The incremental risk of fragility fractures in aging men.

INTRODUCTION: While the United States Preventative Services Task Force recommends osteoporosis screening for women 65 years and older, there is no definitive recommendation for routine osteoporosis screening in men. The purpose of this study was to determine the age at which the odds of fragility fractures (FFx) increase in men to help guide future policy discussions evaluating an optimal screening strategy in this population. METHODS: Men older than 49 years were identified in the PearlDiver Patient Records Database. Patients were excluded if they had a prior fragility fracture, if they were at high risk for osteoporosis due to comorbidities, or if they carried a diagnosis of and/or were on treatment for osteoporosis. The prevalence of FFx was trended for each age group. A stratum-specific likelihood ratio (SSLR) analysis was conducted to identify data-driven strata that maximize the incremental FFx risk by age for men. Logistic regression analyses controlling for potential confounders were conducted to test these identified strata. RESULTS: The incidence of FFx started to increase after the age of 64 years for men. Further, the identified data-driven age strata associated with a significant and incremental difference in fragility fractures were the following: 50-64, 65-69, 70-72, 73-75, 76-78, 79-80, and 81+. When compared to the youngest age stratum (50-64 years), multivariable regression showed the risk of fragility fracture incrementally increased starting in those aged 70-72 (RR, 1.31; 95% CI. 1.21-1.46; p < 0.001) with the highest risk in those aged 81+ (RR, 5.35; 95% CI, 5.10-5.62; p < 0.001). CONCLUSION: In men without a pre-existing history of osteoporosis, the risk of fragility fractures starts to increase after the age of 70. Further work building upon these data may help to identify a specific age at which routine bone health screening in males can help to minimize fractures and their associated morbidity and mortality.

Volumetric laser endomicroscopy and its application to Barrett's esophagus: results from a 1,000 patient registry.

Volumetric laser endomicroscopy (VLE) uses optical coherence tomography (OCT) for real-time, microscopic cross-sectional imaging. A US-based multi-center registry was constructed to prospectively collect data on patients undergoing upper endoscopy during which a VLE scan was performed. The objective of this registry was to determine usage patterns of VLE in clinical practice and to estimate quantitative and qualitative performance metrics as they are applied to Barrett's esophagus (BE) management. All procedures utilized the NvisionVLE Imaging System (NinePoint Medical, Bedford, MA) which was used by investigators to identify the tissue types present, along with focal areas of concern. Following the VLE procedure, investigators were asked to answer six key questions regarding how VLE impacted each case. Statistical analyses including neoplasia diagnostic yield improvement using VLE was performed. One thousand patients were enrolled across 18 US trial sites from August 2014 through April 2016. In patients with previously diagnosed or suspected BE (894/1000), investigators used VLE and identified areas of concern not seen on white light endoscopy (WLE) in 59% of the procedures. VLE imaging also guided tissue acquisition and treatment in 71% and 54% of procedures, respectively. VLE as an adjunct modality improved the neoplasia diagnostic yield by 55% beyond the standard of care practice. In patients with no prior history of therapy, and without visual findings from other technologies, VLE-guided tissue acquisition increased neoplasia detection over random biopsies by 700%. Registry investigators reported that VLE improved the BE management process when used as an adjunct tissue acquisition and treatment guidance tool. The ability of VLE to image large segments of the esophagus with microscopic cross-sectional detail may provide additional benefits including higher yield biopsies and more efficient tissue acquisition. Clinicaltrials.gov NCT02215291.

Complications of rotator cuff surgery-the role of post-operative imaging in patient care.

When pain or disability occurs after rotator cuff surgery, post-operative imaging is frequently performed. Post-operative complications and expected post-operative imaging findings in the shoulder are presented, with a focus on MRI, MR arthrography (MRA) and CT arthrography. MR and CT techniques are available to reduce image degradation secondary to surgical distortions of native anatomy and implant-related artefacts and to define complications after rotator cuff surgery. A useful approach to image the shoulder after surgery is the standard radiography, followed by MRI/MRA for patients with low "metal presence" and CT for patients who have a higher metal presence. However, for the assessment of patients who have undergone surgery for rotator cuff injuries, imaging findings should always be correlated with the clinical presentation because post-operative imaging abnormalities do not necessarily correlate with symptoms.

Visit-to-visit and 24-h blood pressure variability: association with endothelial and smooth muscle function in African Americans.

The purpose of this study was to investigate the association of visit-to-visit and 24-h blood pressure (BP) variability with markers of endothelial injury and vascular function. We recruited 72 African Americans who were non-diabetic, non-smoking and free of cardiovascular (CV) and renal disease. Office BP was measured at three visits and 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring was conducted to measure visit-to-visit and 24-h BP variability, respectively. The 5-min time-course of brachial artery flow-mediated dilation and nitroglycerin-mediated dilation were assessed as measures of endothelial and smooth muscle function. Fasted blood samples were analyzed for circulating endothelial microparticles (EMPs). Significantly lower CD31+CD42- EMPs were found in participants with high visit-to-visit systolic blood pressure (SBP) variability or high 24-h diastolic blood pressure (DBP) variability. Participants with high visit-to-visit DBP variability had significantly lower flow-mediated dilation and higher nitroglycerin-mediated dilation at multiple time-points. When analyzed as continuous variables, 24-h mean arterial pressure variability was inversely associated with CD62+ EMPs; visit-to-visit DBP variability was inversely associated with flow-mediated dilation normalized by smooth muscle function and was positively associated with nitroglycerin-mediated dilation; and 24-h DBP variability was positively associated with nitroglycerin-mediated dilation. All associations were independent of age, gender, body mass index and mean BP. In conclusion, in this cohort of African Americans visit-to-visit and 24-h BP variability were associated with measures of endothelial injury, endothelial function and smooth muscle function. These results suggest that BP variability may influence the pathogenesis of CV disease, in part, through influences on vascular health.

Comparison of outcomes after auto-SCT for patients with relapsed diffuse large B-cell lymphoma according to previous therapy with rituximab.

The standard approach for relapsed diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) involves auto-SCT. However, studies that established this approach were conducted before the inclusion of rituximab (R) with first-line therapy became routine. Whether DLBCL patients (pts) relapsing after first-line chemoimmunotherapy including R derive a comparable benefit from auto-SCT to pts in the pre-R era is unknown. We analyzed outcomes after auto-SCT for relapsed DLBCL among pts receiving initial R and those who did not. We reviewed 257 consecutive pts with relapsed DLBCL treated at our institution with auto-SCT. In all, 226 pts were included in the analysis, of whom 161 had received no R and 65 received R as part of first-line therapy (Planned R). Median OS and relapse-free survival, measured from transplant, were similar between No R vs Planned R groups: 67 vs 44 months (P=0.3) and 25 vs 27 months (P=0.8), respectively. A further analysis was carried out between two cohorts matched by propensity analysis. Again, no differences in outcomes were observed. This suggests that auto-SCT may be equally effective in pts relapsing after first-line therapy including R, and should remain the standard of care for relapsed DLBCL.

Effect of prior rituximab on high-dose therapy and autologous stem cell transplantation in follicular lymphoma.

Autologous stem-cell transplantation (ASCT) has been used in follicular lymphoma (FL) to achieve durable responses in first remission or in the relapsed or refractory settings. Addition of rituximab to chemotherapy for FL has been shown to improve survival. The impact of prior therapy with rituximab upon the effectiveness of high-dose therapy (HDT) and ASCT in patients with FL is unknown. We retrospectively reviewed consecutive patients with FL who underwent HDT and ASCT. Patients were categorized according to prior therapy with rituximab. Outcomes were compared between groups in all patients and in a well-matched subset. In all 35 patients received prior rituximab and 71 rituximab-naive patients were analyzed. The rituximab-naive group had a median overall survival (OS) that was not reached during follow-up, with a median relapse-free (RFS) survival of 49.9 months. The prior rituximab group also did not reach median OS and had a median RFS of 24.6 months. Survivals were not significantly different in this group or in the well-matched subset. In conclusion, these results suggest that the use of rituximab-based regimens for the treatment of FL does not compromise the effectiveness of HDT and ASCT as a salvage strategy in patients with FL.

Prognostic factors associated with long-term survival in previously untreated metastatic renal cell carcinoma.

PURPOSE: To identify prognostic factors (PF) for long-term survival in metastatic renal cell carcinoma (RCC) patients. METHODS: We retrospectively reviewed a metastatic RCC database at the Cleveland Clinic Foundation consisting of 358 previously untreated patients who were enrolled in institutional review board-approved clinical trials of immunotherapy and/or chemotherapy at our institution from 1987 to 2002. In order to identify patient characteristics associated with long-term survival, we compared 226 'short-term' survivors [defined as overall survival (OS) <2 years] with 31 'long-term' survivors (OS >or=5 years). RESULTS: Using logistic regression models, four adverse PF were identified as independent predictors of long-term survival: hemoglobin less than the lower limit of normal, greater than two metastatic sites, involved kidney (left), and Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS). Using the number of poor prognostic features present, three distinct risk groups could be identified. Patients with 0 or 1 adverse prognostic feature present had an observed likelihood of long-term survival of 32% (21/66) compared with 9% (8/91) for patients with two adverse features present and only 1% (1/93) for patients with more than two adverse features. CONCLUSIONS: Independent predictors of long-term survival in previously untreated metastatic RCC include baseline hemoglobin level, number of involved sites, involved kidney, and ECOG PS. Incorporation of these factors into a simple prognostic scoring system enables three distinct groups of patients to be identified.

Jaw complications associated with bisphosphonate use in patients with plasma cell dyscrasias.

Osteonecrosis of the jaw has been linked with bisphosphonate use in breast cancer and multiple myeloma patients. We report 17 cases of patients with plasma cell dyscrasia being treated with bisphosphonate who developed osteonecrosis/osteomyelitis of the jaw. Seventeen patients evaluated at our institution between 1998 and 2005 are reported. All were being treated with bisphosphonates for a median of 5 mo prior to the onset of jaw symptoms. Sixteen of the 17 patients are 51 yr or older. None of the patients had been irradiated in the jaw nor had obvious osseous manifestation of multiple myeloma in the jaw. Thirteen patients were receiving zoledronic acid and four patients were receiving pamidronate at the onset of jaw symptoms. Six of the 17 did receive both agents at some time and all of these individuals were receiving zoledronic acid at diagnosis. Microorganisms were isolated in 7/17 patients with the most common organism being actinomycosis. We have initiated the following guidelines in an effort to ameliorate the incidence of this complication. Patients should have a full dental examination at the time of diagnosis of the plasma cell dyscrasia especially if bisphosphonates are to be considered as part of the therapy. In addition, bisphosphonates are held for a period of 3 mo prior to invasive dental procedures to allow for the osteoclastic recovery, therefore enhanced debris removal and lessening the chance of creating a fertile bacterial medium. Following the dental procedure we would re-introduce bisphosphonates only after the healing process is complete. Finally, multiple myeloma patients diagnosed with jaw osteonecrosis probably have a concurrent infection and should be aggressively treated with antibiotics.

TLC PROFILE AND PHYSICOCHEMICAL PARAMETERS of HARIDRA KHANDA - An AYURVREDIC FORMULATION.

Haridra Khanda, an important polyherbomineral Ayurvedic formulation was analyzed by employing various parameters which included physicochemical parameters, quantitative estimation of sugar and T.L.C. profile. The evolved parameters will be useful for quality control of Haridra Khanda.

Targeted disruption of mouse Pds provides insight about the inner-ear defects encountered in Pendred syndrome.

Following the positional cloning of PDS, the gene mutated in the deafness/goitre disorder Pendred syndrome (PS), numerous studies have focused on defining the role of PDS in deafness and PS as well as elucidating the function of the PDS-encoded protein (pendrin). To facilitate these efforts and to provide a system for more detailed study of the inner-ear defects that occur in the absence of pendrin, we have generated a Pds-knockout mouse. Pds(-/-) mice are completely deaf and also display signs of vestibular dysfunction. The inner ears of these mice appear to develop normally until embryonic day 15, after which time severe endolymphatic dilatation occurs, reminiscent of that seen radiologically in deaf individuals with PDS mutations. Additionally, in the second postnatal week, severe degeneration of sensory cells and malformation of otoconia and otoconial membranes occur, as revealed by scanning electron and fluorescence confocal microscopy. The ultrastructural defects seen in the Pds(-/-) mice provide important clues about the mechanisms responsible for the inner-ear pathology associated with PDS mutations.

Spinal tumours in neurofibromatosis type 1: an MRI study of frequency, multiplicity and variety.

In neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) spinal tumours cause neurological symptoms in about 2 % of patients. Among over 1400 patients with NF1 we saw symptomatic spinal tumours in 23 (1.6 %). MRI of the entire spinal canal was obtained in 54 patients aged 5-56 years with NF1. The number, site, morphology and signal characteristics of the spinal tumours were recorded and analysed. There were 24 patients with symptoms such as sensory impairment or paralysis; 30 patients had no neurological deficits. Of the 24 symptomatic patients, 23 (96 %) had spinal tumours, while we saw spinal tumours in 12 (40 %) of the 30 patients without neurological deficits. No spinal segment was preferred in symptomatic or asymptomatic patients. Most intraspinal extramedullary tumours were primarily extradural and intraforaminal. MRI showed intramedullary tumours in 3 patients (6 %), intraspinal extramedullary tumours in 18 (33 %) and intraforaminal tumours in 31 (57 %). Only neurological deficits in patients with NF1 should prompt further diagnostic clarification. In patients with neurological symptoms there may be a multiplicity of masses in the spinal canal, which can lead to difficulties in attaching symptoms to a certain tumour. In patients who do not satisfy the NIH criteria, it can be a helpful observation that spinal tumours in NF1 are primarily intraforaminal, extending into the spinal canal, while in NF2 they are mostly intraspinal intradural tumours.

Characterization and expression of NAD(H)-dependent glutamate dehydrogenase genes in Arabidopsis.

Two distinct cDNA clones encoding NAD(H)-dependent glutamate dehydrogenase (NAD[H]-GDH) in Arabidopsis thaliana were identified and sequenced. The genes corresponding to these cDNA clones were designated GDH1 and GDH2. Analysis of the deduced amino acid sequences suggest that both gene products contain putative mitochondrial transit polypeptides and NAD(H)- and alpha-ketoglutarate-binding domains. Subcellular fractionation confirmed the mitochondrial location of the NAD(H)-GDH isoenzymes. In addition, a putative EF-hand loop, shown to be associated with Ca2+ binding, was identified in the GDH2 gene product but not in the GDH1 gene product. GDH1 encodes a 43.0-kD polypeptide, designated alpha, and GDH2 encodes a 42.5-kD polypeptide, designated beta. The two subunits combine in different ratios to form seven NAD(H)-GDH isoenzymes. The slowest-migrating isoenzyme in a native gel, GDH1, is a homohexamer composed of alpha subunits, and the fastest-migrating isoenzyme, GDH7, is a homohexamer composed of beta subunits. GDH isoenzymes 2 through 6 are heterohexamers composed of different ratios of alpha and beta subunits. NAD(H)-GDH isoenzyme patterns varied among different plant organs and in leaves of plants irrigated with different nitrogen sources or subjected to darkness for 4 d. Conversely, there were little or no measurable changes in isoenzyme patterns in roots of plants treated with different nitrogen sources. In most instances, changes in isoenzyme patterns were correlated with relative differences in the level of alpha and beta subunits. Likewise, the relative difference in the level of alpha or beta subunits was correlated with changes in the level of GDH1 or GDH2 transcript detected in each sample, suggesting that NAD(H)-GDH activity is controlled at least in part at the transcriptional level.