Referral patterns and genetic testing outcomes in a contemporary hereditary renal cancer clinic.

OBJECTIVES: Multidisciplinary hereditary tumor clinics are a collaborative format to identify and treat patients with genetic cancer predispositions. The hereditary renal cancer clinic at Indiana University is comprised of a urologic oncologist, medical oncologist, clinical geneticist, and genetic counselor. The clinic holds regular tumor board meetings, where patient histories, pedigrees, imaging, pathology, and management plans are collectively reviewed and discussed. Here we report the contemporary experience for our hereditary renal cancer clinic, with description and analysis of referral patterns, patient profiles, and genetic testing outcomes. MATERIALS AND METHODS: A retrospective review of an IRB-approved, prospectively maintained database of patients seen in the hereditary renal cancer clinic was performed. Patient characteristics, genetic testing results, and disease characteristics were reported and analyzed. RESULTS: A total of 142 patients seen in clinics from January 2018 to June 2023 were included. Patient's median age was between 40 and 49 years old, and 88.7% were Caucasian. The most common reasons for referral were early-onset renal tumors (40%), known hereditary renal cancer syndrome (29%), and hereditary renal cancer syndrome screening (13%). Of those with a tissue diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma, 46.2% were clear cell subtype. The presence of nonrenal syndromic features concerning for hereditary renal tumor syndrome was predictive of pathogenic mutation identification (OR 13.45, P < 0.0001). Patient race and presence of multifocal tumors were not predictive of pathogenic mutation identification. When restricting analysis to patients with an established renal malignancy, high-grade tumor histology was predictive of a pathogenic mutation (OR 8.17, P = 0.012), though higher pathologic stage and nonclear cell histology were not. Referral for early-onset renal tumor (age < 45 years) predicted lower likelihood of pathogenic mutations (OR 0.10, P = 0.0002). FH gene mutations were the most commonly identified pathogenic mutations. Genetic testing of family members (cascade testing) was recommended to 9 patients seen in clinic; a pathogenic mutation was subsequently identified in all but one of these families. CONCLUSIONS: These findings are useful for referring physicians and patients in determining patient referral to hereditary cancer clinics, and for counseling patients undergoing genetic testing. Data from non-Caucasian patients and evolving implications of variants of unclear significance (VUS) may represent future research directions for hereditary renal cancer clinics.

Cancer-associated alteration of pericentromeric heterochromatin may contribute to chromosome instability.

Many tumors exhibit elevated chromosome mis-segregation termed chromosome instability (CIN), which is likely to be a potent driver of tumor progression and drug resistance. Causes of CIN are poorly understood but probably include prior genome tetraploidization, centrosome amplification and mitotic checkpoint defects. This study identifies epigenetic alteration of the centromere as a potential contributor to the CIN phenotype. The centromere controls chromosome segregation and consists of higher-order repeat (HOR) alpha-satellite DNA packaged into two chromatin domains: the kinetochore, harboring the centromere-specific H3 variant centromere protein A (CENP-A), and the pericentromeric heterochromatin, considered important for cohesion. Perturbation of centromeric chromatin in model systems causes CIN. As cancer cells exhibit widespread chromatin changes, we hypothesized that pericentromeric chromatin structure could also be affected, contributing to CIN. Cytological and chromatin immunoprecipitation and PCR (ChIP-PCR)-based analyses of HT1080 cancer cells showed that only one of the two HORs on chromosomes 5 and 7 incorporate CENP-A, an organization conserved in all normal and cancer-derived cells examined. Contrastingly, the heterochromatin marker H3K9me3 (trimethylation of H3 lysine 9) mapped to all four HORs and ChIP-PCR showed an altered pattern of H3K9me3 in cancer cell lines and breast tumors, consistent with a reduction on the kinetochore-forming HORs. The JMJD2B demethylase is overexpressed in breast tumors with a CIN phenotype, and overexpression of exogenous JMJD2B in cultured breast epithelial cells caused loss of centromere-associated H3K9me3 and increased CIN. These findings suggest that impaired maintenance of pericentromeric heterochromatin may contribute to CIN in cancer and be a novel therapeutic target.

A national audit of pollen immunotherapy for children in the United Kingdom: patient selection and programme safety.

BACKGROUND: Specific immunotherapy (SIT) is an effective treatment for grass and/or tree pollen-induced severe allergic rhinoconjunctivitis. However, there are limited detailed data on the use of immunotherapy in children in the United Kingdom. OBJECTIVES: We audited NHS paediatric practice against current national guidelines to evaluate patient selection, SIT modalities and adverse events (AEs). METHODS: Paediatricians offering pollen SIT were identified through the British Society of Allergy and Clinical Immunology Paediatric Allergy Group (BSACI-PAG) and the database of SIT providers compiled for the Royal College of Physicians and Royal College of Pathologists 2010 joint working group. Standardized proformas were returned by 12 of 20 centres (60%), including 12 of 14 centres offering subcutaneous immunotherapy (SCIT) (85%). RESULTS: Three hundred and twenty-three children, with mean age 11 years at initiation (69% boys), had undergone 528 SIT cycles (SCIT 31%) over 10 years. Fifty-five percent of all patients had asthma. Among SCIT programmes 24.5% patients had perennial (± seasonal) asthma; 75.6% of asthmatics undertaking SCIT had treatments at BTS/SIGN step 2 or above. AEs occurred frequently (50.4% of all SIT cycles) but were mild. In sublingual immunotherapy (SLIT) treatment, local intraoral immediate reactions were most common (44.9% SLIT cycles), as compared with delayed reactions around the injection site in SCIT (28.3% SCIT cycles). An asthma diagnosis had no impact on the number of cycles with AEs, or the severity reported. Few cycles (2.9%) were discontinued as a result of AE(s). CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE: Pollen SIT is available across England, though small numbers of children are being treated. Current national guidelines to exclude asthmatic children in SIT programmes are not being adhered to by most specialist paediatric allergy centres. SCIT and SLIT has been well tolerated. Review of patient selection criteria is needed and may allow greater use of this therapeutic option in appropriate clinical settings.

Long-term disease-free survival after nonmyeloablative cyclophosphamide/fludarabine conditioning and related/unrelated allotransplantation for acute myeloid leukemia/myelodysplasia.

A total of 50 consecutive patients (median age, 57.5 years) with AML (n=30) or myelodysplasia (MDS, n=20) underwent HLA matched related donor (MRD, n=27) or unrelated donor (MUD, n=23) peripheral blood hematopoietic cell transplantation after nonmyeloablative CY/fludarabine (Flu) conditioning. GVHD prophylaxis included CsA (n=19)+/-mycophenolate mofetil (n=31). At a median follow-up of 59 months, 21 patients (42%) were alive without evidence of disease. By Kaplan-Meier analysis, year 1-4 disease-free survival (DFS) and OS estimates were 0.50/0.58, 0.40/0.46, 0.37/0.43 and 0.37/0.41. MUD recipients were engrafted quickly (13.5 days) compared to MRD recipients (16 days) and relapsed/progressed less frequently (P=0.005). Overall grade 3/4 acute GVHD (aGVHD) occurred in 26% in the absence of antecedent mucositis and was associated with chronic GVHD (cGVHD) and poor OS. Extensive cGVHD developed in 51.2% of 100 day survivors. Rates of aGVHD, cGVHD and survival were similar between MRD and MUD recipients. Of 14 survivors with cGVHD, 5 (35.7%) experienced resolution off immunosuppression, suggesting that tolerance with HLA matched grafts is possible at an advanced age by this method. This study provides further evidence for prolonged DFS after CY/Flu MRD allotransplantation for AML/MDS, and extends the findings to older patients and those with unrelated donors.

Redefining the risks of prenatally ascertained supernumerary marker chromosomes: a collaborative study.

BACKGROUND: A marker chromosome is defined as a structurally abnormal chromosome that cannot be identified by routine cytogenetics. The risk for phenotypic abnormalities associated with a marker chromosome depends on several factors, including inheritance, mode of ascertainment, chromosomal origin, and the morphology, content, and structure of the marker. METHODS: to understand the karyotype-phenotype relationship of prenatally ascertained supernumerary de novo marker chromosomes, we combined data from prenatal cases obtained from 12 laboratories with those from studies in the literature. We were able to obtain cytogenetic and phenotypic data from 108 prenatally ascertained supernumerary de novo marker chromosomes to refine the phenotypic risk associated with these markers. Because of the growing number of cases and because more techniques are available to delineate marker morphology, we have been able to group risk estimates into subcategories, such as by marker type and whether there are ultrasound abnormalities. RESULTS: If a de novo supernumerary marker chromosome is found prenatally, our data suggest there is a 26% risk for phenotypic abnormality when there is no other information defining the marker (such as chromosomal origin or information about the existing phenotype). However, if high resolution ultrasound studies are normal, this risk reduces to 18%. CONCLUSIONS: Our findings strongly support the value of additional genetic studies for more precisely defining the risk in individual cases involving marker chromosomes.

Genetic diagnosis of PLP gene duplications/deletions in patients with Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease.

Genetic diagnosis of PLP gene duplications/deletions in patients with Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease.PMD is an X-linked recessive disorder due to a proteolipid protein (PLP) deficiency. Duplications of PLP gene were shown to be the principle cause of the disorder, accounting for an estimated 50-70% of cases. To define a simple and reliable method for genetic diagnosis of PMD, a group of 42 patients with clinical manifestation of PMD was analyzed by means of real-time quantitative PCR. Parallel fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) analysis was performed on the same group of patients. Real-time PCR found seventeen samples had increased gene dosage, whereas FISH detected sixteen duplicated samples. Both methods identified a sample with PLP gene deletion. Our results indicate that real-time PCR is a sensitive and reliable method for the detection of gene duplications/deletions. We further discussed the advantages and limitations of each method in clinical diagnosis of PMD.

Exposure of the fetus and infant to hens' egg ovalbumin via the placenta and breast milk in relation to maternal intake of dietary egg.

BACKGROUND: Maternally derived allergens may be transferred to the developing infant during pregnancy and lactation. However, it is not known how manipulation of environmental allergen levels might impact on this early-life exposure. OBJECTIVE: To measure dietary egg allergen (ovalbumin (OVA)) in gestation-associated environments, in relation to maternal dietary egg intake. METHOD: OVA was measured by allergen-specific ELISA in maternal blood collected throughout pregnancy, infant blood at birth (umbilical cord) and in breast milk at 3 months post-partum. Samples derived from pregnant women undergoing diagnostic amniocentesis at 16-18 weeks gestation who were not subject to any dietary intervention, and from pregnant women, with personal or partner atopy, randomized to complete dietary egg exclusion or an unmodified healthy diet before 20 weeks gestation as a primary allergy prevention strategy. Maternal dietary egg intake was monitored closely throughout the study period by diary record and serial measurement of OVA-specific immunoglobulin G concentration. RESULTS: Circulating OVA was detected throughout pregnancy in 20% of women and correlated with both presence (P<0.001) and concentration (r=0.754, P<0.001) of infant OVA at birth (umbilical cord). At 3 months post-partum OVA was detected in breast milk samples of 35% women, in higher concentrations than measured in blood. Blood and breast milk OVA were not related to maternal dietary intake or atopic pre-disposition. CONCLUSIONS: Rigorous dietary egg exclusion does not eliminate trans-placental and breast milk egg allergen passage. This early-life exposure could modulate developing immune responses.

Ovalbumin-specific immunoglobulin G and subclass responses through the first 5 years of life in relation to duration of egg sensitization and the development of asthma.

BACKGROUND: Egg sensitization, particularly persistent sensitization, is a risk factor for later asthma. However, little is known about accompanying IgG and subclass responses and how they might relate to asthmatic outcome. OBJECTIVE: To characterize hen's egg ovalbumin (OVA) IgG and subclass responses through the first 5 years of life in relation to duration of egg sensitization and later asthma. SUBJECTS AND METHODS: The subjects (n=46) formed part of a larger cohort, born to atopic parents, who had been evaluated prospectively for the development of asthma. Egg sensitization was classified as transient (positive egg skin prick test at 1 year only) or persistent (positive skin test for at least 2 years). Plasma OVA IgG, IgG1 and IgG4 concentrations at birth (cord), 6 months, 1 and 5 years of age were measured by ELISA. RESULTS: The kinetics of OVA IgG and IgG1 responses, but not IgG4, differed between egg sensitized and non-egg sensitized (NES) children. Only persistently sensitized children had a rise in OVA IgG1 concentration through the first year of life, and at 1 year of age they had significantly higher OVA IgG and IgG1 than either transiently sensitized or NES children. High OVA IgG1 was associated with later asthma: at 1 year of age, OVA IgG1 greater than 14,500 U predicted asthma with a sensitivity 64% and specificity 74%. CONCLUSION: OVA IgG and subclass responses relate to the duration of egg sensitization. Measurement of OVA IgG1 concentration in infancy might offer a useful adjunct to identify those at an increased risk of asthma.

Serum ovalbumin-specific immunoglobulin G responses during pregnancy reflect maternal intake of dietary egg and relate to the development of allergy in early infancy.

BACKGROUND: The value of allergen elimination diets during pregnancy for primary prevention of infant allergy has been questioned. However, dietary compliance may influence effectiveness. OBJECTIVES: To monitor egg intake during a randomized controlled trial of egg avoidance throughout pregnancy and lactation by serial measurements of serum ovalbumin (OVA) IgG concentration in conjunction with dietary diary record and also, to analyse specific IgG concentrations at birth in relation to infant allergic outcome. METHODS: Pregnant women, with personal or partner atopy, were randomized to complete dietary egg exclusion or an unmodified healthy diet before 20 weeks gestation. The infants were evaluated for atopy at 6 months of age. Serum food-specific IgG concentrations were determined by ELISA in maternal samples collected at study recruitment and during labour, and in infant samples at birth (umbilical cord). RESULTS: Serum-specific IgG to OVA, but not the unrelated allergen, cow's milk beta-lactoglobulin, decreased over pregnancy in egg-avoiding women only (P<0.001). Cord OVA IgG concentration correlated with maternal IgG at delivery (r=0.944; P<0.001), and for infants born to atopic women, cord concentration was higher than that of their mother's (P<0.001). Infants with the lowest and highest cord IgG concentrations were the least likely, and those with mid-range concentrations were the most likely, to be atopic by 6 months of age (P=0.008). CONCLUSION: Serum OVA IgG concentration reflects egg consumption, thereby indicating dietary allergen doses to which the developing immune system might be exposed. Trans-placental maternal IgG must be considered among early life factors that regulate infant atopic programming.

HER-2/neu expression in germ cell tumours.

AIMS: To determine the rate of HER-2/neu positivity of germ cell tumours by immunohistochemistry (IHC) and by fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH). PATIENTS/METHODS: Ninety six archival, paraffin wax embedded pathology specimens were chosen from four groups of germ cell tumours. IHC for HER-2/neu was performed with the HercepTest kit; FISH analysis was performed with the INFORM assay and confirmed with a centromere 17 probe. RESULTS: Twenty two of 96 specimens overexpressed the HER-2/neu protein when measured by IHC. Only three specimens showed HER-2/neu gene amplification by FISH. There was no correlation between the results obtained by IHC and FISH. CONCLUSIONS: The lack of concordance between IHC and FISH makes it unlikely that overexpression of the HER-2/neu protein in germ cell tumours is of prognostic or therapeutic relevance. Because of the low rate of HER-2/neu gene amplification in germ cell tumours, a clinical trial of trastuzumab treatment in patients with germ cell tumours is not warranted.

Cytogenetic analysis and construction of a BAC contig across a common neocentromeric region from 9p.

Over 40 cases of neocentric marker chromosomes, without detectable alpha-satellite DNA, have been reported. Although these have originated from many different chromosomes, a few of these chromosomes have been involved in multiple cases of marker formation. In this study, two different markers originating from the short arm of chromosome 9 were analyzed, identifying a common neocentromeric region. A bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC) contig extending over more than 900 kb has been assembled across this neocentromeric region. Fluorescent in situ hybridization and immunofluorescence assays (CENP-C and CENP-E) have localized the neocentromere to a 500 kb region. Preliminary analysis of DNA sequences in this neocentromere revealed a highly AT-rich region, which also has an increase in the level of retroviral elements compared with the average levels in the genome.

Costimulatory molecules in the developing human gastrointestinal tract: a pathway for fetal allergen priming.

BACKGROUND: Antigen-specific responses can be detected in umbilical cord blood mononuclear cells. The fetal immune system must therefore attain a level of maturity compatible with the initiation of such responses as well as be exposed to antigen. OBJECTIVE: We sought to assess the expression of costimulatory molecules in fetal gut and the presence of cytokines in amniotic fluid at this time as a preliminary analysis of the suitability of the fetal gut as a site of antigen priming during intrauterine life. METHODS: Human fetal gut was analyzed for cells expressing costimulatory molecules through use of immunohistochemistry. Amniotic fluid was studied by ELISA, for cytokines regulating the nature of the response, and as a source of the common dietary antigen ovalbumin. RESULTS: MHC class II--positive cells were abundant over the period examined (11-24 weeks of gestation), other surface antigens showing spatial and temporal variation in expression. From 11 to 14 weeks of gestation, CD68-positive and CD40-positive cells, like MHC class II--positive cells, were present throughout the lamina propria; few CD3-positive cells (T cells) were observed. With the emergence of lymphoid aggregates (14-16 weeks), CD83-positive cells (dendritic cells) and CD20-positive cells (B cells) could be detected in fetal gut; however, expression was restricted to the lymphoid aggregates. In contrast, MHC class II, CD40, and CD68 continued to be expressed in the lamina propria. CD28-positive cells were also evident from 14 weeks of gestation, occurring throughout the lamina propria and lymphoid aggregates; this corresponded to the increasing numbers of CD3-positive cells. The occasional CD86-positive, CD40L-positive, or CTLA4-positive cell could be seen in or around lymphoid aggregates after 14 weeks of gestation. Lymphoid follicles forming after 16 weeks of gestation contained MHC class II--positive, CD83-positive, CD20-positive, CD40-positive, CD86-positive, CD3-positive, CD28-positive, CD40L-positive, and CTLA4-positive cells. MHC class II--positive, CD40-positive, CD68-positive, CD3-positive, and CD28-positive cells continued to be present in the lamina propria at this time. At all times studied, CD14 was not expressed in the lamina propria or lymphoid follicles. Prostaglandin E(2), TGF beta(1), and IL-10 dominated the amniotic fluid cytokine milieu, and ovalbumin was also detectable in amniotic fluid from 3 of 26 women who had detectable circulating levels. CONCLUSION: Of the costimulatory molecules studied, CD40 was the most abundant. However, both of the ligand families studied (CD40-CD40L and CD86-CD28/CD152) could provide the costimulatory signals required for the initiation of antigenspecific reactivity in the gastrointestinal tract of the human fetus as early as 16 weeks of gestation. The cytokine milieu would favor the development of T(H)2-type reactivity to antigens, such as ovalbumin, that are present at this time.

Small marker chromosome identification in metaphase and interphase using centromeric multiplex fish (CM-FISH).

Multicolor karyotyping procedures, such as multiplex fluorescence in situ hybridization (M-FISH), spectral karyotyping, or color-changing karyotyping, can be used to detect chromosomal rearrangements and marker chromosomes in prenatal diagnosis, peripheral blood cultures, leukemia, and solid tumors, especially in cases where G-banding is not sufficient. A regular M-FISH analysis requires relatively large amounts of labeled DNA (microgram quantities), is not informative in interphase nuclei, hybridization can take up to 2 to 3 days, and unlabeled human chromosome-painting probes are not available commercially. Unique probes (plasmids, PAC), specific for centromeric or subtelomeric chromosomal regions, can replace the painting probes in M-FISH to address specific issues, such as the identification of marker chromosomes and aneuploidies. A set of plasmid probes carrying repetitive sequences specific for the alpha-satellite region of all human chromosomes were combined in a metaphase assay and an interphase assay, allowing identification of aneuploidies in one hybridization step, on a single cytogenetic slide. The fluorophore-dUTP and the labeled antibodies required to label and detect the DNA probes can be prepared in any laboratory. All DNA probes can be easily isolated and labeled using common molecular cytogenetic procedures. Because of the repetitive nature of the probes, hybridization time is short, usually less than 1 hour, and the analysis can be performed with nonspecialized image-processing software.

Cryptic translocation identification in human and mouse using several telomeric multiplex fish (TM-FISH) strategies.

Experimental data published in recent years showed that up to 10% of all cases of mild to severe idiopathic mental retardation may result from small rearrangements of the subtelomeric regions of human chromosomes. To detect such cryptic translocations, we developed a "telomeric" multiplex fluorescence in situ hybridization (M-FISH) assay, using a set of previously published and commercially available subtelomeric probes. This set of probes includes 41 cosmid/PAC/P1 clones located from less than 100 kilobases to approximately 1 megabase from the end of the chromosomes. Similarly, a published mouse probe set, comprised of BACs hybridizing to the closest known marker toward the centromere and telomere of each mouse chromosome, was used to develop a mouse-specific "telomeric" M-FISH. Three different combinatorial labeling strategies were used to simultaneously detect all human subtelomeric regions on one slide. The simplest approach uses only three fluors and can be performed in laboratories lacking sophisticated imaging equipment or personnel highly trained in cytogenetics. A standard fluorescence microscope equipped with only three filters is sufficient. Fluor-dUTPs and labeled probes can be custom made, thus dramatically reducing costs. Images can be prepared using imaging software (Adobe Photoshop) and analysis performed by simple visual inspection.

Distal 13q Deletion Syndrome and the VACTERL association: case report, literature review, and possible implications.

We present a case of a child with del(13) (q31.1qter), VACTERL association, and penoscrotal transposition. Deletion of the distal long arm of chromosome 13 is associated with variable phenotypes. These phenotypes are divided into three clusters; each cluster represents a specific deleted segment of 13q. Individuals with deletions of a critical region at 13q32 have multiple congenital malformations that include components of the VACTERL association. Our patient had all six manifestations of VACTERL association. In addition, he had complete penoscrotal transposition, a unique malformation reported rarely in VACTERL association and only twice previously in deletion of distal 13q. We reviewed all reported cases of distal 13q deletions to date. Of these 137 patients, 15 could be classified into the VACTERL association. Ours was the only patient with distal 13q deletion and all VACTERL association features and also the only one with tracheoesophageal fistula. Neither holoprosencephaly nor the other central nervous system malformations that have been seen in individuals with distal 13q deletions were apparent in him. The patient presented here appears to be unique among individuals with distal 13q deletion. His cluster of malformations strengthens the argument that distal 13q deletion is a cause for VACTERL association, and that this causal relationship implies a syndromic form of VACTERL. In addition, this case and those ascertained from the literature suggest that penoscrotal transposition should be considered part of both the distal 13q-deletion syndrome and some forms of VACTERL association.

Improvements in cytogenetic slide preparation: controlled chromosome spreading, chemical aging and gradual denaturing.

BACKGROUND: Metaphase spreading is an essential technique for clinical and molecular cytogenetics. Results of classical banding techniques as well as complex fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) applications, such as comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) or multiplex FISH (M-FISH), are greatly influenced by the quality of chromosome spreading and pretreatment of the slide prior to hybridization. Materials and Methods Using hot steam and a metal plate with a temperature gradient across its surface, a reproducible protocol for slide preparation, aging, and hybridization was developed. RESULTS: This protocol yields good chromosome spreads from even the most difficult cell suspensions and is unaffected by the environmental conditions. Chromosome spreads were suitable for both banding and FISH techniques common to the cytogenetic laboratory. Chemical aging is a rapid slide pretreatment procedure for FISH applications, which allows freshly prepared cytogenetic slides to be used for in situ hybridization within 30 min, thus increasing analytical throughput and reducing benchwork. Furthermore, the gradually denaturing process described allows the use of fresh biologic material with optimal FISH results while protecting chromosomal integrity during denaturing. CONCLUSION: The slide preparation and slide pretreatment protocols can be performed in any laboratory, do not require specialized equipment, and provide robust results.

Detection of house-dust-mite allergen in amniotic fluid and umbilical-cord blood.

Mononuclear cells in umbilical-cord blood display allergen-specific reactivity, but how allergen exposure occurs in utero is unknown. We investigated the presence of a common inhalant allergen (Der p 1), to which mothers are exposed throughout pregnancy, by ELISA in matched maternal blood and amniotic fluid samples at 16-17 weeks of gestation, and in matched maternal and umbilical-cord blood at term (> or =37 weeks of gestation). Der p 1 was detectable in 24 of 43 amniotic fluid samples where it was also present in maternal blood, and in 15 of 24 cord-plasma samples at significantly higher concentrations than in the maternal plasma (p=0.022). The detection of Der p 1 in the amniotic fluid and the fetal circulation provides direct evidence of transamniotic and transplacental allergen exposure.

Pre-natal sensitization in humans.

Allergy has a very strong hereditary component but even in identical twins, concordance for the development of allergic disease can be as low as 50%. This suggests that there is a very strong environmental influence on manifestations of sensitization. To what extent environment might have an influence on the ontogeny of sensitization antenatally has hitherto not been a focus of much research. However, circumstantial evidence suggests that this may be important.

Extensive analysis of mosaicism in a case of Turner syndrome: the experience of 287 cytogenetic laboratories. College of American Pathologists/American College of Medical Genetics Cytogenetics Resource Committee.

OBJECTIVE: To assemble and interpret karyotype data provided as part of the College of American Pathologists/American College of Medical Genetics Cytogenetics Proficiency Testing Program. DATA SOURCES, EXTRACTION, AND SYNTHESIS: The Cytogenetics Resource Committee requested data on all cells analyzed in a 1994 whole-blood specimen challenge. In that study, 287 participating laboratories analyzed a total of 14297 cells derived from a sample drawn from an adult donor with Turner syndrome. This individual had previously been found to have mosaicism, including cell lines with X structural anomalies along with monosomy X, making this an excellent challenge for a multicenter cytogenetic survey. RESULTS AND CONCLUSIONS: Analysis of the data from this extensive study revealed mosaicism of up to 10 different sex chromosome complements involving the X chromosome with and without a small ring X or a derivative X chromosome. In the routine cytogenetic analysis performed by the participating laboratories, cell lines observed, in decreasing order of prevalence, included 45,X (n = 8357 cells), 46,X,r(X) (n = 3597), 46,X,der(X)t(X;X) (n = 2237), 46,XX (n = 93), 47,X,r(X),r(X) (n = 5), 47,X,der (X)t(X;X),der(X)t(X;X) (n = 3), 47,XX,r(X) (n = 2), and one observation each of 47,XX,der(X)t(X;X), 47,X,der(X)t (X;X),r(X), and 47,XXX. Our molecular cytogenetic data, as well as detailed analysis of G-banded chromosomes, suggest the nomenclature for these 2 abnormal X chromosomes as r(X)(p11.3q21.3) and der(X)t(X;X)(p11.3;q21.3), and we discuss models for the concomitant formation of these 2 entities. Both the degree of analysis and the extensive mosaicism that was discovered in this study are exceptional, and similar reported cases as well as possible mechanisms for the observed X chromosome instability are reviewed.

Detection of monosomy 7 in bone marrow by fluorescence in situ hybridization. A study of Fanconi anemia patients and review of the literature.

Monosomy 7 is frequently found in the bone marrow of patients with Fanconi anemia (FA), marrow myelodysplasia, or acute myelogenous leukemia and is associated with poor prognosis. In our laboratory, cytogenetic analysis of bone marrow from an FA patient found 2 of 30 cells with monosomy 7, but the results of fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) indicated that 83 of 207 cells (40%) had monosomy 7. FISH was then used to analyze two earlier samples from the index case, neither of which had monosomy 7 as determined by standard cytogenetics. The FISH analysis determined that the first sample, taken 19 months earlier, had 8 of 200 cells (4%) with monosomy 7 and the second sample. taken 7 months later, contained 43 of 200 cells (21.5%) with monosomy 7. These results indicate a slow evolution toward monosomy 7 in the patient's bone marrow. Standard metaphase chromosome analysis represents only spontaneously dividing cells, leading us to hypothesize that FISH was detecting monosomy 7 in nondividing cells and that it might be useful in the early detection of abnormal clones. To test this hypothesis, FISH was performed on 13 bone marrow samples from nine patients with FA who did not exhibit monosomy 7 by cytogenetic analysis. Monosomy 7 was detected in 3.44% of nuclei in FA patients and in 3% of nuclei in normal controls. To date, none of these nine FA patients have developed monosomy 7 or leukemia. They are being monitored by standard cytogenetics and by FISH to determine whether monosomy 7 develops and whether it can be detected by FISH prior to its detection by standard cytogenetics. As standard practice, we have adopted FISH analysis for monosomy 7 in all patients with FA.