Etranacogene dezaparvovec gene therapy for haemophilia B (HOPE-B): 24-month post-hoc efficacy and safety data from a single-arm, multicentre, phase 3 trial.

BACKGROUND: Etranacogene dezaparvovec, the first gene therapy approved for haemophilia B treatment, was shown to be superior to treatment with continuous prophylactic factor IX in terms of bleeding protection 18 months after gene therapy in a phase 3 trial. We report post-hoc 24-month efficacy and safety data from this trial to evaluate the longer-term effects of etranacogene dezaparvovec in individuals with haemophilia B. METHODS: The phase 3 HOPE-B trial enrolled males aged 18 years or older with inherited haemophilia B, classified as severe (plasma factor IX activity level <1%) or moderately severe (plasma factor IX activity level ≥1% and ≤2%), with a severe bleeding phenotype and who were on stable continuous factor IX prophylaxis. Participants were treated with a single infusion of etranacogene dezaparvovec (2 × 1013 genome copies per kg of bodyweight). The primary endpoint, reported previously, was non-inferiority of the annualised bleeding rate (ABR) during the 52 weeks following stable factor IX expression (defined as months 7-18 after treatment) versus an at least 6-month lead-in period in which participants received their usual continuous factor IX prophylaxis, and is updated here up to month 24. Additional, post-hoc efficacy analyses, including adjusted ABR, factor IX activity, participants within factor IX ranges, and factor IX use, and safety analyses were performed at 24 months after gene therapy. Data were analysed in the full analysis set, which comprised the 54 patients who received at least a partial dose of gene therapy. The trial is ongoing and is registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT03569891. FINDINGS: The study began on June 27, 2018, and participants were treated between January, 2019, and March, 2020; the date of data cutoff was April 21, 2022. 54 adult males (40 White, two Asian, one Black or African American, 11 other or missing) received a single intravenous infusion of etranacogene dezaparvovec and were followed for a median of 26·51 months (IQR 24·54-27·99), after a lead-in period of 7·13 months (6·51-7·82). In the updated analysis comparing months 7-24 after gene therapy to the lead-in period, mean adjusted ABR significantly reduced from 4·18 to 1·51 (p=0·0002) for all bleeds and from 3·65 to 0·99 (p=0·0001) for factor IX-treated bleeds. During each 6-month period after gene therapy, at least 67% of participants experienced no bleeding (36 of 54 during months 0-6 and stable thereafter), compared with 14 (26%) of 54 during the lead-in period. 24 months after gene therapy, 1 (2%) participant had one-stage factor IX activity less than 5%, whereas 18 (33%) had factor IX activity more than 40% (non-haemophilia range), with mean factor IX activity stable and sustained at 36·7% (SD 19·0%). 52 (96%) of 54 participants expressed endogenous factor IX, remaining free of factor IX prophylaxis at month 24. No new safety concerns were identified and no treatment-related serious adverse events or treatment-related deaths occurred. The most common treatment-related adverse events were an increase in alanine aminotransferase (nine [17%] of 54 patients), headache (eight [15%]), influenza-like illness (seven [13%]), and an increase in aspartate aminotransferase (five [9%]). INTERPRETATION: By providing durable disease correction throughout the 24 months after gene therapy, etranacogene dezaparvovec provides a safe and effective therapeutic option for patients with severe or moderately severe haemophilia B. FUNDING: uniQure and CSL Behring.

SARS-CoV-2 infection causes dopaminergic neuron senescence.

COVID-19 patients commonly present with signs of central nervous system and/or peripheral nervous system dysfunction. Here, we show that midbrain dopamine (DA) neurons derived from human pluripotent stem cells (hPSCs) are selectively susceptible and permissive to severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) infection. SARS-CoV-2 infection of DA neurons triggers an inflammatory and cellular senescence response. High-throughput screening in hPSC-derived DA neurons identified several FDA-approved drugs that can rescue the cellular senescence phenotype by preventing SARS-CoV-2 infection. We also identified the inflammatory and cellular senescence signature and low levels of SARS-CoV-2 transcripts in human substantia nigra tissue of COVID-19 patients. Furthermore, we observed reduced numbers of neuromelanin+ and tyrosine-hydroxylase (TH)+ DA neurons and fibers in a cohort of severe COVID-19 patients. Our findings demonstrate that hPSC-derived DA neurons are susceptible to SARS-CoV-2, identify candidate neuroprotective drugs for COVID-19 patients, and suggest the need for careful, long-term monitoring of neurological problems in COVID-19 patients.

Correlation of gene expression with magnetic resonance imaging features of retinoblastoma: a multi-center radiogenomics validation study.

OBJECTIVES: To validate associations between MRI features and gene expression profiles in retinoblastoma, thereby evaluating the repeatability of radiogenomics in retinoblastoma. METHODS: In this retrospective multicenter cohort study, retinoblastoma patients with gene expression data and MRI were included. MRI features (scored blinded for clinical data) and matched genome-wide gene expression data were used to perform radiogenomic analysis. Expression data from each center were first separately processed and analyzed. The end product normalized expression values from different sites were subsequently merged by their Z-score to permit cross-sites validation analysis. The MRI features were non-parametrically correlated with expression of photoreceptorness (radiogenomic analysis), a gene expression signature informing on disease progression. Outcomes were compared to outcomes in a previous described cohort. RESULTS: Thirty-six retinoblastoma patients were included, 15 were female (42%), and mean age was 24 (SD 18) months. Similar to the prior evaluation, this validation study showed that low photoreceptorness gene expression was associated with advanced stage imaging features. Validated imaging features associated with low photoreceptorness were multifocality, a tumor encompassing the entire retina or entire globe, and a diffuse growth pattern (all p < 0.05). There were a number of radiogenomic associations that were also not validated. CONCLUSIONS: A part of the radiogenomic associations could not be validated, underlining the importance of validation studies. Nevertheless, cross-center validation of imaging features associated with photoreceptorness gene expression highlighted the capability radiogenomics to non-invasively inform on molecular subtypes in retinoblastoma. CLINICAL RELEVANCE STATEMENT: Radiogenomics may serve as a surrogate for molecular subtyping based on histopathology material in an era of eye-sparing retinoblastoma treatment strategies. KEY POINTS: • Since retinoblastoma is increasingly treated using eye-sparing methods, MRI features informing on molecular subtypes that do not rely on histopathology material are important. • A part of the associations between retinoblastoma MRI features and gene expression profiles (radiogenomics) were validated. • Radiogenomics could be a non-invasive technique providing information on the molecular make-up of retinoblastoma.

Optic nerve thickening on high-spatial-resolution MRI predicts early-stage postlaminar optic nerve invasion in retinoblastoma.

OBJECTIVES: To assess the diagnostic accuracy of nerve thickening on MRI to predict early-stage postlaminar optic nerve invasion (PLONI) in retinoblastoma. Furthermore, this study aimed to incorporate measurements into a multiparametric model for radiological determination of PLONI. METHODS: In this retrospective multicenter case-control study, high-spatial-resolution 3D T2-weighted MR images were used to measure the distal optic nerve. Histopathology was the reference standard for PLONI. Two neuroradiologists independently measured the optic nerve width, height, and surface at 0, 3, and 5 mm from the most distal part of the optic nerve. Subsequently, PLONI was scored on contrast-enhanced T1-weighted and 3D T2-weighted images, blinded for clinical data. Optic nerve measurements with the highest diagnostic accuracy for PLONI were incorporated into a prediction model for radiological determination of PLONI. RESULTS: One hundred twenty-four retinoblastoma patients (median age, 22 months [range, 0-113], 58 female) were included, resulting in 25 retinoblastoma eyes with histopathologically proven PLONI and 206 without PLONI. ROC analysis of axial optic nerve width measured at 0 mm yielded the best area under the curve of 0.88 (95% confidence interval: 0.79, 0.96; p < 0.001). The optimal width cutoff was ≥ 2.215 mm, with a sensitivity of 84% (95% CI: 64, 95%) and specificity of 83% (95% CI: 75, 89%) for detecting PLONI. Combining width measurements with the suspicion of PLONI on MRI sequences resulted in a prediction model with an improved sensitivity and specificity of respectively up to 88% and 92%. CONCLUSION: Postlaminar optic nerve thickening can predict early-stage postlaminar optic nerve invasion in retinoblastoma. CLINICAL RELEVANCE STATEMENT: This study provides an additional tool for clinicians to help determine postlaminar optic nerve invasion, which is a risk factor for developing metastatic disease in retinoblastoma patients. KEY POINTS: • The diagnostic accuracy of contrast-enhanced MRI for detecting postlaminar optic nerve invasion is limited in retinoblastoma patients. • Optic nerve thickening can predict postlaminar optic nerve invasion. • A prediction model combining MRI features has a high sensitivity and specificity for detecting postlaminar optic nerve invasion.

Exploring Patterns of COPD Exacerbations and Comorbid Flare-Ups.

Background: Comorbidities are known to complicate disease management in patients with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). This is partly due to lack of insight into the interplay of acute exacerbations of COPD (AECOPD) and comorbid flare-ups. This study aimed to explore patterns of AECOPDs and comorbid flare-ups. Methods: Data of increased symptoms were extracted from a 12-month daily symptom follow-up database including patients with COPD and comorbidities (chronic heart failure (CHF), anxiety, depression) and transformed to visualizations of AECOPDs and comorbid flare-up patterns over time. Patterns were subsequently categorized using an inductive approach, based on both predominance (ie, which occurs most often) of AECOPDs or comorbid flare-ups, and their simultaneous (ie, simultaneous start in ≥ 50%) occurrence. Results: We included 48 COPD patients (68 ± 9 years; comorbid CHF: 52%, anxiety: 40%, depression: 38%). In 25 patients with AECOPDs and CHF flare-ups, the following patterns were identified: AECOPDs predominant (n = 14), CHF flare-ups predominant (n = 5), AECOPDs nor CHF flare-ups predominant (n = 6). Of the 24 patients with AECOPDs and anxiety and/or depression flare-ups, anxiety and depression flare-ups occurred simultaneously in 15 patients. In 9 of these 24 patients, anxiety or depression flare-ups were observed independently from each other. In 31 of the included 48 patients, AECOPDs and comorbid flare-ups occurred mostly simultaneously. Conclusion: Patients with COPD and common comorbidities show a variety of patterns of AECOPDs and comorbid flare-ups. Some patients, however, show repetitive patterns that could potentially be used to improve personalized disease management, if recognized.

Transition readiness among adolescents and young adults with haemophilia in the Netherlands: Nationwide questionnaire study.

INTRODUCTION: Care for adolescents with haemophilia is transferred from paediatric to adult care around the age of 18 years. Transition programs help to prepare adolescents for this transfer and prevent declining treatment adherence. Evaluating transition readiness may identify areas for improvement. OBJECTIVE: Assess transition readiness among Dutch adolescents and young adults with haemophilia, determine factors associated with transition readiness, and identify areas of improvement in transition programs. METHODS: All Dutch adolescents and young adults aged 12-25 years with haemophilia were invited to participate in a nationwide questionnaire study. Transition readiness was assessed using multiple-choice questions and was defined as being ready or almost ready for transition. Potential factors associated with transition readiness were investigated, including: socio-demographic and disease-related factors, treatment adherence, health-related quality of life, and self-efficacy. RESULTS: Data of 45 adolescents and 84 young adults with haemophilia (47% with severe haemophilia) were analyzed. Transition readiness increased with age, from 39% in 12-14 year-olds to 63% in 15-17 year-olds. Nearly all post-transition young adults (92%, 77/84) reported they were ready for transition. Transition readiness was associated with treatment adherence, as median VERITAS-Pro treatment adherence scores were worse in patients who were not ready (17, IQR 9-29), compared to those ready for transition (11, IQR 9-16). Potential improvements were identified: getting better acquainted with the adult treatment team prior to transition and information on managing healthcare costs. CONCLUSIONS: Nearly all post-transition young adults reported they were ready for transition. Improvements were identified regarding team acquaintance and preparation for managing healthcare costs.

Evaluation of Exacerbation and Symptom-Free Time in Patients with COPD.

In clinical practice, clinicians mainly focus on Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) exacerbations and symptoms, while patients may prefer to evaluate periods free of COPD exacerbations and deteriorated symptoms. The latter would suit the positive health approach that centralizes people and their beliefs. We aimed to identify patient characteristics and health outcomes relating to: 1) COPD exacerbation-free days; 2) days with no more symptoms than usual; and 3) combined COPD exacerbation and comorbid flare-up-free days (i.e. chronic heart failure, anxiety, depression flare-ups) using negative binomial regression analyzes. Data were obtained from two self-management intervention trials including COPD patients with and without comorbidities. 313 patients (mean age 66.0 years, 63.6% male, 68.7% comorbidity) were included. Better baseline chronic respiratory questionnaire (CRQ) fatigue (incidence rate ratio (IRR) = 1.03 (95% CI 1.01-1.05), p = 0.02) and mastery scores (IRR = 1.03 (95% CI 1.00-1.06), p = 0.04) and fewer courses of antibiotics (IRR = 0.95 (95% CI 0.94-0.96), p < 0.01) were related to more COPD exacerbation-free days. Additionally, better baseline CRQ fatigue (IRR = 1.05 (95% CI 1.00-1.10), p = 0.04) and mastery scores (IRR = 1.06 (95% CI 1.00-1.12), p = 0.04), fewer courses of antibiotics (IRR = 0.94 (95% CI 0.91-0.96), p < 0.01), and improved CRQ dyspnea scores over 12 months of follow-up (IRR = 1.07 (95% CI 1.01-1.12), p < 0.01) were correlated to more days free of deteriorated symptoms. Less baseline dyspnea (modified Medical Research Council score) (IRR = 0.95 (95% CI 0.92-0.98), p < 0.01) and fewer courses of antibiotics (IRR = 0.94 (95% CI 0.93-0.95), p < 0.01) were associated with more combined COPD exacerbation and comorbid flare-up-free days. Healthcare professionals should be aware that less fatigue and better mastering of COPD relate to more exacerbation and symptom-free time in COPD patients.

Translocator protein is a marker of activated microglia in rodent models but not human neurodegenerative diseases.

Microglial activation plays central roles in neuroinflammatory and neurodegenerative diseases. Positron emission tomography (PET) targeting 18 kDa Translocator Protein (TSPO) is widely used for localising inflammation in vivo, but its quantitative interpretation remains uncertain. We show that TSPO expression increases in activated microglia in mouse brain disease models but does not change in a non-human primate disease model or in common neurodegenerative and neuroinflammatory human diseases. We describe genetic divergence in the TSPO gene promoter, consistent with the hypothesis that the increase in TSPO expression in activated myeloid cells depends on the transcription factor AP1 and is unique to a subset of rodent species within the Muroidea superfamily. Finally, we identify LCP2 and TFEC as potential markers of microglial activation in humans. These data emphasise that TSPO expression in human myeloid cells is related to different phenomena than in mice, and that TSPO-PET signals in humans reflect the density of inflammatory cells rather than activation state.

MRI Features for Identifying MYCN-amplified RB1 Wild-type Retinoblastoma.

Background MYCN-amplified RB1 wild-type (MYCNARB1+/+) retinoblastoma is a rare but clinically important subtype of retinoblastoma due to its aggressive character and relative resistance to typical therapeutic approaches. Because biopsy is not indicated in retinoblastoma, specific MRI features might be valuable to identify children with this genetic subtype. Purpose To define the MRI phenotype of MYCNARB1+/+ retinoblastoma and evaluate the ability of qualitative MRI features to help identify this specific genetic subtype. Materials and Methods In this retrospective, multicenter, case-control study, MRI scans in children with MYCNARB1+/+ retinoblastoma and age-matched children with RB1-/- subtype retinoblastoma were included (case-control ratio, 1:4; scans acquired from June 2001 to February 2021; scans collected from May 2018 to October 2021). Patients with histopathologically confirmed unilateral retinoblastoma, genetic testing (RB1/MYCN status), and MRI scans were included. Associations between radiologist-scored imaging features and diagnosis were assessed with the Fisher exact test or Fisher-Freeman-Halton test, and Bonferroni-corrected P values were calculated. Results A total of 110 patients from 10 retinoblastoma referral centers were included: 22 children with MYCNARB1+/+ retinoblastoma and 88 control children with RB1-/- retinoblastoma. Children in the MYCNARB1+/+ group had a median age of 7.0 months (IQR, 5.0-9.0 months) (13 boys), while children in the RB1-/- group had a median age of 9.0 months (IQR, 4.6-13.4 months) (46 boys). MYCNARB1+/+ retinoblastomas were typically peripherally located (in 10 of 17 children; specificity, 97%; P < .001) and exhibited plaque or pleomorphic shape (in 20 of 22 children; specificity, 51%; P = .011) with irregular margins (in 16 of 22 children; specificity, 70%; P = .008) and extensive retina folding with vitreous enclosure (specificity, 94%; P < .001). MYCNARB1+/+ retinoblastomas showed peritumoral hemorrhage (in 17 of 21 children; specificity, 88%; P < .001), subretinal hemorrhage with a fluid-fluid level (in eight of 22 children; specificity, 95%; P = .005), and strong anterior chamber enhancement (in 13 of 21 children; specificity, 80%; P = .008). Conclusion MYCNARB1+/+ retinoblastomas show distinct MRI features that could enable early identification of these tumors. This may improve patient selection for tailored treatment in the future. © RSNA, 2023 Supplemental material is available for this article. See also the editorial by Rollins in this issue.

Clotting factor activity levels and bleeding risk in people with haemophilia playing sports.

BACKGROUND: Improved treatment options for people with haemophilia (PWH) have increased the possibilities for sports participation, but the risk of sports-induced bleeding (SIB) is still considered considerable by many. AIM: To assess sports associated injury- and bleeding risk in PWH and to assess clotting levels associated with safe sports participation. METHODS: Sports injuries and SIBs were prospectively collected for 12 months in PWH aged 6-49 without inhibitors playing sports at least once weekly. Injuries were compared according to factor levels, severity, joint health, sports risk category and sports intensity. Factor activity at the time of injury was estimated using a pharmacokinetic model. RESULTS: 125 participants aged 6-49 (41 children, 90% haemophilia A; 48% severe, 95% severe on prophylaxis) were included. Sports injuries were reported by 51 participants (41%). Most participants (62%) reported no bleeds at all and only 16% reported SIBs. SIBs were associated with factor levels at time of injury (OR: 0.93/%factor level (CI 0.88-0.99); p = .02), but not with haemophilia severity (OR: 0.62 (CI 0.20-1.89); p = .40), joint health, sports risk category or sports intensity. PWH with factor levels <10% during sports injury had a bleeding risk of 41% versus 20% in those with higher (>10%) factor levels. CONCLUSION: The results of this study emphasize the importance of clotting factor levels in prevention of bleeds. This information is vital for patient counselling and tailoring prophylactic treatment with clotting factors and non-replacement therapy.

Can motor proficiency testing predict sports injuries and sports-induced bleeds in people with haemophilia?

INTRODUCTION: Predicting the risk of sports injuries and sports-induced bleeds (SIBs) in people with haemophilia (PWH) may support clinical counselling. AIM: To assess the association between motor proficiency testing and sports injuries and SIBs and to identify a specific set of tests for predicting injury risk in PWH. METHODS: In a single centre, prospective study male PWH aged 6-49 playing sports ≥1x/week were tested for running speed and agility, balance, strength and endurance. Test results below -2Z were considered poor. Sports injuries and SIBs were collected for 12 months while 7 days of physical activity (PA) for each season was registered with accelerometers. Injury risk was analysed according to test results and type of physical activity (%time walking, cycling, running). Predictive values for sports injuries and SIBs were determined. RESULTS: Data from 125 PWH (mean [± SD] age: 25 [± 12], 90% haemophilia A; 48% severe, 95% on prophylaxis, median factor level: 2.5 [IQR 0-15]IU/dl) were included. Few participants (n = 19, 15%) had poor scores. Eighty-seven sports injuries and 26 SIBs were reported. Poor scoring participants reported 11/87 sports injuries and 5/26 SIBs. The current tests were poor predictors of sports injuries (Range PPV: 0%-40%), or SIBs (PPV: 0%-20%). PA type was not associated with season (activity seasonal p values > .20) and type of PA was not associated with sports injuries or SIBs (Spearman's rho < .15). CONCLUSION: These motor proficiency- and endurance tests were unable to predict sports injuries or SIBs in PWH, potentially due to few PWH with poor results and low numbers of sports injuries and SIBs.

Cerebellar presence of immune cells in patients with neuro-coeliac disease.

Although various neurodegenerative disorders have been associated with coeliac disease (CD), the underlying neuropathological link between these brain and gut diseases remains unclear. We postulated that the neuronal damage sporadically observed in CD patients is immune-mediated. Our aim was to determine if the loss of neurons, especially Purkinje cells, coincides with microglia activation and T- and B-cell infiltration in the cerebellum of patients with CD and a concomitant idiopathic neurological disease affecting the cerebellum (NeuroCD). Post-mortem cerebellar tissue was collected of validated NeuroCD cases. Gender- and age-matched genetic spinocerebellar ataxia (SCA) controls and non-neurological controls (NNC) were selected based on clinical reports and pathological findings. Cerebellar tissue of seventeen patients was included (6 NeuroCD, 5 SCA, 6 NNC). In SCA cases we found that the Purkinje cell layer was 58.6% reduced in comparison with NNC. In NeuroCD cases this reduction was even more prominent with a median reduction of 81.3% compared to NNC. Marked increased numbers of both CD3+ and CD8+ cells were observed in the NeuroCD but not in SCA patients. This coincided with significantly more microglial reactivity in NeuroCD patients. These findings demonstrate that the massive loss of Purkinje cells in the cerebellum of neuro CD patients is accompanied by local innate and T-cell mediated immune responses.

Gene Therapy with Etranacogene Dezaparvovec for Hemophilia B.

BACKGROUND: Moderate-to-severe hemophilia B is treated with lifelong, continuous coagulation factor IX replacement to prevent bleeding. Gene therapy for hemophilia B aims to establish sustained factor IX activity, thereby protecting against bleeding without burdensome factor IX replacement. METHODS: In this open-label, phase 3 study, after a lead-in period (≥6 months) of factor IX prophylaxis, we administered one infusion of adeno-associated virus 5 (AAV5) vector expressing the Padua factor IX variant (etranacogene dezaparvovec; 2×1013 genome copies per kilogram of body weight) to 54 men with hemophilia B (factor IX activity ≤2% of the normal value) regardless of preexisting AAV5 neutralizing antibodies. The primary end point was the annualized bleeding rate, evaluated in a noninferiority analysis comparing the rate during months 7 through 18 after etranacogene dezaparvovec treatment with the rate during the lead-in period. Noninferiority of etranacogene dezaparvovec was defined as an upper limit of the two-sided 95% Wald confidence interval of the annualized bleeding rate ratio that was less than the noninferiority margin of 1.8. Superiority, additional efficacy measures, and safety were also assessed. RESULTS: The annualized bleeding rate decreased from 4.19 (95% confidence interval [CI], 3.22 to 5.45) during the lead-in period to 1.51 (95% CI, 0.81 to 2.82) during months 7 through 18 after treatment, for a rate ratio of 0.36 (95% Wald CI, 0.20 to 0.64; P<0.001), demonstrating noninferiority and superiority of etranacogene dezaparvovec as compared with factor IX prophylaxis. Factor IX activity had increased from baseline by a least-squares mean of 36.2 percentage points (95% CI, 31.4 to 41.0) at 6 months and 34.3 percentage points (95% CI, 29.5 to 39.1) at 18 months after treatment, and usage of factor IX concentrate decreased by a mean of 248,825 IU per year per participant in the post-treatment period (P<0.001 for all three comparisons). Benefits and safety were observed in participants with predose AAV5 neutralizing antibody titers of less than 700. No treatment-related serious adverse events occurred. CONCLUSIONS: Etranacogene dezaparvovec gene therapy was superior to prophylactic factor IX with respect to the annualized bleeding rate, and it had a favorable safety profile. (Funded by uniQure and CSL Behring; HOPE-B ClinicalTrials.gov number, NCT03569891.).

Liver-related complications before and after successful treatment of chronic hepatitis C virus infection in people with inherited bleeding disorders.

INTRODUCTION: With availability of direct-acting antivirals (DAA), most persons with inherited bleeding disorders are currently cured of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection. The risk of liver-related complications following HCV cure has not been reported for this population. AIM: Reporting liver-related complications during long-term chronic HCV infection and following sustained virological response (SVR) in this population. METHODS: Retrospective follow-up of a prospective single-centre cohort of HCV antibody-positive persons with inherited bleeding disorders. Primary endpoint was liver-related complications [hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), decompensated cirrhosis, bleeding gastroesophageal varices]. Liver-related complications were reported separately during chronic HCV and following SVR, stratified for interferon-based and DAA-based SVR. RESULTS: In total 309/381 (81%) HCV antibody-positive individuals developed chronic HCV infection. Median follow-up was 44 years [interquartile range (IQR): 34-50]. Liver-related complications occurred in 36/309 (12%) of individuals with chronic HCV infection after median 31 years of chronic infection. Of 199 individuals with SVR, 97 were cured with interferon-based regimens and 102 with DAA after median infection durations of 29 and 45 years, respectively. At end of follow-up, respectively, 21% and 42% had advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis. Post-SVR, seven (4%) individuals had a liver-related complication, mainly HCC (n = 4). Incidence of liver-related complications per 100 patient-years post-SVR follow-up was .2 for interferon-cured and 1.0 for DAA-cured individuals (p = .01). CONCLUSION: Successful HCV treatment does not eliminate the risk of liver-related complications in persons with inherited bleeding disorders. Due to higher baseline risk, incidence was higher after DAA than interferon-based SVR. We advise continuing HCC surveillance post-SVR in all with advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis.

Patient and Health Care Provider Perspectives on Potential Preventability of Hospital Admission for Acute Exacerbation of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease: A Qualitative Study.

Purpose: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a highly prevalent chronic disease partly characterised by the occurrence of acute exacerbations (AECOPD). The need for hospital admissions for COPD exacerbations could theoretically be decreased through timely and appropriate outpatient care or self-management. The aim of this study is to explore and compare patients' and health care providers' (HCP) perspectives on the potential preventability of COPD hospitalisations and to identify strategies to prevent unnecessary hospitalisations. Patients and Methods: Semi-structured interviews were conducted with patients admitted for an AECOPD (N = 11), HCPs on the respiratory ward (N = 11), and treating pulmonologists (N = 10). Interviews were transcribed verbatim and analysed using thematic content analysis. Results: Patient and HCP perspectives on the potential preventability of hospital admissions for AECOPD often conflict. The kappa coefficients were -0.18 [95% CI: -0.46-0.11] for patients and pulmonologists and -0.28 [95% CI: -0.80-0.21] for patients and HCPs, which indicates poor agreement. The kappa coefficient for pulmonologists and HCPs was 0.14 [95% CI: -0.13-0.41], which indicates slight agreement. Patient and HCP factors that could potentially prevent hospitalisation for AECOPD were identified, including timely calling for help, recognizing and acting on symptoms, and receiving instruction about COPD, including treatment and action plans. Conclusion: Patients and their HCPs have different beliefs about the potential preventability of AECOPD hospitalisations. Most patients and HCPs mentioned factors that potentially could have led to a different outcome for the current AECOPD or that could impact the patient's health status and treatment of AECOPDs in the future. The factors identified in this study indicate that shared decision making is crucial to center the patient's perspective and individual needs and to provide timely treatment or prevention of AECOPD, thereby potentially decreasing hospital admission rates.

[Routine histopathological evaluation after appendectomy not necessary]. / Routinematig weefselonderzoek na appendectomie niet nodig.

The article seeks to supply evidence-based data on the usefulness of routine histopathological evaluation of appendectomy specimens taken for non-oncological purposes. Reasons to perform histology are: (1) old-fashioned attitude that everything worth excising is worthy of histological scrutiny, difficult to maintain in days of cost constraint and ever-improving other techniques to assess such questions; (2) quality assurance of surgical indications; (3) patient safety/security reasons, and (4) lack of other techniques to address diagnostical questions. The authors present a rational evaluation of the pros and cons of histological evaluation, arguing that cost reduction, workload reduction for pathologists and prevention of ineffective follow-up measures will outweigh eventual negative effects. As a pathologist I find the authors present a compelling case. We should try to avoid doing unnecessary work.

Immunopathology of the optic nerve in multiple sclerosis.

Optic neuritis, a primary clinical manifestation commonly observed in multiple sclerosis (MS), is a major factor leading to permanent loss of vision. Despite decreased vision (optic neuritis), diplopia, and nystagmus, the immunopathology of the optic nerve in MS is unclear. Here, we have characterized the optic nerve pathology in a large cohort of MS cases (n = 154), focusing on the immune responses in a sub-cohort of MS (n = 30) and control (n = 6) cases. Immunohistochemistry was used to characterize the myeloid (HLA-DR, CD68, Iba1, TMEM119, and P2RY12) and adaptive immune cells (CD4, CD8, and CD138) in the parenchyma, perivascular spaces, and meninges in optic nerve tissues from MS and control cases. Of the 154 MS cases, 122 (79%) reported visual problems; of which, 99 (81%) optic nerves showed evidence of damage. Of the 31 cases with no visual disturbances, 19 (61%) showed evidence of pathology. A pattern of myeloid cell activity and demyelination in the optic nerve was similar to white matter lesions in the brain and spinal cord. In the optic nerves, adaptive immune cells were more abundant in the meninges close to active and chronic active lesions, and significantly higher compared with the parenchyma. Similar to brain tissues in this Dutch cohort, B-cell follicles in the meninges were absent. Our study reveals that optic nerve pathology is a frequent event in MS and may occur in the absence of clinical symptoms.

Magnetic Resonance Imaging Can Reliably Differentiate Optic Nerve Inflammation from Tumor Invasion in Retinoblastoma with Orbital Cellulitis.

PURPOSE: To investigate the prevalence and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) phenotype of retinoblastoma-associated orbital cellulitis. Additionally, this study aimed to identify postlaminar optic nerve enhancement (PLONE) patterns differentiating between inflammation and tumor invasion. DESIGN: A monocenter cohort study assessed the prevalence of orbital cellulitis features on MRI in retinoblastoma patients. A multicenter case-control study compared MRI features of the retinoblastoma-associated orbital cellulitis cases with retinoblastoma controls. PARTICIPANTS: A consecutive retinoblastoma patient cohort of 236 patients (311 eyes) was retrospectively investigated. Subsequently, 30 retinoblastoma cases with orbital cellulitis were compared with 30 matched retinoblastoma controls without cellulitis. METHODS: In the cohort study, retinoblastoma MRI scans were scored on presence of inflammatory features. In the case-control study, MRI scans were scored on intraocular features and PLONE patterns. Postlaminar enhancement patterns were compared with histopathologic assessment of postlaminar tumor invasion. Interreader agreement was assessed, and exact tests with Bonferroni correction were adopted for statistical comparisons. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Prevalence of retinoblastoma-associated orbital cellulitis on MRI was calculated. Frequency of intraocular MRI features was compared between cases and controls. Sensitivity and specificity of postlaminar optic nerve patterns for detection of postlaminar tumor invasion were assessed. RESULTS: The MRI prevalence of retinoblastoma-associated orbital cellulitis was 6.8% (16/236). Retinoblastoma with orbital cellulitis showed significantly more tumor necrosis, uveal abnormalities (inflammation, hemorrhage, and necrosis), lens luxation (all P < 0.001), and a larger eye size (P = 0.012). The inflammatory pattern of optic nerve enhancement (strong enhancement similar to adjacent choroid) was solely found in orbital cellulitis cases, of which none (0/16) showed tumor invasion on histopathology. Invasive pattern enhancement was found in both cases and controls, of which 50% (5/10) showed tumor invasion on histopathology. Considering these different enhancement patterns suggestive for either inflammation or tumor invasion increased specificity for detection of postlaminar tumor invasion in orbital cellulitis cases from 32% (95% confidence interval [CI], 16-52) to 89% (95% CI, 72-98). CONCLUSIONS: Retinoblastoma cases presenting with orbital cellulitis show MRI findings of a larger eye size, extensive tumor necrosis, uveal abnormalities, and lens luxation. Magnetic resonance imaging contrast-enhancement patterns within the postlaminar optic nerve can differentiate between tumor invasion and inflammatory changes.

ACE2 Protein Expression During Childhood, Adolescence, and Early Adulthood.

Purpose and context. Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 is the entry receptor for SARS-CoV and SARS-CoV-2. Variations in ACE2 expression might explain age-related symptomatology of COVID-19, that is, more gastro-intestinal symptoms and less pulmonary complaints. This study qualitatively investigated ACE2 protein expression in various organs from the fetal to the young adolescent stage. Method. Autopsy samples from lung, heart, liver, stomach, small intestine, pancreas, kidney, adrenals, and brain (when available) were obtained from twenty subjects aged 24 weeks gestational age through 28 years. Formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded 4-um-thick tissue sections were stained against ACE2. Key results. We showed that the extent of ACE2 expression is age-related. With age, expression increases in lungs and decreases in intestines. In the other examined organs, ACE2 protein expression did not change with age. In brain tissue, ACE2 was expressed in astrocytes and endothelial cells. Conclusions. Age-related ACE2 expression differences could be one substrate of the selective clinical vulnerability of the respiratory and gastro-intestinal system to SARS-CoV-2 infection during infancy.