Reduced mitochondrial DNA content correlate with poor clinical outcomes in cryotransfers with day 6 single euploid embryos.

Objective: To investigate whether the mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) content of a single biopsy at trophoblast correlates with the developmental potential and reproductive outcomes of blastocyst. Methods: A retrospective analysis applied the dataset of 1,675 embryos with preimplantation genetic testing for aneuploidy (PGT-A) from 1,305 individuals, and 1,383 embryos involved cryotransfers of single euploid embryo between January 2015 and December 2019. The studied cohort was divided for algorithm establishment on the NGS platform (n=40), correlation of biological features (n=1,635), and correlation of reproductive outcomes (n=1,340). Of the algorithm derived from the NGS platform, the reliability and repeatability were validated via qPCR assay and inter-run controls, respectively. Of the correlation across biological features, stratification analyses were applied to evaluate the effect from a single contributor. Eventually, the correlation between the mtDNA ratios and reproductive outcomes was adjusted according to the significant effector(s). Results: The mtDNA ratios showed statistically different between embryos with different days of blastocyst formation ([Day 5]: 1.06 vs. [Day 6]: 0.66, p=0.021), and between embryos with different expansion stages ([Expansion 5]: 1.05 vs. [Expansion 6]: 0.49, p=0.012). None or weakly correlated with the maternal age, morphology, ploidy, and gender. Analyzed by the different days of blastocyst formation with fixed expansion score as 5 in the euploid single embryo transfers (eSET), the day 6 eSET showed significantly lower reduced mtDNA ratio (n=139) in failure groups of fetal heartbeat (p=0.004), ongoing pregnancy (p=0.007), and live birth (p=0.01); however, no correlation between mtDNA ratios and pregnancy outcomes was observed in the day 5 eSET (n=1,201). Conclusions: The study first demonstrated that mtDNA ratio was dependent on the days of blastocyst formation while expansion stage was fixed. Lower mtDNA ratios were observed in the day 6 eSET with adverse outcomes. The present stratification analyses reveal that the timeline of embryo is an important covariate to the mtDNA content.

High concordance in preimplantation genetic testing for aneuploidy between automatic identification via Ion S5 and manual identification via Miseq.

The Ion S5 (Thermo Fisher Scientific) and Miseq (Illumina) NGS systems are both widely used in the clinical laboratories conducting PGT-A. Each system employs discrepant library preparation steps, sequencing principles, and data processing algorithms. The automatic interpretation via Ion Reporter software (Thermo Fisher Scientific) and the manual interpretation via BlueFuse Multi software (Illumina) for chromosomal copy number variation (CNV) represent very different reporting approaches. Thus, it is intriguing to compare their ability of ploidy detection as PGT-A/NGS system. In the present study, four aneuploid cell lines were individually mixed with a diploid cell line at different aneuploid ratios of 0% (0:5), 10% (1:9), 20% (1:4), 40% (2:3), 50% (3:3), 60% (3:2), 80% (4:1) and 100% (5:0) to assess the sensitivity and specificity for whole chromosomal and segmental aneuploidy detection. The clinical biopsies of 107 blastocysts from 46 IVF/PGT-A cycles recruited between December 2019 and February 2020 were used to calculate the concordance. Initially, the pre-amplified products were divided into two aliquots for different library preparation procedures of each system. Applying the same calling criteria, automatic identification was achieved through the Ion Reporter, while well-trained technicians manually identified each sample through the BlueFuse Multi. The results displayed that both systems reliably distinguished chromosomal CNV of the mixtures with at least 10% aneuploidy from karyotypically normal samples ([Ion S5] whole-chromosomal duplication: 2.14 vs. 2.05, p value = 0.009, segmental deletion: 1.88 vs. 2.05, p value = 0.003; [Miseq] whole-chromosomal duplication: 2.12 vs. 2.03, p value = 0.047, segmental deletion: 1.82 vs. 2.03, p value = 0.002). The sensitivity and specificity were comparable between the Ion S5 and Miseq ([sensitivity] 93% vs. 90%, p = 0.78; [specificity] 100% vs. 100%, p value = 1.0). In the 107 clinical biopsies, three displayed chaotic patterns (2.8%), which could not be interpreted for the ploidy. The ploidy concordance was 99.04% (103/104) per embryo and 99.47% (2265/2277) per chromosome pair. Since their ability of detection were proven to be similar, the automatic identification in Ion S5 system presents comparatively faster and more standardized performance.

Evaluating the antidiabetic effects of R-verapamil in type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus mouse models.

The global incidence of diabetes mellitus (DM) is increasing. Types 1 and 2 DM are associated with declining ß-cell function. Verapamil (50% S-verapamil and 50% R-verapamil) can treat DM by downregulating thioredoxin-interacting protein (TXNIP), which induces islet ß-cell apoptosis. However, it may also induce cardiovascular side effects as S-verapamil is negatively inotropic. In contrast, R-verapamil only weakly induces adverse cardiac effects. In this study, we aimed to determine the antidiabetic efficacy and cardiovascular safety of R-verapamil. We examined R- and S-verapamil binding through in vitro studies. Streptozotocin-induced type 1 and db/db type 2 DM mouse models were used to assess the antidiabetic efficacy of verapamil. IL-6, blood glucose (BG), Txnip expression, and ß-cells were evaluated in streptozotocin-induced diabetic mice, while body weight, BG, and serum insulin were measured in the db/db mice. In the type 1 DM study, 100 mg/kg/day R-verapamil and racemic verapamil lowered BG, downregulated Txnip expression, and reduced ß-cell apoptosis. In the type 2 DM study, the optimal R-verapamil dosage was 60 mg/kg/day and it lowered BG and raised serum insulin. However, efficacy did not increase with R-verapamil dosage. R-verapamil combined with metformin/acarbose improved BG and serum insulin more effectively than metformin/acarbose alone or verapamil combined with acarbose. R-verapamil had weaker cardiovascular side effects than S-verapamil. R-verapamil was 9.0× and 3.4× less effective than S-verapamil at inhibiting atrial inotropy and ileal contractility, respectively. It was also 8.7× weaker than S-verapamil as an agonist of somatostatin receptor type 2 (SSTR2), inhibiting ileal neurogenic contraction. Hence, R-verapamil may be an optimal DM treatment as it is safe, improves glycemic control, and preserves ß-cell function both as monotherapy and in combination with metformin or acarbose. R-Verapamil has potential for delaying or arresting DM progression and improving patients' quality of life.

The Incidence of Mosaicism for Individual Chromosome in Human Blastocysts Is Correlated With Chromosome Length.

Mosaicism, known as partial aneuploidies, mostly originates from mitotic errors during the post-zygotic stage; it consists of different cell lineages within a human embryo. The incidence of mosaicism has not been shown to correlate with maternal age, and its correlation with individual chromosome characteristics has not been well investigated. In this study, the results of preimplantation genetic testing for aneuploidy (PGT-A) derived from 4,036 blastocysts (930 IVF couples) were collected from 2015 to 2017. Via next-generation sequencing for comprehensive chromosome screening, embryo ploidy was identified as aneuploid, mosaic, and euploid. Total mosaicism was classified into two categories: "mosaic euploid/aneuploidy" (with mosaic aneuploidy between 20 and 80%) and "mosaic and aneuploidy" (a uniformly abnormal embryo superimposed with mosaic aneuploidies). Frequency of mosaicism was analyzed according to the function of chromosomal lengths, which divides involved chromosomes into three groups: group A (156-249 Mb), group B (102-145 Mb), and group C (51-90 Mb). The results show that the aneuploidy was more frequent in group C than in group A and group B (A: 23.7%, B: 35.1, 41.2%, p < 0.0001), while the mosaicism was more frequent in group A and group B than in group C [(Mosaic euploid/aneuploid) A: 14.6%, B: 12.4%, C: 9.9%, p < 0.0001; (mosaic and aneuploid) A: 21.3%, B: 22.9%, C: 18.9%, p < 0.0001; (Total mosaicism) A: 35.9%, B: 35.3%, C: 28.8%, p < 0.0001]. The significantly higher frequency of aneuploidy was on the shorter chromosome (< 90 Mb), and that of mosaicism was on the longer chromosomes (> 100 Mb). The length association did not reach significance in the patients with advanced age (≥ 36 years), and of the chromosome-specific mosaicism rate, the highest prevalence was on chromosome 14 (5.8%), 1 (5.7%), and 9 (5.6%). Although the length association was observed via group comparison, there may be affecting mechanisms other than chromosomes length. Eventually, twenty patients with mosaic embryo cryotransfers resulted in six live births. No significant correlation was observed between the transfer outcomes and chromosome length; however, the analysis was limited by small sample size.

Concordance between different trophectoderm biopsy sites and the inner cell mass of chromosomal composition measured with a next-generation sequencing platform.

STUDY QUESTION: In PGS, does chromosomal constitution differ among trophectoderm (TE) biopsy sites and between them and the inner cell mass (ICM)? SUMMARY ANSWER: The ploidy concordance between ICM and TE was independent of whether the biopsy site in the TE was near to or far from the ICM. WHAT IS KNOWN ALREADY: TE biopsies are considered less harmful to developing embryos than blastomere biopsies. Removal of multi-cellular samples permits high-resolution next-generation sequencing (Veriseq NGS) to detect aneuploidy present in a minority of cells (mosaicism of diploid and aneuploid cells). However, the prevalence of ploidy discrepancies between different TE biopsy sites and the ICM, as well as confined mosaicism (aneuploidy only in a particular area), has not been established. STUDY DESIGN, SIZE, DURATION: Biopsies were taken from a site opposite to the ICM (TE1), near the ICM (TE2) and within the ICM of the same embryo in 33 donated blastocysts obtained from 12 volunteer patients. The samples were analyzed by the Veriseq NGS to assess ploidy concordance. PARTICIPANTS/MATERIALS, SETTING, METHODS: The mean age of the patients was 34.4 years, and samples from all three biopsy sites were achieved in 29 frozen thawed blastocysts. The aneuploid percentage in each sample was interpreted by Veriseq NGS at the finest resolution involving the number of reads after filtering, sample overall noise score, and average quality/alignment scores according to the Veriseq quality control assessment. Ploidy concordance was then assessed between different TE fractions, and between the TE and ICM. MAIN RESULTS AND THE ROLE OF CHANCE: The euploid rates were similar in the TEs and ICM, and no preferential allocation of euploid lineage within a blastocyst was demonstrated. Whether the biopsy site in the TE was near to or far from the ICM, the chromosomal consistency rate was similar [TE1-to-ICM, 86.2% (25/29) versus TE2-to-ICM, 89.7% (26/29); P = 1.0], suggesting that the cells with different chromosomal components may spread randomly throughout the TE. The following two types of inconsistent PGS conclusions between TE and ICM due to confined mosaicism were observed: (i) euploid TE with mosaic ICM (3%) (1/29); and (ii) mosaic TE with euploid ICM (3%) (1/29) or with aneuploid ICM (7%) (2/29). Thus, the overall rate of confined mosaicism was 14% (4/29). LARGE SCALE DATA: N/A. LIMITATION, REASONS FOR CAUTION: The approach used in the present study was affected by biopsy manipulation limitations involving possible cell contamination and the technical challenge of comprehensive chromosomal screening (CCS) procedures. WIDER IMPLICATIONS OF THE FINDINGS: The rate of confined mosaicism in the blastocysts was estimated in this preliminary study, thus, specifying the incidence of biological sampling biases. The results also verified the random distribution of different cell lineages, and the representative value of a single biopsied sample from the TE. STUDY FUNDING AND CONFLICT OF INTEREST(S): No external funding was obtained; all the authors declare no conflicts of interest regarding this study.

Identification of mosaic and segmental aneuploidies by next-generation sequencing in preimplantation genetic screening can improve clinical outcomes compared to array-comparative genomic hybridization.

BACKGROUND: Chromosomal mosaicism is observed as the presence of both euploid and aneuploid cells in a particular blastocyst. Recent studies have reported that the implantation rate of mosaic embryo transfer is remarkably lower than the euploid embryos. The superior capability of next-generation sequencing (NGS) to detect chromosomal mosaicism in preimplantation genetic screening (PGS) remains controversial, and several data displayed similar implantation and pregnancy rates using NGS or array comparative genomic hybridization (aCGH). RESULTS: In this study, the main inconsistency of aneuploidy detection and clinical performance between the NGS and aCGH were assessed. The phase I consisted of a parallel comparison in 182 blastocysts from 45 selected PGS patients for both the NGS and aCGH platforms. The phase II retrospectively compared the clinical outcomes of 90 patients with NGS-screened euploid embryo transfer to that of 129 patients with aCGH-screened euploid embryo transfer. The parallel comparison showed that the inconsistency of embryo euploidy was 11.8% (p = 0.01). Chromosomal mosaicism (10.7% with NGS vs. 3.9% with aCGH) and segmental aneuploidy (10.7% with NGS vs. 6.7% with aCGH) contributed to the discrepancy mainly. The chromosomally mosaic embryos (20%-50% of aneuploidy) and several embryos with segmental aneuploidy (≥10 Mbp) were hard to distinguish using the aCGH platform, but could be clearly identified using the NGS platform. After the first euploid embryo cryotransfer, the ß-HCG(+) rate and implantation rate significantly increased in the PGS/NGS patients (HCG[+] rate: 73.3% in PGS/NGS vs. 60.5% in PGS/aCGH, p = 0.048; implantation rate: 53.2% in PGS/NGS vs. 45.0% in PGS/aCGH, p = 0.043). The clinical and ongoing pregnancy rates appeared higher in the NGS group, but did not reached statistical significance. CONCLUSIONS: The results demonstrated that the NGS platform can identify embryos with chromosomal mosaicism and segmental aneuploidy more precisely than the aCGH platform, and the following clinical performance of NGS was more favorable.

Prenatal diagnosis and molecular cytogenetic characterization of mosaicism for a small supernumerary marker chromosome derived from chromosome 2.

OBJECTIVE: We present prenatal diagnosis and molecular cytogenetic characterization of mosaicism for a small supernumerary marker chromosome (sSMC) derived from chromosome 2. CASE REPORT: A 42-year-old woman underwent amniocentesis at 17 weeks of gestation because of advanced maternal age. Amniocentesis revealed a karyotype of 47,XY,+mar[10]/46,XY[12]. The parental karyotypes were normal. Array comparative genomic hybridization analysis of the DNA extracted from cultured amniocytes revealed no genomic imbalance. Spectral karyotyping analysis failed to identify the sSMC. Metaphase fluorescence in situ hybridization analysis using the satellite probes CEP1/5/19, CEP2, CEP3, CEP4, CEP6, CEP7, CEP8, CEP9, CEP10, CEP12, CEP13/21, CEP14/22, CEP15, CEP16, and CEP20 revealed a result of 47,XY,+mar .ish der(2)(D2Z+)[10]. The sSMC was derived from the α satellite of chromosome 2. Polymorphic DNA marker analysis using the markers specific for chromosome 2 on the DNAs extracted from cultured amniocytes and parental bloods excluded uniparental disomy 2. At 39 weeks of gestation, a healthy 3394-g male baby was delivered with no phenotypic abnormality. The cord blood had a karyotype of 47,XY,+mar[21]/46,XY[19]. CONCLUSION: Array comparative genomic hybridization and spectral karyotyping may fail to detect an sSMC derived from α satellite, which needs satellite probes for confirmation.

A Patient Friendly Corifollitropin Alfa Protocol without Routine Pituitary Suppression in Normal Responders.

The release of corifollitropin alfa simplifies daily injections of short-acting recombinant follicular stimulating hormone (rFSH), and its widely-used protocol involves short-acting gonadotropins supplements and a fixed GnRH antagonist regimen, largely based on follicle size. In this study, the feasibility of corifollitropin alfa without routine pituitary suppression was evaluated. A total of 288 patients were stimulated by corifollitropin alfa on cycle day 3 following with routine serum hormone monitoring and follicle scanning every other day after 5 days of initial stimulation, and a GnRH antagonist (0.25 mg) was only used prophylactically when the luteinizing hormone (LH) was ≧ 6 IU/L (over half of the definitive LH surge). The incidence of premature LH surge (≧ 10 IU/L) was 2.4% (7/288) before the timely injection of a single GnRH antagonist, and the elevated LH level was dropped down from 11.9 IU/L to 2.2 IU/L after the suppression. Two hundred fifty-one patients did not need any antagonist (87.2% [251/288]) throughout the whole stimulation. No adverse effects were observed regarding oocyte competency (fertilization rate: 78%; blastocyst formation rate: 64%). The live birth rate per OPU cycle after the first cryotransfer was 56.3% (161/286), and the cumulative live birth rate per OPU cycle after cyrotransfers was 69.6% (199/286). Of patients who did and did not receive GnRH antagonist during stimulation, no significant difference existed in the cumulative live birth rates (78.4% vs. 68.3%, p = 0.25). The results demonstrated that the routine GnRH antagonist administration is not required in the corifollitropin-alfa cycles using a flexible and hormone-depended antagonist regimen, while the clinical outcome is not compromised. This finding reveals that the use of a GnRH antagonist only occasionally may be needed.

Prenatal diagnosis and molecular cytogenetic characterization of a de novo proximal interstitial deletion of chromosome 4p (4p15.2→p14).

We present prenatal diagnosis of de novo proximal interstitial deletion of chromosome 4p (4p15.2→p14) and molecular cytogenetic characterization of the deletion using uncultured amniocytes. We review the phenotypic abnormalities of previously reported patients with similar proximal interstitial 4p deletions, and we discuss the functions of the genes of RBPJ, CCKAR, STIM2, PCDH7 and ARAP2 that are deleted within this region.

Cleavage speed and implantation potential of early-cleavage embryos in IVF or ICSI cycles.

We examined whether there is a correlation among early embryo cleavage, speed of cleavage, and implantation potential for in-vitro fertilization (IVF) treatment and intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI). This retrospective study examined 112 cycles of IVF and 82 cycles of ICSI in patients less than 40 years of age. Early cleavage was defined as embryonic mitosis occurring 25-27 h after insemination. These day-3 embryos were then grouped according to cleavage speed (rapid, normal, and slow) and morphological quality (good or poor). A larger proportion of early-cleavage embryos developed normally compared to non-early-cleavage embryos (IVF: 69.1 % vs. 47.1 %, respectively; ICSI: 63.0 % vs. 45.6 %, respectively). The early-cleavage embryos also produced more good quality embryos than the non-early-cleavage embryos (IVF: 80.2 % vs. 56.4 %, respectively; ICSI: 73.4 % vs. 59.4 %). The implantation rate was significantly higher with early-cleavage embryos in both IVF (42.9 % vs. 19.7 %) and ICSI (48.1 % vs. 24 %). These results indicate that early-cleavage embryos have a higher rate of normal development and develop into better quality embryos on day 3, resulting in more and higher quality embryos to choose from for day-3 embryo transfer. Thus, early cleavage may be a useful criterion when selecting embryos for IVF or ICSI.