline advises on the management of patients with cow's milk allergy. Cow's milk allergy presents in the first year of life with estimated population prevalence between 2% and 3%. The clinical manifestations of cow's milk allergy are very variable in type and severity making it the most difficult food allergy to diagnose. A careful age- and disease-specific history with relevant allergy tests including detection of milk-specific IgE (by skin prick test or serum assay), diagnostic elimination diet, and oral challenge will aid in diagnosis in most cases. Treatment is advice on cow's milk avoidance and suitable substitute milks. Cow's milk allergy often resolves. Reintroduction can be achieved by the graded exposure, either at home or supervised in hospital depending on severity, using a milk ladder. Where cow's milk allergy persists, novel treatment options may include oral tolerance induction, although most authors do not currently recommend it for routine clinical practice. Cow's milk allergy must be distinguished from primary lactose intolerance. This guideline was prepared by the Standards of Care Committee (SOCC) of the British Society for Allergy and Clinical Immunology (BSACI) and is intended for clinicians in secondary and tertiary care. The recommendations are evidence based, but where evidence is lacking the panel of experts in the committee reached consensus. Grades of recommendation are shown throughout. The document encompasses epidemiology, natural history, clinical presentations, diagnosis, and treatment.

British Society for Allergy and Clinical Immunology guidelines for the management of egg allergy.

This guideline advises on the management of patients with egg allergy. Most commonly, egg allergy presents in infancy, with a prevalence of approximately 2% in children and 0.1% in adults. A clear clinical history and the detection of egg white-specific IgE (by skin prick test or serum assay) will confirm the diagnosis in most cases. Egg avoidance advice is the cornerstone of management. Egg allergy often resolves and re-introduction can be achieved at home if reactions have been mild and there is no asthma. Patients with a history of severe reactions or asthma should have reintroduction guided by a specialist. All children with egg allergy should receive measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccination. Influenza and yellow fever vaccines should only be considered in egg-allergic patients under the guidance of an allergy specialist. This guideline was prepared by the Standards of Care Committee (SOCC) of the British Society for Allergy and Clinical Immunology (BSACI) and is intended for allergists and others with a special interest in allergy. The recommendations are evidence-based but where evidence was lacking consensus was reached by the panel of specialists on the committee. The document encompasses epidemiology, risk factors, diagnosis, treatment, prognosis and co-morbid associations.

Enhanced imaging in low dose electron microscopy using electron counting.

We compare the direct electron imaging performance at 120keV of a monolithic active pixel sensor (MAPS) operated in a conventional integrating mode with the performance obtained when operated in a single event counting mode. For the combination of sensor and incident electron energy used here, we propose a heuristic approach with which to process the single event images in which each event is renormalised to have an integrated weight of unity. Using this approach we find enhancements in the Nyquist frequency modulation transfer function (MTF) and detective quantum efficiency (DQE) over the corresponding integrating mode values by factors of 8 and 3, respectively.

Successful oral tolerance induction in severe peanut allergy.

BACKGROUND: Peanut allergy is common, potentially severe and rarely resolves causing impaired quality of life. No disease-modifying treatment exists and there is therefore a need to develop a therapeutic intervention. AIMS OF THE STUDY: The aim of this study was to investigate whether peanut oral immunotherapy (OIT) can induce clinical tolerance to peanut protein. METHODS: Four peanut-allergic children underwent OIT. Preintervention oral challenges were performed to confirm clinical allergy and define the amount of protein required to cause a reaction (dose thresholds). OIT was then administered as daily doses of peanut flour increasing from 5 to 800 mg of protein with 2-weekly dose increases. After 6 further weeks of treatment, the oral challenge was repeated to define change in dose threshold and subjects continued daily treatment. RESULTS: Preintervention challenges confirmed peanut allergy and revealed dose thresholds of 5-50 mg (1/40-1/4 of a whole peanut); one subject had anaphylaxis during challenge and required adrenaline injection. All subjects tolerated immunotherapy updosing to 800 mg protein and i.m. adrenaline was not required. Each subject tolerated at least 10 whole peanuts (approximately 2.38 g protein) in postintervention challenges, an increase in dose threshold of at least 48-, 49-, 55- and 478-fold for the four subjects. CONCLUSIONS: We demonstrated a substantial increase in dose threshold after OIT in all subjects, including the subject with proven anaphylaxis. OIT was well tolerated and conferred protection against at least 10 peanuts, more than is likely to be encountered during accidental ingestion.

An investigation into the use of CMOS active pixel technology in image-guided radiotherapy.

The increased intelligence, read-out speed, radiation hardness and potential large size of CMOS active pixel sensors (APS) gives them a potential advantage over systems currently used for verification of complex treatments such as IMRT and the tracking of moving tumours. The aim of this work is to investigate the feasibility of using an APS-based system to image the megavoltage treatment beam produced by a linear accelerator (Linac), and to demonstrate the logic which may ultimately be incorporated into future sensor and FPGA design to evaluate treatment and track motion. A CMOS APS was developed by the MI(3) consortium and incorporated into a megavoltage imaging system using the standard lens and mirror configuration employed in camera-based EPIDs. The ability to resolve anatomical structure was evaluated using an Alderson RANDO head phantom, resolution evaluated using a quality control (QC3) phantom and contrast using an in-house developed phantom. A complex intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT) treatment was imaged and two algorithms were used to determine the field-area and delivered dose, and the position of multi-leaf collimator (MLC) leaves off-line. Results were compared with prediction from the prescription and found to agree within a single image frame time for dose delivery and 0.02-0.03 cm for the position of collimator leaves. Such a system therefore shows potential as the basis for an on-line verification system capable of treatment verification and monitoring patient motion.

Generation of human induced pluripotent stem cells from dermal fibroblasts.

The generation of patient-specific pluripotent stem cells has the potential to accelerate the implementation of stem cells for clinical treatment of degenerative diseases. Technologies including somatic cell nuclear transfer and cell fusion might generate such cells but are hindered by issues that might prevent them from being used clinically. Here, we describe methods to use dermal fibroblasts easily obtained from an individual human to generate human induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells by ectopic expression of the defined transcription factors KLF4, OCT4, SOX2, and C-MYC. The resultant cell lines are morphologically indistinguishable from human embryonic stem cells (HESC) generated from the inner cell mass of a human preimplantation embryo. Consistent with these observations, human iPS cells share a nearly identical gene-expression profile with two established HESC lines. Importantly, DNA fingerprinting indicates that the human iPS cells were derived from the donor material and are not a result of contamination. Karyotypic analyses demonstrate that reprogramming of human cells by defined factors does not induce, or require, chromosomal abnormalities. Finally, we provide evidence that human iPS cells can be induced to differentiate along lineages representative of the three embryonic germ layers indicating the pluripotency of these cells. Our findings are an important step toward manipulating somatic human cells to generate an unlimited supply of patient-specific pluripotent stem cells. In the future, the use of defined factors to change cell fate may be the key to routine nuclear reprogramming of human somatic cells.

BSACI guidelines for the management of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis.

This guidance for the management of patients with allergic and non-allergic rhinitis has been prepared by the Standards of Care Committee (SOCC) of the British Society for Allergy and Clinical Immunology (BSACI). The guideline is based on evidence as well as on expert opinion and is for use by both adult physicians and paediatricians practicing in allergy. The recommendations are evidence graded. During the development of these guidelines, all BSACI members were included in the consultation process using a web-based system. Their comments and suggestions were carefully considered by the SOCC. Where evidence was lacking, consensus was reached by the experts on the committee. Included in this guideline are clinical classification of rhinitis, aetiology, diagnosis, investigations and management including subcutaneous and sublingual immunotherapy. There are also special sections for children, co-morbid associations and pregnancy. Finally, we have made recommendations for potential areas of future research.

Patterns of immunoglobulin G responses to egg and peanut allergens are distinct: ovalbumin-specific immunoglobulin responses are ubiquitous, but peanut-specific immunoglobulin responses are up-regulated in peanut allergy.

BACKGROUND: The clinical significance of food-specific IgG subclasses in food allergy and tolerance remains unclear. Specific IgG titres are often reported in non-standardized units, which do not allow comparisons between studies or allergens. OBJECTIVE: To quantify, in absolute units, ovalbumin (OVA)- and peanut-specific IgG levels in children with peanut or egg allergy (active or resolved) and in non-allergic controls. Methods Children aged 1-15 years were recruited. Peanut allergy was diagnosed by convincing history and a 95% predictive level of specific IgE; egg allergy or resolution was confirmed by oral challenge. Serum IgG, IgG1 and IgG4 levels (microg/mL) to OVA and peanut extract were quantified by ELISA. RESULTS: OVA- and peanut-specific IgG was detected in all subjects. In non-allergic controls (n=18), OVA-specific IgG levels were significantly higher than peanut-specific IgG (median microg/mL IgG=15.9 vs. 2.2, IgG1=1.3 vs. 0.6, IgG4=7.9 vs. 0.7; P<0.01). There were no differences in OVA-specific IgG, IgG1 and IgG4 between egg-allergic (n=40), egg-resolved (n=22) and control (n=18) subjects. In contrast, peanut-specific IgG (median microg/mL IgG=17.0, IgG1=3.3, IgG4=5.2) were significantly higher in peanut-allergic subjects (n=59) compared with controls and with non-peanut-sensitized but egg-allergic subjects (n=26). Overall, the range of IgG4 was greater than IgG1, and IgG4 was the dominant subclass in >60% of all subjects. CONCLUSION: OVA-specific IgG levels of egg-allergic, egg-resolved or control groups are not distinguishable. Higher peanut-specific IgG levels are associated with clinical allergy, but the range of IgG titres of the allergic and control groups overlapped. Hence, OVA and peanut-specific IgG measurements do not appear to be of diagnostic value. Strong IgG responses to OVA may be a normal physiological response to a protein frequently ingested from infancy, whereas up-regulated IgG responses in peanut allergy may be indicative of a dysregulated immune response to peanut allergens.