Role of thyroid stimulating hormone in the maintenance and functioning of the human corpus luteum.

PURPOSE: To evaluate the impact of high thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels on human granulosa-luteal (hGL) cells. METHODS: hGL cells were isolated from follicular aspirates derived from patients undergoing IVF treatment without any thyroid disorder (serum TSH 0.5-2 mU/L). Cells were cultured at 37 °C in DMEM, supplemented with 5% FBS. The cells were treated with 1 nM LH and increasing concentrations of TSH. At the end of culture, conditioned medium and cells were collected to analyze progesterone production, cell viability, and mRNA levels of genes involved in the steroidogenesis process. Human ovarian tissues were analyzed for TSH receptor (TSHR) expression by IHC. RESULTS: The expression of TSHR was detected in human corpus luteum by IHC and in hGL by RT-PCR. In hGL cells, TSH treatment did not modulate progesterone production nor the expression of steroidogenic genes, such as p450scc and HSD3b 1/2. However, TSH induced a dose-dependent increase in cell death. Finally, TSH did not affect LH-induced p450scc and HSD3b1/2 expression while LH partially reverted TSH negative effect on cell death in hGL. CONCLUSIONS: Elevated TSH levels in hypothyroid women may be associated with impaired CL functioning and maintenance. These findings open a new line of research for the importance of the treatment of women with thyroid dysfunction that could contribute to the onset of infertility.

The HERA (Hyper-response Risk Assessment) Delphi consensus for the management of hyper-responders in in vitro fertilization.

PURPOSE: To provide agreed-upon guidelines on the management of a hyper-responsive patient undergoing ovarian stimulation (OS) METHODS: A literature search was performed regarding the management of hyper-response to OS for assisted reproductive technology. A scientific committee consisting of 4 experts discussed, amended, and selected the final statements. A priori, it was decided that consensus would be reached when ≥66% of the participants agreed, and ≤3 rounds would be used to obtain this consensus. A total of 28/31 experts responded (selected for global coverage), anonymous to each other. RESULTS: A total of 26/28 statements reached consensus. The most relevant are summarized here. The target number of oocytes to be collected in a stimulation cycle for IVF in an anticipated hyper-responder is 15-19 (89.3% consensus). For a potential hyper-responder, it is preferable to achieve a hyper-response and freeze all than aim for a fresh transfer (71.4% consensus). GnRH agonists should be avoided for pituitary suppression in anticipated hyper-responders performing IVF (96.4% consensus). The preferred starting dose in the first IVF stimulation cycle of an anticipated hyper-responder of average weight is 150 IU/day (82.1% consensus). ICoasting in order to decrease the risk of OHSS should not be used (89.7% consensus). Metformin should be added before/during ovarian stimulation to anticipated hyper-responders only if the patient has PCOS and is insulin resistant (82.1% consensus). In the case of a hyper-response, a dopaminergic agent should be used only if hCG will be used as a trigger (including dual/double trigger) with or without a fresh transfer (67.9% consensus). After using a GnRH agonist trigger due to a perceived risk of OHSS, luteal phase rescue with hCG and an attempt of a fresh transfer is discouraged regardless of the number of oocytes collected (72.4% consensus). The choice of the FET protocol is not influenced by the fact that the patient is a hyper-responder (82.8% consensus). In the cases of freeze all due to OHSS risk, a FET cycle can be performed in the immediate first menstrual cycle (92.9% consensus). CONCLUSION: These guidelines for the management of hyper-response can be useful for tailoring patient care and for harmonizing future research.

The HERA (Hyper-response Risk Assessment) Delphi consensus definition of hyper-responders for in-vitro fertilization.

PURPOSE: To provide an agreed upon definition of hyper-response for women undergoing ovarian stimulation (OS)? METHODS: A literature search was performed regarding hyper-response to ovarian stimulation for assisted reproductive technology. A scientific committee consisting of 5 experts discussed, amended, and selected the final statements in the questionnaire for the first round of the Delphi consensus. The questionnaire was distributed to 31 experts, 22 of whom responded (with representation selected for global coverage), each anonymous to the others. A priori, it was decided that consensus would be reached when ≥ 66% of the participants agreed and ≤ 3 rounds would be used to obtain this consensus. RESULTS: 17/18 statements reached consensus. The most relevant are summarized here. (I) Definition of a hyper-response: Collection of ≥ 15 oocytes is characterized as a hyper-response (72.7% agreement). OHSS is not relevant for the definition of hyper-response if the number of collected oocytes is above a threshold (≥ 15) (77.3% agreement). The most important factor in defining a hyper-response during stimulation is the number of follicles ≥ 10 mm in mean diameter (86.4% agreement). (II) Risk factors for hyper-response: AMH values (95.5% agreement), AFC (95.5% agreement), patient's age (77.3% agreement) but not ovarian volume (72.7% agreement). In a patient without previous ovarian stimulation, the most important risk factor for a hyper-response is the antral follicular count (AFC) (68.2% agreement). In a patient without previous ovarian stimulation, when AMH and AFC are discordant, one suggesting a hyper-response and the other not, AFC is the more reliable marker (68.2% agreement). The lowest serum AMH value that would place one at risk for a hyper-response is ≥ 2 ng/ml (14.3 pmol/L) (72.7% agreement). The lowest AFC that would place one at risk for a hyper-response is ≥ 18 (81.8% agreement). Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) as per Rotterdam criteria are at a higher risk of hyper-response than women without PCOS with equivalent follicle counts and gonadotropin doses during ovarian stimulation for IVF (86.4% agreement). No consensus was reached regarding the number of growing follicles ≥ 10 mm that would define a hyper-response. CONCLUSION: The definition of hyper-response and its risk factors can be useful for harmonizing research, improving understanding of the subject, and tailoring patient care.

Improved clinical utility of preimplantation genetic testing through the integration of ploidy and common pathogenic microdeletions analyses.

STUDY QUESTION: Can chromosomal abnormalities beyond copy-number aneuploidies (i.e. ploidy level and microdeletions (MDs)) be detected using a preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) platform? SUMMARY ANSWER: The proposed integrated approach accurately assesses ploidy level and the most common pathogenic microdeletions causative of genomic disorders, expanding the clinical utility of PGT. WHAT IS KNOWN ALREADY: Standard methodologies employed in preimplantation genetic testing for aneuploidy (PGT-A) identify chromosomal aneuploidies but cannot determine ploidy level nor the presence of recurrent pathogenic MDs responsible for genomic disorders. Transferring embryos carrying these abnormalities can result in miscarriage, molar pregnancy, and intellectual disabilities and developmental delay in offspring. The development of a testing strategy that integrates their assessment can resolve current limitations and add valuable information regarding the genetic constitution of embryos, which is not evaluated in PGT providing new level of clinical utility and valuable knowledge for further understanding of the genomic causes of implantation failure and early pregnancy loss. To the best of our knowledge, MDs have never been studied in preimplantation human embryos up to date. STUDY DESIGN, SIZE, DURATION: This is a retrospective cohort analysis including blastocyst biopsies collected between February 2018 and November 2021 at multiple collaborating IVF clinics from prospective parents of European ancestry below the age of 45, using autologous gametes and undergoing ICSI for all oocytes. Ploidy level determination was validated using 164 embryonic samples of known ploidy status (147 diploids, 9 triploids, and 8 haploids). Detection of nine common MD syndromes (-4p=Wolf-Hirschhorn, -8q=Langer-Giedion, -1p=1p36 deletion, -22q=DiGeorge, -5p=Cri-du-Chat, -15q=Prader-Willi/Angelman, -11q=Jacobsen, -17p=Smith-Magenis) was developed and tested using 28 positive controls and 97 negative controls. Later, the methodology was blindly applied in the analysis of: (i) 100 two pronuclei (2PN)-derived blastocysts that were previously defined as uniformly euploid by standard PGT-A; (ii) 99 euploid embryos whose transfer resulted in pregnancy loss. PARTICIPANTS/MATERIALS, SETTING, METHODS: The methodology is based on targeted next-generation sequencing of selected polymorphisms across the genome and enriched within critical regions of included MD syndromes. Sequencing data (i.e. allelic frequencies) were analyzed by a probabilistic model which estimated the likelihood of ploidy level and MD presence, accounting for both sequencing noise and population genetics patterns (i.e. linkage disequilibrium, LD, correlations) observed in 2504 whole-genome sequencing data from the 1000 Genome Project database. Analysis of phased parental haplotypes obtained by single-nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)-array genotyping was performed to confirm the presence of MD. MAIN RESULTS AND THE ROLE OF CHANCE: In the analytical validation phase, this strategy showed extremely high accuracy both in ploidy classification (100%, CI: 98.1-100%) and in the identification of six out of eight MDs (99.2%, CI: 98.5-99.8%). To improve MD detection based on loss of heterozygosity (LOH), common haploblocks were analyzed based on haplotype frequency and LOH occurrence in a reference population, thus developing two further mathematical models. As a result, chr1p36 and chr4p16.3 regions were excluded from MD identification due to their poor reliability, whilst a clinical workflow which incorporated parental DNA information was developed to enhance the identification of MDs. During the clinical application phase, one case of triploidy was detected among 2PN-derived blastocysts (i) and one pathogenic MD (-22q11.21) was retrospectively identified among the biopsy specimens of transferred embryos that resulted in miscarriage (ii). For the latter case, family-based analysis revealed the same MD in different sibling embryos (n = 2/5) from non-carrier parents, suggesting the presence of germline mosaicism in the female partner. When embryos are selected for transfer based on their genetic constitution, this strategy can identify embryos with ploidy abnormalities and/or MDs beyond aneuploidies, with an estimated incidence of 1.5% (n = 3/202, 95% CI: 0.5-4.5%) among euploid embryos. LIMITATIONS, REASONS FOR CAUTION: Epidemiological studies will be required to accurately assess the incidence of ploidy alterations and MDs in preimplantation embryos and particularly in euploid miscarriages. Despite the high accuracy of the assay developed, the use of parental DNA to support diagnostic calling can further increase the precision of the assay. WIDER IMPLICATIONS OF THE FINDINGS: This novel assay significantly expands the clinical utility of PGT-A by integrating the most common pathogenic MDs (both de novo and inherited ones) responsible for genomic disorders, which are usually evaluated at a later stage through invasive prenatal testing. From a basic research standpoint, this approach will help to elucidate fundamental biological and clinical questions related to the genetics of implantation failure and pregnancy loss of otherwise euploid embryos. STUDY FUNDING/COMPETING INTEREST(S): No external funding was used for this study. S.C., M.F., F.C., P.Z., I.P., L.G., C.P., M.P., D.B., J.J.-A., D.B.-J., J.M.-V., and C.R. are employees of Igenomix and C.S. is the head of the scientific board of Igenomix. A.C. and L.P. are employees of JUNO GENETICS. Igenomix and JUNO GENETICS are companies providing reproductive genetic services. TRIAL REGISTRATION NUMBER: N/A.

Male factor infertility and assisted reproductive technologies: indications, minimum access criteria and outcomes.

BACKGROUND: Infertility, which is defined as the inability to conceive after at least 12 months of regular unprotected sexual intercourses, affects about 15-20% of couples worldwide and a male factor is involved in about half of the cases. The development of assisted reproductive technology (ART) made it possible to conceive also to individuals affected from severe oligospermia or azoospermia. However, the impact of the male factor on embryo development, implantation, prevalence of chromosomal abnormalities, genetic and epigenetic alterations, and clinical and obstetric outcomes is still controversial. PURPOSE: This narrative review examines the indications, minimum access criteria, and outcomes by individual ART technique in relation to the male factor.

The role of thyroid function in female and male infertility: a narrative review.

PURPOSE: We herein aimed to review the new insights into the impact of impaired thyroid function on male and female fertility, spacing from spontaneous pregnancy to ART, with the objective of providing an updated narrative revision of the literature. METHODS: This narrative review was performed for all available prospective, retrospective and review articles, published up to 2021 in PubMed. Data were extracted from the text and from the tables of the manuscript. RESULTS: Thyroid dysfunction is frequently associated with female infertility, whereas its link with male infertility is debated. Female wise, impaired function is detrimental to obstetric and fetal outcomes both in spontaneous pregnancies and in those achieved thanks to assisted reproduction technologies (ART). Furthermore, the reference range of TSH in natural pregnancy and ART procedures has recently become a matter of debate following recent reports in this field. On the other hand, the impact of thyroid function on the male reproductive system is less clear, although a possible role is suggested via modulation of Sertoli and Leydig cells function and spermatogenesis. CONCLUSION: Thyroid function should be carefully monitored in both male and female, in couples seeking spontaneous pregnancy as well as ART, as treatment is generally immediate and likely to improve chances of success.

The effect of extended cryo-storage following vitrification on embryo competence: a systematic review and meta-analysis.

PURPOSE: Few studies explored whether prolonged cryo-storage after vitrification affects embryo competence and perinatal outcomes. This systematic review and meta-analysis aims at highlighting any putative impact of cryo-storage duration on cryo-survival, miscarriage, live birth and major malformations. METHODS: A systematic review was performed using MEDLINE (PubMed), ISI Web of Knowledge, Scopus and Embase databases up to June 2021. Data were combined to obtain a pooled OR, and meta-analysis was conducted using a random effects model. Out of 1,389 screened abstracts, 22 papers were assessed for eligibility, and 5 studies were included (N = 18,047 embryos). Prolonged cryo-storage was defined as > 12 months (N = 3389 embryos). Subgroup analysis was performed for untested vitrified cleavage stage embryos (N = 1739 embryos) and for untested and euploid vitrified blastocysts (N = 13,596 and 2712 embryos, respectively). RESULTS: Survival rate, miscarriage, live birth and major malformation rates were all similar in the two groups. CONCLUSION: These data further support the safety of long-term cryo-storage of human embryos beyond 12 months. This is reassuring for good prognosis patients with surplus embryos, couples seeking a second child from supernumerary embryos and women postponing the transfer for clinical or personal reasons.

Clinical validity and utility of preconception expanded carrier screening for the management of reproductive genetic risk in IVF and general population.

STUDY QUESTION: What is the clinical validity and utility of preconception Expanded Carrier Screening (ECS) application on the management of prospective parents? SUMMARY ANSWER: The high detection rate of at-risk couples (ARCs) and the high proportion opting for IVF/preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) treatment demonstrate the clinical utility of ECS in the preconception space in IVF and general population. WHAT IS KNOWN ALREADY: About 2-4% of couples are at risk of conceiving a child with an autosomal recessive or X-linked genetic disorder. In recent years, the increasing cost-effectiveness of genetic diagnostic techniques has allowed the creation of ECS panels for the simultaneous detection of multiple recessive disorders. Comprehensive preconception genetic screening holds the potential to significantly improve couple's genetic risk assessment and reproductive planning to avoid detectable inheritable genetic offspring. STUDY DESIGN, SIZE, DURATION: A total of 3877 individuals without a family history of genetic conditions were analyzed between January 2017 and January 2020. Of the enrolled individuals, 1212 were gamete donors and 2665 were patients planning on conceiving from both the IVF and the natural conception group. From the non-donor cohort, 1133 were analyzed as individual patients, while the remaining ones were analyzed as couples, for a total of 766 couples. PARTICIPANTS/MATERIALS, SETTING, METHODS: A focused ECS panel was developed following American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology ACOG-recommended criteria (prevalence, carrier rate, severity), including highly penetrant severe childhood conditions. Couples were defined at-risk when both partners carried an autosomal recessive pathogenic/likely pathogenic variant (PLP) on the same gene or when the woman was a carrier of an X-linked PLP variant. ARC detection rate defined the clinical validity of the ECS approach. Clinical utility was evaluated by monitoring ARCs reproductive decision making. MAIN RESULTS AND THE ROLE OF CHANCE: A total of 402 individuals (10.4%) showed PLP for at least one of the genes tested. Among the 766 couples tested, 173 showed one carrier partner (22.6%), whereas 20 couples (2.6%) were found to be at increased risk. Interestingly, one ARC was identified as a result of cascade testing in the extended family of an individual carrying a pathogenic variant on the Survival Of Motor Neuron 1SMN1 gene. Of the identified ARCs, 5 (0.7%) were at risk for cystic fibrosis, 5 (0.7%) for fragile X syndrome, 4 (0.5%) for spinal muscular atrophy, 4 (0.5%) for Beta-Thalassemia/Sickle Cell Anemia, 1 (0.1%) for Smith-Lemli-Opitz Syndrome and 1 (0.1%) for Duchenne/Becker Dystrophy. Fifteen ARCs were successfully followed up from both the IVF and the natural conception groups. All of these (15/15) modified their reproductive planning by undergoing ART with Preimplantation Genetic Testing for Monogenic disease and Aneuploidies (PGT-M and PGT-A). To date, 6/15 (40%) couples completed their PGT cycle with euploid/unaffected embryos achieving a pregnancy after embryo transfer and three of them have already had an unaffected baby. LIMITATIONS, REASONS FOR CAUTION: The use of a limited panel of core gene-disease pairs represents a limitation on the research perspective as it can underestimate the rate of detectable carriers and ARCs in this cohort of prospective parents. Expanding the scope of ECS to a larger panel of conditions is becoming increasingly feasible, thanks to a persistent technological evolution and progressive cataloging of gene-disease associations. WIDER IMPLICATIONS OF THE FINDINGS: These results highlight the potential clinical validity and utility of ECS in reducing the risk of a pregnancy affected by a detectable inheritable genetic condition. The steady reduction in the costs of genetic analyses enables the expansion of monogenic testing/screening applications at the preimplantation stage, thus, providing valid decisional support and reproductive autonomy to patients, particularly in the context of IVF. STUDY FUNDING/COMPETING INTEREST(S): No external funding was used for this study. A.C., M.F., S.C., M.P., L.G., and C.P. are employees of Igenomix Italy. C.S. is the head of the scientific board of Igenomix. TRIAL REGISTRATION NUMBER: N/A.

Correction to: Contribution of cryopreservation to the cumulative live birth rate: a large multicentric cycle-based data analysis from the Italian National Registry.

The original article unfortunately contained a mistake. The names of the collaborators were captured as authors of the article.

Contribution of cryopreservation to the cumulative live birth rate: a large multicentric cycle-based data analysis from the Italian National Registry.

PURPOSE: To estimate the contribution of cryopreservation to the cumulative live birth rate (CLBR) after law modification in Italy in the era of vitrification and freeze-all. METHODS: The Italian National Registry performed a cycle-based data collection. Nine Italian IVF clinics were involved incorporating a total of 10,260 fresh cycles performed between January 2015 and April 2016 resulting in 9273 oocyte retrievals and 3266 subsequent warming cycles from the same oocyte retrievals performed up to December 2016. Mean female age was 37 ± 4.3 years. Primary outcome measure was CLBR per oocyte retrieval. Confounding factors were tested in multivariate regression analysis, and the relative impact of cryopreservation to the CLBR in different patient categories was calculated. RESULTS: CLBR per oocyte retrieval was 32.6%, 26.5%, 18.7%, 13.0%, and 5.5% for women younger than 36, aged 36-39, 40-41, and older than 41 years, respectively. The total relative contribution of oocyte/embryo cryopreservation was 40.6% (95% CI 38.41-42.75). An association between maternal age, number of oocytes retrieved, fertilization rate, cryopreservation, and cumulative live birth was shown. When adjusted for confounders, a 2.3-fold increase was observed in the chance of live birth when cryopreservation was performed (OR 2.3; 95% CI 1.99-2.56). In high responder patients (> 15 oocytes retrieved) where freeze-all was applied in 67.6% of cycles to avoid the risk of hyper stimulation syndrome, the relative contribution of vitrification to the CLBR was 80.6%. CONCLUSIONS: Cryopreservation is essential in IVF and should always be available to patients to optimize success rates. Multicentric, cycle-based data analyses are crucial to provide infertile couples, clinicians, and regulatory bodies with accurate information on IVF effectiveness including fresh and cryopreserved cycles.

An integrated investigation of oocyte developmental competence: expression of key genes in human cumulus cells, morphokinetics of early divisions, blastulation, and euploidy.

PURPOSE: To investigate the association of cumulus cell (CC)-related expression of a selected cluster of key genes (PTGS2, CAMK1D, HAS2, STC1, and EFNB2) with embryo development to blastocyst. METHODS: Exploratory study at a private clinic. Eighteen advanced maternal age patients were enrolled (37.3 ± 4.0 years). Seventy-five cumuli were collected, whose oocytes resulted in either developmental arrest (N = 33) or blastocyst formation (N = 42). The noninvasive CC gene expression was combined with time-lapse morphokinetic parameters and, for blastocysts, with qPCR-based aneuploidy testing on trophectoderm biopsies. RESULTS: The detection rate was 100% for all transcripts, but STC1 (96%) and CAMK1D (89%). Among amplified assays, CC mean expression levels of CAMK1D, PTGS2, and HAS2 were higher from oocytes that developed to blastocyst. No difference in CC key gene expression was reported between euploid (N = 21) and aneuploid (N = 21) blastocysts. Some timings of early embryo development were faster in embryos developing to blastocyst (time of pronuclei appearance and fading, division to two- and four-cells, first and second cell cycles). However, the generalized linear models outlined increasing CAMK1D expression levels as the strongest parameter associated with oocytes' developmental potential from both a general (AUC = 0.78 among amplified samples) and an intrapatient perspectives (AUC = 0.9 among patients obtaining ≥ 2 zygotes from the cohort with different developmental outcomes). CONCLUSIONS: CAMK1D level of expression in CCs associated with blastocyst development. If confirmed from larger studies in wider populations of patients, the investigation of CC key gene expression might suit IVF clinics not adopting blastocyst culture. Future investigations should clarify the role of CAMK1D in ovarian physiology and could provide novel insights on how oocytes gain competence during folliculogenesis.

Continuous embryo culture elicits higher blastulation but similar cumulative delivery rates than sequential: a large prospective study.

PURPOSE: To assess whether continuous embryo culture involves better embryological and/or clinical outcomes than sequential. METHODS: Prospective study at a private IVF center. All consecutive IVF cycles (September 2013-2015) fulfilling the inclusion criteria underwent embryo culture in either Continuous-Single-Culture-Media (CSCM, n = 972) or sequential media (Quinn's Advantage, n = 514), respectively. ICSI, blastocyst culture in either standard (MINC) or undisturbed (Embryoscope) incubation, transfer (until September 2016), and pregnancy follow-up (until September 2017) were performed. When aneuploidy testing was required, trophectoderm biopsy and qPCR were performed. Sub-analyses and logistic regression corrected for confounders were performed. The primary outcomes were overall blastocyst rate per oocyte and mean blastocyst rate per cycle. The sample size was defined to reach 95 and 80% statistical power for the former and the latter outcome, respectively. Secondary outcomes were euploidy (if assessed), cumulative delivery rates, gestational age, and birthweight. RESULTS: Continuous embryo culture resulted into a higher overall blastocyst rate per inseminated oocyte than sequential (n = 2211/5841, 37.9% vs. 1073/3216, 33.4%; p < 0.01), confirmed also from a cycle-based analysis (mean blastocyst rate: 38.7% ± 29.7% vs. 34.3% ± 29.4%; p = 0.01). The continuous media (OR = 1.23), the undisturbed incubation system (OR = 1.22), the maternal age (OR = 0.92), and the sperm factor (OR = 0.85) were outlined as positive predictors of blastulation. However, the cumulative delivery rates per ended cycle (i.e., delivery achieved or no blastocyst produced or left; > 90%) were comparable in the two groups (n = 244/903, 27.0% vs. 129/475, 27.2%). The neonatal outcomes were similar. CONCLUSIONS: Continuous culture involves better embryological but similar clinical outcomes than sequential. This large prospective study supports the absence of clinical disparity among the two approaches.

No evidence of association between blastocyst aneuploidy and morphokinetic assessment in a selected population of poor-prognosis patients: a longitudinal cohort study.

Recent studies involving a limited number of patients have indicated a correlation between aneuploidy and various morphokinetic parameters during preimplantation development. The results among different groups, however, have been inconsistent in identifying the parameters that are able to predict chromosomal abnormalities. The aim of this study was to investigate whether aneuploidy of human blastocysts was detectable by specific morphokinetic parameters in patients at increased risk of aneuploidy because of advanced maternal age, history of unsuccessful IVF treatments, or both. A longitudinal cohort study was conducted using 455 blastocysts from 138 patients. Morphokinetic features of preimplantation development were detected in a timelapse incubator. Blastocysts were subjected to trophectodermal biopsy and comprehensive chromosomal screening. Analyses were conducted by means of logistic mixed-effects models, with a subject-specific intercept. No statistical correlation between 16 commonly detected morphokinetic characteristics of in-vitro embryo development and aneuploidy was found. Results suggest that morphokinetic characteristics cannot be used to select euploid blastocysts in poor-prognosis patients regarded as candidates for pre-implantation genetic screening.

PGD for reciprocal and Robertsonian translocations using array comparative genomic hybridization.

BACKGROUND: Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is the most widely used method for detecting unbalanced chromosome rearrangements in preimplantation embryos but it is known to have several technical limitations. We describe the clinical application of a molecular-based assay, array comparative genomic hybridization (array-CGH), to simultaneously screen for unbalanced translocation derivatives and aneuploidy of all 24 chromosomes. METHODS: Cell biopsy was carried out on cleavage-stage embryos (Day 3). Single cells were first lysed and DNA amplified by whole-genome amplification (WGA). WGA products were then processed by array-CGH using 24sure + arrays, BlueGnome. Balanced/normal euploid embryos were then selected for transfer on Day 5 of the same cycle. RESULTS: Twenty-eight consecutive cycles of preimplantation genetic diagnosis were carried out for 24 couples carrying 18 different balanced translocations. Overall, 187/200 (93.5%) embryos were successfully diagnosed. Embryos suitable for transfer were identified in 17 cycles (60.7%), with transfer of 22 embryos (mean 1.3 ± 0.5). Twelve couples achieved a clinical pregnancy (70.6% per embryo transfer), with a total of 14 embryos implanted (63.6% per transferred embryo). Three patients delivered three healthy babies, during writing, the other pregnancies (two twins and seven singletons) are ongoing beyond 20 weeks of gestation. CONCLUSIONS: The data obtained demonstrate that array-CGH can detect chromosome imbalances in embryos, also providing the added benefit of simultaneous aneuploidy screening of all 24 chromosomes. Array-CGH has the potential to overcome several inherent limitations of FISH-based tests, providing improvements in terms of test performance, automation, sensitivity and reliability.

Management of poor responders in IVF.

Correct controlled ovarian stimulation is of paramount importance in assisted reproductive technologies. Therefore, analysis of the ovarian reserve of the patient is mandatory to tailor the best ovarian stimulation regimen. When the ovarian reserve is reduced, the induction of a multifollicular growth remains a challenge. Several factors could be associated with reduced ovarian response. However, reduced ovarian reserve either in older patients or in young patients represents the most frequent aetiological factor. Whatever is the aetiology, one of the main problems is how to predict a reduced ovarian response, and although several tests have been suggested, no very accurate predictive test is available. A variety of different stimulation protocols have been suggested but the lack of any large-scale, prospective, randomized, controlled trials of the different management strategies and the lack of a uniform definition of the population may result in comparisons of heterogeneous groups of patients, making it difficult to draw any definitive conclusions. Natural cycle IVF may represent an easy and cheap approach in the management of this group of patients. Although no controlled large prospective randomized studies are available to compare the natural IVF procedure with ovarian stimulation IVF in poor responder patients, the efficacy of natural cycle IVF is hampered by high cancellation rates mainly due to untimely LH surge. The use of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone antagonists in the late follicular phase, which reduces the premature LH rise rate, and the improvements in laboratory conditions and fertilization techniques, increase the embryo transfer rates, making this procedure more cost-effective.