Optimal computed tomography-based biomarkers for prediction of incisional hernia formation.

PURPOSE: Unstructured data are an untapped source for surgical prediction. Modern image analysis and machine learning (ML) can harness unstructured data in medical imaging. Incisional hernia (IH) is a pervasive surgical disease, well-suited for prediction using image analysis. Our objective was to identify optimal biomarkers (OBMs) from preoperative abdominopelvic computed tomography (CT) imaging which are most predictive of IH development. METHODS: Two hundred and twelve rigorously matched colorectal surgery patients at our institution were included. Preoperative abdominopelvic CT scans were segmented to derive linear, volumetric, intensity-based, and textural features. These features were analyzed to find a small subset of OBMs, which are maximally predictive of IH. Three ML classifiers (Ensemble Boosting, Random Forest, SVM) trained on these OBMs were used for prediction of IH. RESULTS: Altogether, 279 features were extracted from each CT scan. The most predictive OBMs found were: (1) abdominopelvic visceral adipose tissue (VAT) volume, normalized for height; (2) abdominopelvic skeletal muscle tissue volume, normalized for height; and (3) pelvic VAT volume to pelvic outer aspect of body wall skeletal musculature (OAM) volume ratio. Among ML prediction models, Ensemble Boosting produced the best performance with an AUC of 0.85, accuracy of 0.83, sensitivity of 0.86, and specificity of 0.81. CONCLUSION: These OBMs suggest increased intra-abdominopelvic volume/pressure as the salient pathophysiologic driver and likely mechanism for IH formation. ML models using these OBMs are highly predictive for IH development. The next generation of surgical prediction will maximize the utility of unstructured data using advanced image analysis and ML.

The associations between anthropometric measurements and left ventricular structure and function: the Echo-SOL Study.

OBJECTIVE: The objective of this study is to determine associations between anthropometry and echocardiographic measures of cardiac structure and function in Hispanic/Latinos. METHODS: A total of 1,824 participants from ECHO-SOL were included. We evaluated associations between echocardiographic measures of left ventricular structure and function and anthropometric measures using multivariable-adjusted linear and logistic regression models adjusting for traditional cardiovascular risk factors. RESULTS: The mean age was 56 ± 0.17 years, 57% were women. The mean body mass index (BMI) was 30 ± 9.4 kg m-2, waist circumference (WC) was 100 ± 18 cm, and waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) was 0.93 ± 0.15. Adjusted analysis showed that 5-unit increment in BMI and 5-cm increase in WC was associated with 3.4 ± 0.6 and 1.05 ± 0.05 g m-2.7 (p < 0.05 for both) higher left ventricular (LV) mass index, respectively. Similarly, 0.1-unit increment in WHR was associated with 2.0 ± 0.16 g m-2.7 higher LV mass index (p < 0.01). WHR was associated with 0.22 ± 0.08% decrease in ejection fraction (p < 0.05). Concomitantly, 5-unit increment in BMI and WC was associated with increased odds of abnormal LV geometry (odds ratio 1.40 and 1.16, p = 0.03 and <0.01, respectively); 0.1-unit increment in WHR was associated with increased odds of abnormal LV geometry (odds ratio 1.51, p < 0.01). CONCLUSIONS: Among Hispanic/Latinos, higher anthropometric measures were associated with adverse cardiac structure and function.

The Contribution of Common Surgically Implanted Hardware to Functional MR Imaging Artifacts.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Blood oxygenation level-dependent MR imaging is increasingly used clinically to noninvasively assess cerebrovascular reactivity and/or language and motor function. However, many patients have metallic implants, which will induce susceptibility artifacts, rendering the functional information uninformative. Here, we calculate and interpret blood oxygenation level-dependent MR imaging artifact impact arising from surgically implanted hardware. MATERIALS AND METHODS: A retrospective analysis of all blood oxygenation level-dependent MRIs (n = 343; B0 = 3T; TE = 35 ms; gradient echo EPI) acquired clinically (year range = 2006-2014) at our hospital was performed. Blood oxygenation level-dependent MRIs were most commonly prescribed for patients with cerebrovascular disease (n = 80) or patients undergoing language or motor localization (n = 263). Artifact volume (cubic centimeters) and its impact on clinical interpretation were determined by a board-certified neuroradiologist. RESULTS: Mean artifact volume associated with intracranial hardware was 4.3 ± 3.2 cm(3) (range = 1.1-9.4 cm(3)). The mean artifact volume from extracranial hardware in patients with cerebrovascular disease was 28.4 ± 14.0 cm(3) (range = 6.1-61.7 cm(3)), and in patients with noncerebrovascular disease undergoing visual or motor functional mapping, it was 39.9 (3)± 27.0 cm(3) (range = 6.9-77.1 cm(3)). The mean artifact volume for ventriculoperitoneal shunts was 95.7 ± 39.3 cm(3) (range = 64.0-139.6 cm(3)). Artifacts had no-to-mild effects on clinical interpretability in all patients with intracranial implants. Extracranial hardware artifacts had no-to-moderate impact on clinical interpretability, with the exception of 1 patient with 12 KLS-Martin maxDrive screws with severe artifacts precluding clinical interpretation. All examined ventriculoperitoneal shunts resulted in moderate-to-severe artifacts, limiting clinical interpretation. CONCLUSIONS: Blood oxygenation level-dependent MR imaging yields interpretable functional maps in most patients beyond a small (30-40 cm(3)) artifact surrounding the hardware. Exceptions were ventriculoperitoneal shunts, particularly those with programmable valves and siphon gauges, and large numbers of KLS-Martin maxDrive screws.

Recurrent thyroid abscess - Is it a fourth branchial archanomaly?

Branchial fistulae are of congenital origin(6) and consists of skin lined tract opening internally at junction of cartilaginous and bony meatus in case of 1(st) arch anomaly, tonsillar fossa in case of 2(nd) arch, while 3(rd) and 4(th) arch sinuses have internal opening at level of pyriform sinus or below. A complete tract of 3(rd) or 4(th) arch fistulae is yet to be described. Fourth arch fistulae(1) have a distinct clinical pattern of internal opening at pyriform apex, are left sided and associated with suppurative thyroiditis(3), they manifest at a younger age and treatment involves excision of tract with ipsilateral thyroid lobectomy.

A phase I study of antisense oligonucleotide GTI-2040 given by continuous intravenous infusion in patients with advanced solid tumors.

BACKGROUND: This study of GTI-2040, a 20-mer phosphorothioate oligonucleotide complementary to the messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) of the R2 subunit of ribonucleotide reductase (RNR), was conducted to determine the dose-limiting toxicity (DLT) and maximum-tolerated dose (MTD) of the agent in patients with advanced solid tumors or lymphoma. Plasma pharmacokinetics of GTI-2040 and suppression of RNR expression in peripheral blood mononuclear cells were also studied. PATIENTS AND METHODS: GTI-2040 was administered as a continuous intravenous infusion for 21 days every 4 weeks. Dose escalation was performed using an accelerated, dose-doubling schedule until any drug related toxicity > or = grade 2 was observed; subsequent dose escalation followed a more conservative dose escalation scheme with three patients/cohort. RESULTS: A total of 49 cycles of therapy were administered to 36 patients at GTI-2040 doses ranging from 18.5 mg/m(2)/day to 222 mg/m(2)/day. GTI-2040 was generally well tolerated. At the highest dose level examined, two patients experienced dose limiting reversible hepatic toxicity. Constitutional toxicities consisting of fatigue and anorexia were the most common toxicities. CONCLUSIONS: The recommended dose of GTI-2040 given on this infusion schedule is 185 mg/m(2)/day. GTI-2040 appears to have a manageable toxicity profile and is generally well tolerated as a single agent.

Role of parecoxib in pre-emptive analgesia: comparison of the efficacy and safety of pre- and postoperative parecoxib in patients undergoing general surgery.

Management of acute postoperative pain remains sub-optimal despite the availability of multiple analgesics and improved pain management strategies (with nearly 80 % of patients reporting moderate to extreme pain following surgery). To evaluate the role of parecoxib as a pre-emptive analgesic in patients undergoing general surgery, the present study was undertaken. Eighty patients of either sex, aged 18 to 70 years, requiring elective ambulatory general surgery like hernioplasty, appendicectomy, cholecystectomy, etc, were enrolled in this prospective, randomised, assessor-blind, parallel-group, comparative trial. Eligible patients were randomised to receive a single dose of 40 mg of parecoxib IM/IV either 30-45 minutes prior to induction of anesthesia (pre-emptive analgesia) or in the postoperative period when one reported pain or when the effects of anesthesia were worn off (whichever was earlier). The primary measures of efficacy were pain intensity scores measured on a visual analog scale (VAS) and pain relief before and after therapy. Adverse event monitoring, physical examination and changes in laboratory tests, chest x-ray and ECG were used to evaluate safety. A comparison of the pain intensity scores between the two groups revealed that patients treated with parecoxib preoperatively did not complain of pain in the entire postoperative period up to 12 hours. Mild pain (1.05+/-1.36) was reported by patients in this group only at the 24 hours assessment. On the other hand, patients treated with parecoxib in the postoperative period, experienced severe pain at baseline, which declined gradually up to 12 hours. The difference in the pain intensity scores between the two groups was statistically significant at all the time intervals from 0 hour to 24 hours. All the 40 patients (100%) in the pre-operatively treated group reported total pain relief at 12 hours compared to only 22 patients (55%) in the postoperative period. At 24 hours total pain relief was reported by 70% of the patients in the pre-operatively treated group, compared to only 20% (8) patients in the postoperatively treated group. The difference between the two groups was statistically significant in favour of the pre-operatively treated group (p<0.05). Present results suggested that pre-operative administration of parecoxib was more effective than a postoperative use in providing pain relief in postoperative period in patients undergoing elective general surgical procedures. Both the regimens were well tolerated. Based on the above data, it appears that pre-operative dose of parecoxib 40 mg IV/IM is a useful optionfor pre-emptive analgesia in general surgical practice.

Post operative sensorineural hearing loss after middle ear surgery.

Mild Sensorineural hearing loss subsequent to middle ear surgery has till today been an important complication to middle ear surgery inspite of advances in surgical techniques, operative instruments, monitoring devices and better treatment options. Lack of proper knowledge about this problem is because of under reporting of exact magnitude of hearing loss on account of difficulty in measuring hearing threshold of patients in immediate postoperative period as it may lead to post operative infection and discomfort to the patient.In our study of 80 cases carried out at ENT department, Baroda Medical College and S.S.G Hospital, Baroda, we have utilized weber's lateralisation principle and measured bone conduction thresholds of patients undergoing middle ear surgery for evaluation of postoperative Sensorineural loss as a result of middle ear surgery. Probable causes of post operative hearing loss in a patient undergoing middle ear surgery are, noise due to drills, continuous suction irrigation, vibrations, inner ear injury, manipulation of ossicles and a few unknown reasons.

The quality of care in Barrett's esophagus: endoscopist and pathologist practices.

BACKGROUND: The diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus (BE) has important psychological and economic implications. Although accepted standards for endoscopic biopsy methods and pathological interpretation for BE exist, adherence to these standards as a measure of the quality of care in BE has not been evaluated. Our aim was to assess the quality of care in BE by evaluating the process of care and adherence to accepted standards of practice. METHODS: Explicit process-of-care criteria were developed using a systematic literature review and expert opinion in four domains of care: the quality of biopsy methods, the adequacy in identifying endoscopic landmarks, endoscopist-pathologist communication, and pathological interpretation and reporting. We reviewed all endoscopy and pathology reports of BE patients at two institutions from 1994-1997. An academic medical center (N = 237) with staff endoscopists and an academically affiliated community hospital (N = 100) with private-practice endoscopists were analyzed. RESULTS: Physicians showed the highest adherence to accepted standards of care in the "adequacy of identifying landmarks" and "endoscopist-pathologist communication" domains, with a > or =70% adherence rate in most criteria. Conversely, physicians demonstrated the poorest adherence with the "quality of biopsy methods" and "pathologist interpretation and reporting" domains, with adherence rates frequently <60%. Significantly, biopsies were taken in the presence of visible esophagitis 35% of the time. Performance on several of the quality indicators varied significantly by the practice setting. CONCLUSIONS: We have identified several opportunities for quality improvement efforts. In every domain, there is room for improvement, particularly in the quality of biopsy methods. As initiatives to screen the large population of gastroesophageal reflux disease patients for BE may be imminent, the time is now to define the critical process-of-care measures to minimize the risk of overdiagnosis and inadequate endoscopic surveillance.

Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (a report of 19 cases).

Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma is a relatively rare benign, but locally aggresive tumor of the nasopharynx afflicting the adolescent males. The management of these tumors has been a subject of much interest and controversy in the past Here we present a series of 19 patients of nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (with CT Scan as the main stay of diagnosis) managed over the last 5 years at ENT and Head & Neck Surgery Department of S.S.G. Hospital, Vadodara, with infraoperative internal maxillary artery ligation via the trans maxillary approach permitting accurate removal of tumor with no major post operative complications, minimal blood loss, good cosmetic result and no recurrence till date. If further experience with this approach to management in a larger series of patients has the same results, surgery should be the gold standard in treatment of Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.

Moebius syndrome (moebius sequence).

Moebius Syndrome is one of the rare disorder amongst the oromandibular limb hypogenesis. It is of a unknown atiology with sporadic occurrence in which there is congenital bilateral facial palsy,-bilateral involvement of abducent nerve along with other cranial nerves like III, V, IX, X, Xllth and the patient having masklike expressionless face. We are reporting a case of Moebius Sequence who presented to us in the department of ENT and Head and Neck Surgery, Baroda.

Diagnostic role of ultrasonography in neck swellings.

Diagnostic Role of Ultrasonography in Neck Swellings The study of ultrasonographic features of various neck swellings in fifty patients was done. There were 22 thyroid and thyroid related swelling, 8 salivary gland lesions, 9 lymph nodes and 14 swellings of miscellaneous origin. Various ultrasonographic features like echogenicity, echotextures were noted. There were no specific echogenicity in benign and malignant thyroid neoplasms. Various ultrasonographic features of benign and malignant salivary neoplasms and lymph nodes are described. Specific sonographic features of various miscellaneous neck swellings are also described.

Early response to therapy and outcome in childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia: a review.

BACKGROUND: Early response to therapy is defined as the initial response prior to Day 28 of treatment, the conventional time of marrow evaluation. The number of reports linking early response to therapy with the ultimate outcome of childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia is substantial and growing. When this study began, these experiences had yet to be comprehensively reviewed. METHODS: A comprehensive search of the published literature yielded contributory reports of 14 trials conducted in the United States and Europe. In addition, unpublished data from one Children's Cancer Group trial were made available. Outcome measures were standardized by conversion to ratios of the incidence of adverse events among poorer and better responders. RESULTS: Early response to therapy was an independent prognostic factor in each of the 15 trials, which together included more than 10,000 patients. The incidence of slower early response ranged from 2-33%, with various measures and criteria used in different trials. Patients with a slower early response were 1.5-6.1 times (median, 2.7) more likely to have an adverse event than patients with a more rapid early response, however defined. Early response maintained prognostic significance after the exclusion of induction failure and within risk strata defined by age, white blood cell count, and/or immunophenotype. Its significance was also maintained in multivariate analyses where performed. CONCLUSIONS: Early response to therapy, whether determined by evaluation of bone marrow or peripheral blood, is a consistent, independent prognostic factor in childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Slower early response may serve as a useful surrogate for outcome, a more complex end point, in investigations of the cellular and molecular determinants of resistance to therapy. It may also allow early identification of a patient subpopulation for whom current therapy is less effective and alternative strategies may be justified.

Tryptophan depletion as a mechanism of gamma interferon-mediated chlamydial persistence.

Previous studies have shown that the immune-regulated cytokine gamma interferon (IFN-gamma) activates host cells to restrict intracellular growth of the bacterial pathogen Chlamydia trachomatis by induction of the tryptophan-catabolizing enzyme indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase (IDO). Recently, subinhibitory levels of IFN-gamma were used to generate an in vitro persistent chlamydial infection characterized by large aberrant, noninfectious reticulate bodies from which infectious progeny could be recovered following the removal of IFN-gamma. Studies were done to determine if the mechanism functioning to induce chlamydiae to enter a persistent state in the presence of low levels of IFN-gamma was similar to that reported to inhibit chlamydial growth. Host cells treated with levels of IFN-gamma required to induce persistence were assessed for IDO activity by high-performance liquid chromatography analysis of tryptophan and its catabolic products. Substantial tryptophan catabolism was detected in acid-soluble cellular pools, indicating that the intracellular availability of this essential amino acid was limited under these conditions. In addition, a mutant cell line responsive to IFN-gamma but deficient in IDO activity was shown to support C. trachomatis growth, but aberrant organisms were not induced in response to IFN-gamma treatment. Analyses of infected cells cultured in medium with incremental levels of exogenous tryptophan indicated that persistent growth was induced by reducing the amount of this essential amino acid. These studies confirmed that nutrient deprivation by IDO-mediated tryptophan catabolism was the mechanism by which IFN-gamma mediates persistent growth of C. trachomatis.

Frontoethmoidal meningoencephalocystocele.

A rare variety of frontoethmoidal meningoencephalocystocele is reported. Transillumination of the mass and cross-fluctuation to the anterior frontanelle are diagnostic. Herniation of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle is probably being reported for the first time.