Efficacy and safety of shunt surgery in patients with idiopathic normal-pressure hydrocephalus: can we predict shunt response by preoperative magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?

AIM: The aim of this study was to identify preoperative magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) findings that can predict the shunt responsiveness in idiopathic normal-pressure hydrocephalus (iNPH) patients and to investigate postoperative outcome and complications. MATERIALS AND METHODS: A total of 192 patients with iNPH who underwent shunt at our hospital between 2000 and 2021 were included to investigate complications. Of these, after exclusion, 127 (1-month postoperative follow-up) and 77 (1-year postoperative follow-up) patients were evaluated. The preoperative MRI features (the presence of tightness of the high-convexity subarachnoid space, Sylvian fissure enlargement, Evans' index, and callosal angle) of the shunt-response and nonresponse groups were compared, and a systematic review was conducted to evaluate whether preoperative MRI findings could predict shunt response. RESULTS: Postoperative complications within one month after surgery were observed in 6.8% (13/192), and the most common complication was hemorrhage. Changes in corpus callosum were observed in 4.2% (8/192). The shunt-response rates were 83.5% (106/127) in the 1-month follow-up group and 70.1% (54/77) in 1-year follow-up group. In the logistic regression analysis, only Evans' index measuring >0.4 had a significant negative relationship with shunt response at 1-month follow-up; however, no significant relationship was observed at 1-year follow-up. According to our systematic review, it is still controversial whether preoperative MRI findings could predict shunt response. CONCLUSION: Evans' index measure of >0.4 had a significant relationship with the shunt response in the 1-month follow-up group. In systematic reviews, there is ongoing debate about whether preoperative MRI findings can accurately predict responses to shunt surgery. Postoperative corpus callosal change was observed in 4.2% of iNPH patients.

Metabolomic profiles of ovariectomized mice and their associations with body composition and frailty-related parameters in postmenopausal women.

BACKGROUND: Menopause, a dramatical estrogen-deficient condition, is considered the most significant milestone in women's health. PURPOSE: To investigate the metabolite changes attributed to estrogen deficiency using random forest (RF)-based machine learning (ML) modeling strategy in ovariectomized (OVX) mice as well as determine the clinical relevance of selected metabolites in older women. METHODS AND RESULTS: Untargeted and targeted metabolomic analyses revealed that metabolites related to TCA cycle, sphingolipids, phospholipids, fatty acids, and amino acids, were significantly changed in the plasma and/or muscle of OVX mice. Subsequent ML classifiers based on RF algorithm selected alpha-ketoglutarate (AKG), arginine, carnosine, ceramide C24, phosphatidylcholine (PC) aa C36:6, and PC ae C42:3 in plasma as well as PC aa 34:1, PC aa C34:3, PC aa C36:5, PC aa C32:1, PC aa C36:2, and sphingosine in muscle as top featured metabolites that differentiate the OVX mice from the sham-operated group. When circulating levels of AKG, arginine, and carnosine, which showed the most significant changes in OVX mice blood, were measured in postmenopausal women, higher plasma AKG levels were associated with lower bone mass, weak grip strength, poor physical performance, and increased frailty risk. CONCLUSIONS: Metabolomics- and ML-based methods identified the key metabolites of blood and muscle that were significantly changed after ovariectomy in mice, and the clinical implication of several metabolites was investigated by looking at their correlation with body composition and frailty-related parameters in postmenopausal women. These findings provide crucial context for understanding the diverse physiological alterations caused by estrogen deficiency in women.

Changes in smoking patterns and characteristics of Koreans using the Korea National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey 2013-2021 data.

OBJECTIVES: This study explored factors related to Korean adults' smoking patterns and also the reasons for using new types of tobacco products. STUDY DESIGN: Cross-sectional survey. METHODS: Data from the Korea National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey from 2013 to 2021 were used. The prevalence of the use of electronic cigarettes (e-cigarettes) or heated tobacco products (HTPs) alone or in combination with conventional cigarettes (CC) and the reasons for using new tobacco products are presented. Factors associated with using new types of tobacco products alone or in combination with CC compared to exclusive CC users were identified using multinomial logistic regression analysis. RESULTS: The prevalence of current smoking was 25.54% in 2013 and 23.05% in 2021, with no significant change. The prevalence of CC decreased from 23.39% in 2013 to 15.77% in 2021. The prevalence of new tobacco use in combination with CC did not show a definite trend. The prevalence of exclusive use of new tobacco was <1% until 2018 and has rapidly increased thereafter. Of the HTPs users, 46.68% responded with 'no cigarette smell' as the main reason for HTPs use, followed by 'It seems less harmful than cigarette' (19.19%), and 'It seems to be helpful for quitting smoking' (15.04%). Of the e-cigarette users, 45.19% responded 'It seems to be helpful for quitting smoking' as the main reason for e-cigarette use, followed by 'It is less harmful than cigarettes' (19.98%). Compared to CC users, new tobacco users were younger, had a higher household income or education, and used more nutritional supplements. CONCLUSION: Regulations for newer tobacco products are more lenient than for traditional cigarettes, leading to misunderstandings, especially among women and young people. To increase awareness of the risks of these products, specific policies such as disclosure of ingredients, ban on online sales, and increase in consumption tax, are needed.

Improved diagnostic performance of susceptibility-weighted imaging with compressed sensing-sensitivity encoding and neuromelanin-sensitive MRI for Parkinson's disease and atypical Parkinsonism.

AIM: To verify the diagnostic performance of the loss of nigrosome-1 on susceptibility-weighted imaging (SWI) with compressed sensing-sensitivity encoding (CS-SENSE) and neuromelanin on neuromelanin-sensitive (NM) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for the diagnosis of Parkinson's disease (PD) and atypical Parkinsonism. MATERIALS AND METHODS: A total of 195 patients who underwent MRI between October 2019 and February 2020, including SWI, with or without CS-SENSE, and NM-MRI, were reviewed retrospectively. Two neuroradiologists assessed the loss of nigrosome-1 on SWI and neuromelanin on the NM-MRI. The result of N-3-fluoropropyl-2-beta-carbomethoxy-3-beta-(4-iodophenyl) nortropane positron-emission tomography (PET) was set as the reference standard. RESULTS: When CS-SENSE was applied for nigrosome-1 imaging on SWI, the non-diagnostic scan rate was lowered significantly from 19.3% (17/88) to 5.6% (6/107; p=0.004). Diagnosis of PD and atypical Parkinsonism based on the loss of nigrosome-1 on SWI and based on NM-MRI showed good diagnostic value (area under the curve [AUC] 0.821, 95% confidence interval [CI] = 0.755-0.875: AUC 0.832, 95% CI = 0.771-0.882, respectively) with a substantial inter-reader agreement (κ = 0.791 and 0.681, respectively). Combined SWI and neuromelanin had a similar discriminatory ability (AUC 0.830, 95% CI = 0.770-0.880). Similarly, the diagnosis of PD was excellent. CONCLUSIONS: CS-SENSE may add value to the diagnostic capability of nigrosome-1 on SWI to reduce the nondiagnostic scan rates. Furthermore, loss of nigrosome-1 on SWI or volume loss of neuromelanin on NM-MRI may be helpful for diagnosing PD.

Direct comparison of the diagnostic accuracy of 2-[18F]-fluoro-2-deoxy-d-glucose PET/CT and MRI for the differentiation of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumour in neurofibromatosis type I: a meta-analysis.

AIM: To compare the diagnostic test of integrated 2-[18F]-fluoro-2-deoxy-d-glucose positron-emission tomography/computed tomography (FDG PET/CT) with that of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for the differentiation of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumours (MPNSTs) in neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) patients. MATERIALS AND METHODS: A systematic search was performed in PubMed and EMBASE (last updated in 30 November 2022). Studies investigating the performance of FDG PET/CT and MRI for differentiation of MPNSTs were eligible for inclusion. Only studies reporting a direct comparison between these imaging methods were considered to establish precise summary estimates in the same setting of patients. RESULTS: The pooled estimate of sensitivity of FDG PET/CT was 0.99 and a pooled specificity of 0.53. The pooled estimate of sensitivity of MRI was 0.85 and a pooled specificity of 0.85. CONCLUSION: Analysis of the available studies indicated that FDG PET/CT and MRI had similar diagnostic performances for differentiation of MPNSTs in patients with NF1; however, either technique can be a complement to the other rather than being used singly.

A retrospective analysis of nonresponse to denosumab after hip fractures.

Denosumab is an effective antiresorptive drug commonly prescribed for the treatment of osteoporosis. However, some patients do not respond well to denosumab treatment. The aim of this study was to evaluate the factors underlying treatment nonresponses to denosumab in elderly patients following hip fracture. This retrospective study included 130 patients treated with denosumab after osteoporotic hip fracture between March 2017 and March 2020. The patients were categorized as denosumab nonresponders if they had a T-score <-3 that persisted between dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry scans, a >3% decrease in bone mineral density (BMD), or an incident fracture on denosumab therapy. We examined the baseline characteristics associated with blunted BMD responses and compared the groups following denosumab treatment for 12 months. Of 130 patients with baseline data, 105 patients (80.8%) were considered responders. No difference in baseline vitamin D, calcium, BMI, age, gender, prior fracture history, or bisphosphonate use was observed between responders and nonresponders. A longer interval between denosumab injections was associated with suboptimal BMD response at both spine and total hip (p<0.001 and p=0.04, respectively). The overall L-BMD and H-BMD were significantly increased compared with pretreatment levels after denosumab treatment (5.7% and 2.5%, respectively). This study revealed that nonresponse was not strongly associated with certain baseline variables and it appears that the reponders and nonresponders were reasonably comparable in this study population. The results of our study highlight the importance of timely denosumab administration when using this drug for osteoporosis management. Physicians should keep these results in mind in clinical practice so that they can improve utilization of 6-month denosumab.

Detection rate of MR myelography without intrathecal gadolinium in patients with newly diagnosed spontaneous intracranial hypotension.

AIM: To evaluate the detection rate of magnetic resonance (MR) myelography without intrathecal gadolinium for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage in patients with newly diagnosed spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH) and to validate a published scoring system for predicting CSF leakage. MATERIALS AND METHODS: This retrospective, observational, single-institution study included patients with newly diagnosed SIH between March 2015 and April 2021. Patients were included if they (a) had newly diagnosed SIH and (b) underwent initial brain MR imaging and preprocedural MR myelography with two- and three-dimensional turbo spin-echo sequences. Patients who underwent spine surgery or procedures including epidural injection and acupuncture were excluded. The detection rate was defined as the proportion of patients with a true-positive MR myelography result among all patients with confirmed CSF leakage. The interobserver agreement for the MR myelography results between two radiologists was analysed using weighted kappa statistics. RESULTS: A total of 136 patients (mean age, 48 years; 70 women) with suspected SIH were included. Of these patients, 120 (88%, 120/136) were confirmed to have CSF leakage. Of the patients with confirmed CSF leakage, 90 (75%, 90/120) had epidural fluid collection. The detection rate of MR myelography for CSF leakage was 88% (105/120). The interobserver agreement between the two readers for detecting CSF leakage (κ = 0.76) or epidural fluid collection (κ = 0.76) on MR myelography was high. Among 24 patients with normal brain MR imaging results, 16 had CSF leakage (67%, 16/24). CONCLUSIONS: Non-invasive MR myelography without intrathecal gadolinium should be considered to detect CSF leakage in patients with suspected SIH.

Evaluation of zone disinfection by air-passable plasma filter in a novel chamber model.

BACKGROUND: Disinfection of shared spaces has become essential to minimize the spread of various diseases. An efficient disinfection device that can simultaneously inactivate airborne bacteria and surface-adhered bacteria in an enclosed space is required. AIM: An air-passable plasma filter (APF) was developed and applied to a chamber model to evaluate the efficacy of zone disinfection. METHODS: The 60 L chamber consisted of a nebulizer, circulation fans, temperature and humidity monitors, an air-sampling port with a sealed gate, airborne bacteria-trapping media, and a built-in fan for evaluation. After spraying each bacterial strain (Escherichia coli, Staphylococcus epidermidis, and Mycobacterium smegmatis) as a bioaerosol, airborne and surface-attached bacteria were quantified simultaneously to evaluate the zone-disinfection effect of APF. FINDINGS: The operation of APF in the 60 L chamber showed a complete zone-disinfection effect for E. coli (10 min), S. epidermidis (10 min), and M. smegmatis (60 min) present in the air and on the walls at various locations. The time required to completely disinfect each of the airborne bacteria and surface-attached bacteria within the same space was different. CONCLUSION: APF has the potential to exhibit significant germicidal effects on various micro-organisms and can be an effective alternative for disinfection of enclosed spaces.

Clinical characteristics and treatments of multi-system inflammatory syndrome in children: a systematic review.

OBJECTIVE: Multisystem inflammatory syndrome in children (MIS-C) can occur in association with coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19). It is not easy to differentiate MIS-C from severe COVID-19 or Kawasaki disease based on symptoms. The aim of this study was to describe the clinical and laboratory characteristics of MIS-C. PATIENTS AND METHODS: We searched PubMed/Medline for case series and reports of MIS-C published until June 20, 2020. From a total of nine articles involving 45 cases, various clinical and laboratory data were extracted. Each target case was evaluated by using different diagnostic criteria. RESULTS: The average age at onset of MIS-C was 8.6 years. In 80% of cases, the age of patients ranged from 5 to 15 years. Fever (100%) and shock (82%) were the most common presenting symptoms. Sixty percent of cases met the diagnostic criteria for typical or atypical Kawasaki disease. Biomarkers indicative of inflammation, coagulopathy, or cardiac injury were characteristically elevated as follows: ferritin (mean: 1,061 ng/mL), CRP (217 mg/L), ESR (69 mm/hr), IL-6 (214.8 pg/mL), TNFα (63.4 pg/mL), D-dimer (3,220 ng/mL), PT (15.5 s), troponin I (1,006 ng/L), and BNP (12,150 pg/mL). Intravenous immunoglobulin was administered in all target cases, and inotropic agents were commonly used as well. No case of death was observed. CONCLUSIONS: This study demonstrated that MIS-C is a serious condition that presents with fever, rash, as well as cardiovascular and gastrointestinal symptoms. Although it is challenging to differentiate MIS-C from Kawasaki disease or severe COVID-19, initiation of appropriate treatments through early diagnosis is warranted.

Cost-Effectiveness of Midazolam Versus Haloperidol Versus Olanzapine for the Management of Acute Agitation in the Accident and Emergency Department.

OBJECTIVES: A multicenter randomized clinical trial in Hong Kong Accident and Emergency (A&E) departments concluded that intramuscular (IM) olanzapine is noninferior to haloperidol and midazolam, in terms of efficacy and safety, for the management of acutely agitated patients in A&E setting. Determining their comparative cost-effectiveness will further provide an economic perspective to inform the choice of sedative in this setting. METHODS: This analysis used data from a randomized clinical trial conducted in Hong Kong A&E departments between December 2014 and September 2019. A within-trial cost-effectiveness analysis comparing the 3 sedatives was conducted, from the A&E perspective and a within-trial time horizon, using a decision-analytic model. Sensitivity analyses were also undertaken. RESULTS: In the base-case analysis, median total management costs associated with IM midazolam, haloperidol, and olanzapine were Hong Kong dollar (HKD) 1958.9 (US dollar [USD] 251.1), HKD 2504.5 (USD 321.1), and HKD 2467.6 (USD 316.4), respectively. Agitation management labor cost was the main cost driver, whereas drug costs contributed the least. Midazolam dominated over haloperidol and olanzapine. Probabilistic sensitivity analyses supported that midazolam remains dominant > 95% of the time and revealed no clear difference in the cost-effectiveness of IM olanzapine versus haloperidol (incremental cost-effectiveness ratio 667.16; 95% confidence interval -770.89, 685.90). CONCLUSIONS: IM midazolam is the dominant cost-effective treatment for the management of acute agitation in the A&E setting. IM olanzapine could be considered as an alternative to IM haloperidol given that there is no clear difference in cost-effectiveness, and their adverse effect profile should be considered when choosing between them.

Thin-Slice Pituitary MRI with Deep Learning-Based Reconstruction for Preoperative Prediction of Cavernous Sinus Invasion by Pituitary Adenoma: A Prospective Study.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Accurate radiologic prediction of cavernous sinus invasion by pituitary adenoma remains challenging. We aimed to assess whether 1-mm-slice-thickness MRI with deep learning-based reconstruction can better predict cavernous sinus invasion by pituitary adenoma preoperatively and to estimate the depth of invasion and degree of contact in relation to the carotid artery, compared with 3-mm-slice-thickness MRI. MATERIALS AND METHODS: This single-institution, prospective study included 67 consecutive patients (mean age, 53 [SD, 12] years; 28 women), between January and August 2020, who underwent a combined contrast-enhanced T1-weighted imaging protocol of 1-mm-slice-thickness MRI + deep learning-based reconstruction and 3-mm-slice-thickness MRI. An expert neuroradiologist who was blinded to the imaging protocol determined cavernous sinus invasion using the modified Knosp classification on 1-mm-slice-thickness MRI + deep learning-based reconstruction and 3-mm-slice-thickness MRI, respectively. Reference standards were established by the consensus of radiologic, intraoperative, pathologic, and laboratory findings. The primary end point was the diagnostic performance of each imaging protocol, and the secondary end points included depth of invasion and degree of contact in relation to the carotid artery. RESULTS: The diagnostic performance of 1-mm-slice-thickness MRI + deep learning-based reconstruction (area under the curve, 0.79; 95% CI, 0.69 - 0.89) in predicting cavernous sinus invasion by pituitary adenoma was higher than that of 3-mm-slice-thickness MRI (area under the curve, 0.61; 95% CI, 0.52-0.70; P < .001). One-millimeter-slice-thickness MRI + deep learning-based reconstruction demonstrated greater depth of invasion by pituitary adenomas from the medial intercarotid line than 3-mm-slice-thickness MRI (4.07 versus 3.12 mm, P < .001). A higher proportion of cases were in a greater degree of contact with the intracavernous ICA with 1-mm-slice-thickness MRI + deep learning-based reconstruction than with 3-mm-slice-thickness MRI (total encasement, 37.3% versus 13.4%, P < .001; >270°, 38.8% versus 16.4%, P < .001). CONCLUSIONS: Compared with 3-mm-slice-thickness MRI, 1-mm-slice-thickness MRI + deep learning-based reconstruction showed a higher diagnostic performance in preoperatively predicting cavernous sinus invasion by pituitary adenomas and demonstrated a greater depth and degree of contact in relation to the carotid artery.

Characteristics and outcomes of emergency department patients with a foreign body that entered through the ear, nose or mouth: a 10-year retrospective analysis.

BACKGROUND: Foreign bodies in the ear, nose and throat commonly necessitate emergency department visits. METHOD: This retrospective study was conducted on emergency department visits from January 2010 to December 2019 to determine characteristics and clinical prognoses of ENT patients. Patients were divided into three groups according to foreign-body entry route; patient characteristics and clinical findings were compared between groups. RESULTS: Of 676 142 emergency department visits, 10 454 were because of ENT-related foreign bodies. The mean (± standard deviation) age of subjects was 24.0 (± 23.4) years, and 5176 patients were male (49.5 per cent). The most common entry route was the mouth (74.5 per cent). Most patients (97.1 per cent) were discharged after emergency treatment. Intensive care and in-hospital mortality occurred only in the mouth group. CONCLUSION: Clinical findings differ depending on foreign-body entry route. After emergency treatment, most patients were discharged; some cases presented serious complications.

Combination of Limosilactobacillus fermentum MG4231 and MG4244 attenuates lipid accumulation in high-fat diet-fed obese mice.

We investigated the anti-obesity effect and the underlying mechanisms of action of human-derived Limosilactobacillus fermentum MG4231, MG4244, and their combination, in high-fat diet-induced obese mice. Administration of the Limosilactobacillus strains decreased body weight gain, liver and adipose tissue weight, and glucose tolerance. Serum levels of total cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein-cholesterol, and leptin were reduced, while adiponectin increased. The administration of Limosilactobacillus strains improved the histopathological features of liver tissue, such as hepatic atrophy and inflammatory penetration, and significantly reduced the content of triglyceride in the liver. Limosilactobacillus administration discovered a significant reduction in the size of the adipocytes in the epididymal tissue. Limosilactobacillus treatment significantly reduced the expression of important regulators in lipid metabolism, including peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor γ, CCAAT/enhancer-binding protein α, fatty acid synthase (FAS), adipocyte-protein 2, and lipoprotein lipase in the epididymal tissue. Also, Limosilactobacillus lowered sterol regulatory element-binding protein 1-c and FAS in the liver tissue. Such changes in the expression of these regulators in both liver and epididymis tissue were caused by Limosilactobacillus upregulating phosphorylation of AMP-activated protein kinase and acetyl-CoA carboxylase. Therefore, we suggest that the use of the combination of L. fermentum MG4231 and MG4244, as probiotics could effectively inhibit adipogenesis and lipogenesis from preventing obesity.

Diagnostic test accuracy of 18F-FDG PET/CT for prediction of programmed death ligand 1 (PD-L1) expression in solid tumours: a meta-analysis.

AIM: To investigate the predictive value of integrated 2-[18F]-fluoro-2-deoxy-d-glucose (18F-FDG) positron-emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT) for the prediction of programmed death ligand 1 (PD-L1) expression in solid tumours via a systematic review and meta-analysis. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The PubMed, Cochrane, and EMBASE databases, from the earliest available date of indexing through 31 October 2020, were searched for studies evaluating the diagnostic performance of 18F-FDG PET/CT for prediction of PD-L1 expression in solid tumours other than lung cancer. RESULTS: Across seven studies (473 patients), the pooled sensitivity for 18F-FDG PET/CT was 0.75 (95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.65-0.82) without heterogeneity (I2 = 47.2, p=0.08) and a pooled specificity of 0.73 (95% CI: 0.64-0.81) with heterogeneity (I2 = 53.8, p=0.04). Likelihood ratio (LR) syntheses gave an overall positive likelihood ratio (LR+) of 2.8 (95% CI: 2.1-3.7) and negative likelihood ratio (LR-) of 0.35 (95% CI: 0.26-0.47). The pooled diagnostic odds ratio (DOR) was 8 (95% CI: 5-13). Hierarchical summary receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve and indicates that the area under the curve was 0.80 (95% CI: 0.77-0.84). CONCLUSION: The current meta-analysis showed a moderate sensitivity and specificity of 18F-FDG PET/CT for the prediction of PD-L1 expression in solid tumours. At present, the literature regarding the use of 18F-FDG PET/CT for the prediction of PD-L1 expression in solid tumours still limited; thus, further large multicentre studies would be necessary to substantiate the diagnostic accuracy of 18F-FDG PET/CT for prediction of PD-L1 expression in solid tumours.

Nickel, chromium and methyl methacrylate monomer release from orthopaedic functional appliances.

AIM: This study was purposed to evaluate release of nickel and chromium ions and methyl methacrylate (MMA) monomers from functional appliances and their possible health effects. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Study design: Twin-block appliances and Bionators were immersed in artificial saliva and kept in a thermal incubator. Control group was established as artificial saliva without appliances. Artificial saliva was analysed after 7 days, 30 days and 90 days. Inductively coupled plasma mass spectrometry and gas chromatography-mass spectrometry was used for detection of nickel and chromium ions and MMA monomers. MTT assays and cytokine array were performed. STATISTICS: One way ANOVA with Tukey test and Dunnett's T3 for post-hoc analysis was used for evaluation of time-dependent changes and independent t-test was used for evaluation of MTT assay results. RESULTS: The results revealed that metal ions and MMA monomers are released from the appliances. Metal ion detection pattern was irregular and could not be analysed. Twin-block group showed significantly larger amount of MMA release. MTT assay revealed statistically significant but minimally reduced cellular activity on Bionator and twin-block groups compared to control groups. Cytokine array showed no or less inflammatory cytokine release on Bionator and twin-block groups. CONCLUSION: MMA monomer release was confirmed but the cytotoxic effect of functional appliance material release is minimal or negligible. General toxicity of the functional appliance from the MMA monomer release is likely to be minimal or negligible.

Prognostic Utility of Disproportionately Enlarged Subarachnoid Space Hydrocephalus in Idiopathic Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus Treated with Ventriculoperitoneal Shunt Surgery: A Systematic Review and Meta-analysis.

BACKGROUND: Disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid space hydrocephalus is a specific radiologic marker for idiopathic normal pressure hydrocephalus. However, controversy exists regarding the prognostic utility of disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid space hydrocephalus. PURPOSE: Our aim was to evaluate the prevalence of disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid space hydrocephalus in idiopathic normal pressure hydrocephalus and its predictive utility regarding prognosis in patients treated with ventriculoperitoneal shunt surgery. DATA SOURCES: We used MEDLINE and EMBASE databases. STUDY SELECTION: We searched for studies that reported the prevalence or the diagnostic performance of disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid space hydrocephalus in predicting treatment response. DATA ANALYSIS: The pooled prevalence of disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid space hydrocephalus was obtained. Pooled sensitivity, specificity, and area under the curve of disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid space hydrocephalus to predict treatment response were obtained. Subgroup and sensitivity analyses were performed to explain heterogeneity among the studies. DATA SYNTHESIS: Ten articles with 812 patients were included. The pooled prevalence of disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid space hydrocephalus in idiopathic normal pressure hydrocephalus was 44% (95% CI, 34%-54%). The pooled prevalence of disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid space hydrocephalus was higher in the studies using the second edition of the Japanese Guidelines for Management of Idiopathic Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus compared with the studies using the international guidelines without statistical significance (52% versus 43%, P = .38). The pooled sensitivity and specificity of disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid space hydrocephalus for prediction of treatment response were 59% (95% CI, 38%-77%) and 66% (95% CI, 57%-74%), respectively, with an area under the curve of 0.67 (95% CI, 0.63-0.71). LIMITATIONS: The lack of an established method for assessing disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid space hydrocephalus using brain MR imaging served as an important cause of the heterogeneity. CONCLUSIONS: Our meta-analysis demonstrated a relatively low prevalence of disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid space hydrocephalus in idiopathic normal pressure hydrocephalus and a poor diagnostic performance for treatment response.

Intramuscular midazolam, olanzapine, or haloperidol for the management of acute agitation: A multi-centre, double-blind, randomised clinical trial.

BACKGROUND: The safety and effectiveness of intramuscular olanzapine or haloperidol compared to midazolam as the initial pharmacological treatment for acute agitation in emergency departments (EDs) has not been evaluated. METHODS: A pragmatic, randomised, double-blind, active-controlled trial was conducted from December 2014 to September 2019, in six Hong Kong EDs. Patients (aged 18-75 years) with undifferentiated acute agitation requiring parenteral sedation were randomised to 5 mg intramuscular midazolam (n = 56), olanzapine (n = 54), or haloperidol (n = 57). Primary outcomes were time to adequate sedation and proportion of patients who achieved adequate sedation at each follow-up interval. Sedation levels were measured on a 6-level validated scale (ClinicalTrials.gov Identifier: NCT02380118). FINDINGS: Of 206 patients randomised, 167 (mean age, 42 years; 98 [58·7%] male) were analysed. Median time to sedation for IM midazolam, olanzapine, and haloperidol was 8·5 (IQR 8·0), 11·5 (IQR 30·0), and 23·0 (IQR 21·0) min, respectively. At 60 min, similar proportions of patients were adequately sedated (98%, 87%, and 97%). There were statistically significant differences for time to sedation with midazolam compared to olanzapine (p = 0·03) and haloperidol (p = 0·002). Adverse event rates were similar across the three arms. Dystonia (n = 1) and cardiac arrest (n = 1) were reported in the haloperidol group. INTERPRETATION: Midazolam resulted in faster sedation in patients with undifferentiated agitation in the emergency setting compared to olanzapine and haloperidol. Midazolam and olanzapine are preferred over haloperidol's slower time to sedation and potential for cardiovascular and extrapyramidal side effects. FUNDING: Research Grants Council, Hong Kong.

Uremic solutes of indoxyl sulfate and p-cresol enhance protease-activated receptor-2 expression in vitro and in vivo in keratinocytes.

OBJECTIVES: Uremic pruritus is common in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). The retention of uremic solutes is thought to be associated with uremic pruritus. Meanwhile, activation of protease-activated receptor-2 (PAR-2) has been suggested to play an important role in pruritus. The present study was performed to investigate the effects of uremic solutes on the expression of PAR-2 in the skin. METHODS: Indoxyl sulfate (IS), p-cresol (PC), and uremic sera from CKD patients were used to stimulate PAR-2 expression in normal human epidermal keratinocytes (NHEKs). Also, NHEKs were additionally pretreated with soybean trypsin inhibitor to evaluate its inhibitory effect on PAR-2 expression. Patterns of cutaneous PAR-2 expression were investigated in skin samples from five CKD patients and CKD mice. RESULTS: In NHEKs, IS, PC, and sera from CKD patients significantly induced PAR-2 mRNA and protein expression. Soybean trypsin inhibitor significantly decreased PAR-2 mRNA and protein expression in NHEKs treated with IS, PC, and CKD sera. NHEKs treated with IS and PC exhibited significant increases in protease activity. Skin from both CKD patients and mice exhibited marked upregulation of PAR-2 expression compared to control skin. CONCLUSIONS: Results from the present study suggest that uremic solutes either directly or indirectly affect PAR-2 expression in the skin of CKD subjects, potentially playing an important role in the pathogenesis of uremic pruritus.

Combination treatment of copanlisib and gemcitabine in relapsed/refractory PTCL (COSMOS): an open-label phase I/II trial.

BACKGROUND: Current treatment options for peripheral T-cell lymphomas (PTCLs) in the relapsed/refractory setting are limited and demonstrate modest response rates with rare achievement of complete response (CR). PATIENTS AND METHODS: This phase I/II study (NCT03052933) investigated the safety and efficacy of copanlisib, a phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase-α/-δ inhibitor, in combination with gemcitabine in 28 patients with relapsed/refractory PTCL. Patients received escalating doses of intravenous copanlisib on days 1, 8, and 15, administered concomitantly with fixed-dose gemcitabine (1000 mg/m2 on days 1 and 8) in 28-day cycles. RESULTS: Dose-limiting toxicity was not observed in the dose-escalation phase and 60 mg copanlisib was selected for phase II evaluation. Twenty-five patients were enrolled in phase II of the study. Frequent grade ≥3 adverse events (AEs) included transient hyperglycemia (57%), neutropenia (45%), thrombocytopenia, (37%), and transient hypertension (19%). However, AEs were manageable, and none were fatal. The overall response rate was 72% with a CR rate of 32%. Median duration of response was 8.2 months, progression-free survival was 6.9 months, and median overall survival was not reached. Combination treatment produced a greater CR rate in patients with angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma than those with PTCL-not otherwise specified (55.6% versus 15.4%, respectively, P = 0.074) and progression-free survival was significantly longer (13.0 versus 5.1 months, respectively, P = 0.024). In an exploratory gene mutation analysis of 24 tumor samples, TSC2 mutation was present in 25% of patients and occurred exclusively in responders. CONCLUSION: The combination of copanlisib and gemcitabine is a safe and effective treatment option in relapsed/refractory PTCLs and represents an important new option for therapy in this rare group of patients.