Factors associated with patent foramen ovale-related stroke: SAFAS study.

BACKGROUND: Persistent foramen ovale (PFO) contributes to cryptogenic stroke and is associated with stroke recurrence, although the exact mechanism of ischemic events is not fully understood. Several biomarkers have been developed for the prediction of atrial fibrillation after stroke, but there are currently only limited data on their potential value for the diagnosis of PFO-related stroke. METHODS: This study was a prospective single-center study that included all patients hospitalized between March 31, 2018, and January 18, 2020, in the stroke department of the Dijon University Hospital for ischemic stroke without obvious cause and without a history of atrial fibrillation. PFO was systematically screened by transthoracic echocardiography and images were reviewed by an independent cardiologist blinded from clinical data. PFO was defined according to the CLOSE trial criteria: PFO associated with interatrial septal aneurysm or significant interatrial shunt (> 30 microbubbles in the left atrium within three cardiac cycles after right atrial opacification). The potential association of PFO-related stroke with biomarkers of cardiac fibrosis and inflammation such as galectin-3, GDF-15, ST-2, osteoprotegerin and NT-proBNP was tested using multivariate backward stepwise logistic regression. RESULTS: Of the 240 patients included in the SAFAS study, 229 had complete echocardiographic data, and 23 (10%) had PFO-related stroke. Patients with PFO-related stroke were significantly younger (58±14 vs. 69±14, P<0.001), had less frequent previous arterial hypertension (30 vs. 60%, P=0.008), and more frequent cerebellar territory involvement (26 vs. 9%, P=0.014) compared to the other patients. In addition, they had less frequently left atrial dilatation (left atrial index volume>34mL/m2 [9 vs. 35%, P=0.009]). After ROC curve analysis for definition of thresholds, PFO-related stroke patients more often had galectin-3<9.5ng/mL (59 vs. 27%, P=0.002), ST2<13380pg/ml (23 vs. 50%, P=0.007), GDF-15<1200ng/mL (59 vs. 27%, P=0.002), osteoprotegerin<1133pg/mL (82 vs. 58%, P=0.033) and NT-proBNP<300pg/mL (88 vs. 55%, P=0.009). After multivariate analysis, only galectin-3<9.5ng/mL (OR [95% CI] 3.4 [1.18; 9.8], P=0.024) and osteoprotegerin<1133pg/L (OR [95% CI] 5.0 [1.1; 22.9], P=0.038) were independently associated with PFO-related stroke. CONCLUSION: Patients in whom cryptogenic stroke is attributed to a significant PFO have a specific clinical and biological phenotype. Low levels of galectin-3 and osteoprotegerin may help identify patients with PFO-related strokes.

[How to manage late periprosthetic fluid collections (seromas) in patients with breast implants?] / Conduite à tenir devant un sérome tardif péri-prothétique.

The widespread use of silicone implants in reconstructive and aesthetic breast surgery led to an increase in the incidence of breast implant associated anaplastic large cell lymphoma, BIA-ALCL, mainly associated with the use of macro-textured breast implants. BIA-ALCL is a serious complication presenting clinically as a late onset periprosthetic seroma. Thus, its occurrence became an alarming sign feared by most plastic surgeons. Therefore, a good knowledge with respect to early diagnosis, subsequent workup, and treatment is crucial in the management of periprosthetic seroma. The diagnosis of late onset seroma is clinically evident. Although idiopathic seroma is the most common cause, BIA-ALCL should be always eliminated. A complete workup is usually necessary. An ultrasound performed by a radiologist specialized in breast imaging followed by an ultrasound guided puncture is imperative. Consequently, the cytological and the bacteriological analysis will orient us toward the etiology (infectious, neoplastic or mechanical). A standardized management of late periprosthetic seroma does not exist, with various factors are to be taken into consideration. These include the surgeon's experience, the diagnosis, and the medical institution facilities. Although idiopathic seroma is managed by a simple puncture and drainage, other causes may require a surgical procedure with implant removal, capsulotomies, and/or total capsulectomies.

[Management of ischemic stroke in the acute phase]. / Prise en charge de l'infarctus cérébral à la phase initiale.

Ischemic stroke accounts for 80% of overall stroke, and is one of the leading causes of death, disability and dementia in worldwide. Management of patients with acute ischemic stroke dramatically improved over time with the implementation of intensive care stroke units, the development of acute recanalization strategies, the optimization of the management of post-stroke complications, and the prevention of early stroke recurrence. The objective of this article is to provide a general overview of the current management of patients with acute ischemic stroke aiming at improving post-stroke outcome.

[Acute management of spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage]. / Prise en charge aiguë des hémorragies intracérébrales spontanées.

Intracerebral hemorrhage accounts for approximately 15% of the 115,000 strokes occurring each year in France. Although therapeutic strategies are more limited than for ischemic stroke, major points in the management of intracerebral hemorrhage can reduce short term morbidity and mortality by limiting the expansion of the hematoma and the occurrence of early complications, and long term patients' outcome by reducing the risk of recurrence. This article aims to update the key elements that contribute to improve of the prognosis of intracerebral hemorrhage patients.

Oral immunotherapy in food allergies: A practical update for pediatricians.

Food oral immunotherapy (OIT) is a promising treatment for persistent and severe food allergies (FAs) in children, but also for accelerating tolerance to cow's milk and cooked egg in young children. In the near future, pediatricians will increasingly encounter severely allergic children undergoing FA-OIT. FA-OIT consists in daily ingestion of increasing doses of the allergen during the up-dosing phase, and ingestion of a constant dose during the maintenance phase. The global aim is to increase the reactive threshold of allergic patients, and finally enable them to ingest a target quantity of allergen without any reaction throughout the treatment (desensitization). Many studies showed the efficacy of FA-OIT in desensitization, and some of them in sustained unresponsiveness. This corresponds to tolerance after FA-OIT discontinuation, especially for cow's milk and hen's egg allergy. However, there is an ongoing debate about the safety of the treatment. Side effects are frequent, notably aversion to the allergen and oral syndromes as well as systemic allergic symptoms. These reactions occur mainly during the up-dosing phase and become less frequent with time, but they are common causes of FA-OIT discontinuation. Patients and their families must be trained to manage these reactions at home. Long-term side effects can also occur, such as eosinophilic esophagitis. Pediatricians play an important role in maintaining patient motivation; they also provide knowledge on possible allergic reactions and the reactogenic cofactors (mainly fever and viral infection, anti-inflammatory intake, physical activity), and refer the patient to the relevant specialists in the case of long-term care. Other routes of administration for food immunotherapy (epicutaneous and sublingual) and different adjuvant treatments (probiotics, anti-IgE molecule) are currently under study. This will allow us to improve the efficacy of immunotherapy and reduce the risk of any side effects, in order to provide a more favorable risk-benefit ratio.

Vibron-assisted spin excitation in a magnetically anisotropic molecule.

The electrical control and readout of molecular spin states are key for high-density storage. Expectations are that electrically-driven spin and vibrational excitations in a molecule should give rise to new conductance features in the presence of magnetic anisotropy, offering alternative routes to study and, ultimately, manipulate molecular magnetism. Here, we use inelastic electron tunneling spectroscopy to promote and detect the excited spin states of a prototypical molecule with magnetic anisotropy. We demonstrate the existence of a vibron-assisted spin excitation that can exceed in energy and in amplitude a simple excitation among spin states. This excitation, which can be quenched by structural changes in the magnetic molecule, is explained using first-principles calculations that include dynamical electronic correlations.

Atomic-scale spin sensing with a single molecule at the apex of a scanning tunneling microscope.

Recent advances in scanning probe techniques rely on the chemical functionalization of the probe-tip termination by a single molecule. The success of this approach opens the prospect of introducing spin sensitivity through functionalization by a magnetic molecule. We used a nickelocene-terminated tip (Nc-tip), which offered the possibility of producing spin excitations on the tip apex of a scanning tunneling microscope (STM). When the Nc-tip was 100 picometers away from point contact with a surface-supported object, magnetic effects could be probed through changes in the spin excitation spectrum of nickelocene. We used this detection scheme to simultaneously determine the exchange field and the spin polarization of iron atoms and cobalt films on a copper surface with atomic-scale resolution.

Straight motion of half-integer topological defects in thin Fe-N magnetic films with stripe domains.

In thin magnetic films with perpendicular magnetic anisotropy, a periodic "up-down" stripe-domain structure can be originated at remanence, on a mesoscopic scale (~100 nm) comparable with film thickness, by the competition between short-range exchange coupling and long-range dipolar interaction. However, translational order is perturbed because magnetic edge dislocations are spontaneously nucleated. Such topological defects play an important role in magnetic films since they promote the in-plane magnetization reversal of stripes and, in superconductor/ferromagnet hybrids, the creation of superconducting vortex clusters. Combining magnetic force microscopy experiments and micromagnetic simulations, we investigated the motion of two classes of magnetic edge dislocations, randomly distributed in an [Formula: see text]-implanted Fe film. They were found to move in opposite directions along straight trajectories parallel to the stripes axis, when driven by a moderate dc magnetic field. Using the approximate Thiele equation, analytical expressions for the forces acting on such magnetic defects and a microscopic explanation for the direction of their motion could be obtained. Straight trajectories are related to the presence of a periodic stripe domain pattern, which imposes the gyrotropic force to vanish even if a nonzero, half-integer topological charge is carried by the defects in some layers across the film thickness.

Magnetization dynamics of weak stripe domains in Fe-N thin films: a multi-technique complementary approach.

The resonant eigenmodes of an α'-FeN thin film characterized by weak stripe domains are investigated by Brillouin light scattering and broadband ferromagnetic resonance experiments, assisted by micromagnetic simulations. The spectrum of the dynamic eigenmodes in the presence of the weak stripes is very rich and two different families of modes can be selectively detected using different techniques or different experimental configurations. Attention is paid to the evolution of the mode frequencies and spatial profiles under the application of an external magnetic field, of variable intensity, in the direction parallel or transverse to the stripes. The different evolution of the modes with the external magnetic field is accompanied by a distinctive spatial localization in specific regions, such as the closure domains at the surface of the stripes and the bulk domains localized in the inner part of the stripes. The complementarity of BLS and FMR techniques, based on different selection rules, is found to be a fruitful tool for the study of the wealth of localized magnetic excitations generally found in nanostructures.

Chronic low back pain after lumbosacral fracture due to sagittal and frontal vertebral imbalance.

PROBLEM AND HYPOTHESIS: Over time, some patients with unilateral or bilateral lumbosacral injuries experience chronic low back pain. We studied the sagittal and frontal balance in a population with these injuries to determine whether mismatch in the pelvic and lumbar angles are associated with chronic low back pain. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Patients with posterior pelvic ring fractures (Tile C1, C2, C3 and A3.3) that had healed were included. Foreign patients and those with an associated spinal or acetabular fracture or nonunion were excluded. The review consisted of subjective questionnaires, a clinical examination, and standing A/P and lateral stereoradiographic views. The pelvic tilt (PT), sacral slope (SS), pelvic incidence (PI), measured lumbar lordosis (LLm), T9 sagittal offset, leg discrepancy (LD) and lateral curvature (LC). The expected lumbar lordosis (LLe) was calculated using the formula LLe=PI+9°. We defined lumbopelvic mismatch (LPM) as the difference between LLm and LLe being equal or greater than 25% of LLe. RESULTS: Fifteen patients were reviewed after an average follow-up of 8.8 years [5.4-15]. There were four Tile C1, five Tile C2, five Tile C3 and one Tile A3.3 fracture. Ten of the 15 patients had low back pain. The mean angles were: LLm 49.6° and LLe 71.9° (P=0.002), PT 21.3°, SS 44.1°, PI 62.9° in patients with low back pain and LLm 57.4° and LLe 63.2° (P=0.55), PT 13°, SS 43.1°, PI 54.2° in those without. LPM was present in 9 patients, 8 of who had low back pain (P=0.02). Six patients, all of whom had low back pain, had a mean LC of 7.5° [4.5-23] (P=0.02). The mean LD was 0.77cm. DISCUSSION: The findings of this small study suggest that patients who experience low back pain after their posterior arch of the pelvic ring fracture has healed, have a lumbopelvic mismatch. Early treatment of these patients should aim to reestablish the anatomy of the pelvic base relative to the frontal and sagittal balance. LEVEL OF EVIDENCE: IV.

Editor's Choice - ECAR (Endovasculaire ou Chirurgie dans les Anévrysmes aorto-iliaques Rompus): A French Randomized Controlled Trial of Endovascular Versus Open Surgical Repair of Ruptured Aorto-iliac Aneurysms.

OBJECTIVES/BACKGROUND: ECAR (Endovasculaire ou Chirurgie dans les Anévrysmes aorto-iliaques Rompus) is a prospective multicentre randomized controlled trial including consecutive patients with ruptured aorto-iliac aneurysms (rAIA) eligible for treatment by either endovascular (EVAR) or open surgical repair (OSR). Inclusion criteria were hemodynamic stability and computed tomography scan demonstrating aorto-iliac rupture. METHODS: Randomization was done by week, synchronously in all centers. The primary end point was 30 day mortality. Secondary end points were post-operative morbidity, length of stay in the intensive care unit (ICU), amount of blood transfused (units) and 6 month mortality. RESULTS: From January 2008 to January 2013, 107 patients (97 men, 10 women; median age 74.4 years) were enrolled in 14 centers: 56 (52.3%) in the EVAR group and 51 (47.7%) in the OSR group. The groups were similar in terms of age, sex, consciousness, systolic blood pressure, Hardman index, IGSII score, type of rupture, use of endoclamping balloon, and levels of troponin, creatinine, and hemoglobin. Delay to treatment was higher in the EVAR group (2.9 vs. 1.3 hours; p < .005). Mortality at 30 days and 1 year were not different between the groups (18% in the EVAR group vs. 24% in the OSR group at 30 days, and 30% vs. 35%, respectively, at 1 year). Total respiratory support time was lower in the EVAR group than in the OSR group (59.3 hours vs. 180.3 hours; p = .007), as were pulmonary complications (15.4% vs. 41.5%, respectively; p = .050), total blood transfusion (6.8 vs. 10.9, respectively; p = .020), and duration of ICU stay (7 days vs. 11.9 days, respectively; p = .010). CONCLUSION: In this study, EVAR was found to be equal to OSR in terms of 30 day and 1 year mortality. However, EVAR was associated with less severe complications and less consumption of hospital resources than OSR.

Are third-trimester adipokines associated with higher metabolic risk among women with gestational diabetes?

AIM: This study aimed to determine whether third-trimester adipokines during gestational diabetes (GDM) are associated with higher metabolic risk. METHODS: A total of 221 women with GDM (according to IADPSG criteria) were enrolled between 2011/11 and 2013/6 into a prospective observational study (IMAGE), and categorized as having elevated fasting blood glucose (FBG) or impaired fasting glucose (IFG, n = 36) if levels were ≥ 92 mg/dL during a 75-g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), impaired glucose tolerance (IGT, n = 116) if FBG was < 92 mg/dL but with elevated 1-h or 2-h OGTT values, or impaired fasting and stimulated blood glucose (IFSG, n = 69) if both FBG was ≥ 92 mg/dL and 1-h or 2-h OGTT values were elevated. RESULTS: Pre-gestational body mass index (BMI) was higher in women with IFG or IFSG compared with IGT (P < 0.001), as were leptin levels in women with IFG vs IGT [34.7 (10.5-119.7) vs 26.6 (3.56-79.4) ng/L; P = 0.008]. HOMA2-IR scores were higher in women with IFG or IFSG vs IGT (1.87 ± 1.2 or 1.72 ± 0.9 vs 1.18 ± 0.8, respectively; P < 0.001). Also, those with IFSG vs those with IGT had significantly lower HOMA2-B scores (111.4 ± 41.3 vs 127.1 ± 61.6, respectively; P < 0.05) and adiponectin levels [5.00 (1.11-11.3) vs 6.19 (2.11-17.7) µg/mL; P < 0.001], and higher levels of IL-6 [1.14 (0.33-20.0) vs 0.90 (0.31-19.0); P = 0.012] and TNF-α [0.99 (0.50-10.5) vs 0.84 (0.45-11.5) pg/mL; P = 0.003]. After adjusting for age, parity, and pre-gestational and gestational BMI, the difference in adiponectin levels remained significant. CONCLUSION: Diagnosing GDM by IADSPG criteria results in a wide range of heterogeneity. Our study has indicated that adipokine levels in addition to FBG may help to select women at high metabolic risk for appropriate monitoring and post-delivery interventions (ClinicalTrials.gov number NCP02133729).

Intraperitoneal vascular endothelial growth factor burden in peritoneal surface malignancies treated with curative intent: the first step before intraperitoneal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor treatment?

INTRODUCTION: Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) is one of the most important angiogenic factors in solid tumours and plays an important role in ascites development in peritoneal surface malignancies (PSM). The main goal of this study was to determine the evolution and factors influencing intraperitoneal (IP) VEGF burden during cytoreductive surgery (CRS) with curative intent. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Ninety-seven consecutive patients with PSM were treated with CRS at a single centre with curative intent. Patient data were collected prospectively between February 2012 and October 2012. An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay technique was used to assess VEGF levels in intravenous (IV) systemic blood samples before incision and after abdominal closure, and in IP samples during abdominal cavity exploration, after completion of CRS, after hyperthermic IP chemotherapy, and at 1 and 24h after abdominal closure. RESULTS: The IP VEGF burden increased significantly after CRS, and then decreased progressively (p<0.005). In multivariate analysis, neoadjuvant IV bevacizumab significantly decreased the preoperative IP VEGF burden, tumour load according to Peritoneal Cancer Index value increased significantly the preoperative IP VEGF burden and a low preoperative IP VEGF burden was associated with significantly increased postoperative complications. Neoadjuvant IV bevacizumab is the only factor that influences the preoperative IV VEGF concentration. CONCLUSION: For patients with PSM who were treated with curative intent, the IP VEGF burden increased after CRS, and was reduced prior to surgery by the administration of neoadjuvant IV bevacizumab.

Kyphoplasty versus vertebroplasty in osteoporotic thoracolumbar spine fractures. Short-term retrospective review of a multicentre cohort of 127 consecutive patients.

BACKGROUND: Osteoporotic spine fractures induce a heavy burden in terms of both general health and healthcare costs. The objective of this multicentre study by the French Society for Spine Surgery (SFCR) was to compare outcomes after vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty in the treatment of osteoporotic thoracolumbar vertebral fractures. HYPOTHESIS: We hypothesised that differences existed between vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty, notably regarding operative time and reduction efficacy, from which criteria for patient selection might be inferred. MATERIAL AND METHODS: We conducted a retrospective multicentre review of 127 patients with Magerl Type A low-energy fractures after a fall from standing height between 2007 and 2010; 85 were managed with vertebroplasty and 42 with kyphoplasty. Age was not a selection criterion. We recorded pain intensity, time to management, operative time, kyphosis angle, wedge angle, cement leakage rate, and degree of cement filling. RESULTS: Operative time was 43 minutes with kyphoplasty and 24 minutes with vertebroplasty (P=0.0002). Both techniques relieved pain, with no significant difference. Kyphoplasty significantly improved the wedge angle, by +6°, versus +2° with vertebroplasty (P=0.002). With kyphoplasty, the volume injected was larger and cement distribution was less favourable. Leakage rates were similar. DISCUSSION: Despite the heterogeneity of our study, our data confirm the effectiveness of kyphoplasty in alleviating pain and decreasing deformities due to osteoporotic vertebral fractures. Vertebroplasty is a faster and less costly procedure that remains useful; no detectable clinical complications occur with vertebroplasty, which ensures better anchoring of the cement in the cancellous bone.

Molecular allergens in the diagnosis of latex allergy.

BACKGROUND: Molecular allergens enable the definition of sensitization profiles in allergic patients. AIM: To validate the most helpful allergens for the diagnosis of latex allergy in different clinical situations. METHODS: 130 patients suspected to be allergic to latex with positive IgE against natural rubber latex (NRL) have been studied: 97 were confirmed as latex allergic (among which 55 professionally exposed to latex and 35 with a peranaesthetic anaphylactic shock) and 33 were only sensitized to latex without clinical allergy. Each serum was tested for IgE against 9 recombinant latex allergens and bromelain using Phadia ImmunoCAP 250. RESULTS: rHev b 6.01, 6.02, 2 and 5 were the major allergens in the allergic population. An excellent correlation (94%) was observed between IgE against rHev b 6.01 and latex prick test positivities. IgE against rHev b 1, 3 and 5 were more frequent and their levels significantly higher in patients with peranaesthetic anaphylactic shock. Among the asymptomatic patients (29/33 allergic to pollen), NRL IgE positivity is explained by the presence of anti-rHev b 8 and/or anti-carbohydrate IgE. CONCLUSIONS: rHev b 6.01 and rHev b 5 specific IgE are of major interest to confirm latex allergy diagnosis. rHev b 5 is particularly useful in case of monosensitization where clinical symptoms and latex skin prick tests may be discordant, rHev b1 and rHev b 3 are interesting to document multi-operated and peranaesthetic latex allergy. Finally, rHev b 8 is a helpful marker to highlight latex/pollen cross-reactivity which improves the specificity of the serological tests.

Surgical treatment of renal cell carcinoma with right atrial thrombus: early experience and description of a simplified technique.

Operative management of patients presenting renal cell carcinoma's (RCC) with right atrial tumor thrombus extension is a technical challenge. It requires the use of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). The aim of this study was to report our early experience and to describe a simplified CPB technique. 5 consecutive patients underwent surgical resection by a joint cardiovascular and urological team. The ascending aorta was canulated. The venous drainage was achieved using a proximal canula inserted in the superior vena cava and a distal canula inserted in the IVC below the renal veins. Right atrium thrombus extension was extracted under normothermic CPB without cross clamping or cardioplegic arrest. A cavotomy was performed at the ostium of the renal vein and an endoluminal occlusion catheter was introduced. The thrombectomy and the radical nephrectomy were then performed. The occurrence of gaseous or tumor embolism, operative time, perioperative bleeding, and post-operative complications were assessed. Mean patients age was 62.9 years. Atrial and caval thrombectomy were achieved successfully in all patients. Mean operative time was 206 min. Mean CPB time was 62 min. Mean hospital stay was 18.8 days. One death occurred, due to respiratory failure. An asymptomatic early thrombosis of the IVC was diagnosed by CT scan in 1 patient. The four remaining patients were alive 6 months after the surgical procedure. Minimally invasive CPB technique can be used to treat intra atrial thrombus tumor extension arising from renal cell carcinoma. It can be performed safely with acceptable complications rate.

[Patients with the highest cardiovascular risk are the least compliant with their antihypertensive therapy (DESIR study)]. / Les hypertendus les plus à risque sont les moins observants (étude DESIR).

AIM OF THE STUDY: To identify the sociodemographic and clinical profile of hypertensive patients who are not compliant with their antihypertensive treatment. METHODS: each cardiologist described his or her next 4 hypertensive patients from a clinical standpoint and gave them a self-administered compliance questionnaire developed by the French Committee to Fight Hypertension, which they returned directly to the analysis center using a postage-paid reply envelope. RESULTS: 1965 patients 63.9 +/- 12.1 years old, 55.3% of whom were male, were included in the study. According to the specific questionnaire, compliance is definitely satisfactory in 35.9% of patients, is probably satisfactory in 28.3%, is probably poor in 19.4% and is definitely poor in 16.4%. Poor compliance is more frequent among men (38.1 vs. 33.4%; p < 0.05), overweight or obese patients (35.8 and 43.0% vs. 30.0%; p < 0.001), diabetics (46.7 vs. 32.3%; p < 0.0001), dyslipidemic patients (39.3 vs. 31.8%; p < 0.001), smokers (50.2 vs. 33.8%; p < 0.0001), those whose father died of cardiovascular causes before 55 years of age (51.6 vs. 34.1%; p < 0.0001) or those with a previous history of CV events (40.6 vs. 32.8%; p < 0.001). The rate of poor compliance increases with the number of risk factors: 27.3% with no risk factor other than high BP, 32.2% with one, 37.2 with 2 and 51.5% with 3 or more (p < 0.0001). Multifactorial analyses confirm the independent effect of obesity, diabetes, smoking, and father's CV death before age 55 on patient compliance. CONCLUSION: patients with the highest CV risk are those who are the least compliant with their antihypertensive treatment. These results raise the question of the appropriateness of the prevention information given to the most at-risk patients.