ABSTRACT
We describe vaginal microbiota, including Gardnerella species and sexually transmitted infections (STIs), during pregnancy and their associations with recurrent spontaneous preterm birth (sPTB). We performed a prospective cohort study in a tertiary referral centre in the Netherlands, among pregnant women with previous sPTB <34 weeks' gestation. Participants collected three vaginal swabs in the first and second trimester. Vaginal microbiota was profiled with 16S rDNA sequencing. Gardnerella species and STI's were tested with qPCR. Standard care was provided according to local protocol, including screening and treatment for bacterial vaginosis (BV), routine progesterone administration and screening for cervical length shortening. Of 154 participants, 26 (16.9 %) experienced recurrent sPTB <37 weeks' gestation. Microbiota composition was not associated with sPTB. During pregnancy, the share of Lactobacillus iners-dominated microbiota increased at the expense of diverse microbiota between the first and second trimester. This change coincided with treatment for BV, demonstrating a similar change in microbiota composition after treatment. In this cohort of high-risk women, we did not find an association between vaginal microbiota composition and recurrent sPTB. This should be interpreted with care, as these women were offered additional preventive therapies to reduce sPTB according to national guidelines including progesterone and BV treatment. The increase observed in L. iners dominated microbiota and the decrease in diverse microbiota mid-gestation was most likely mediated by BV treatment. Our findings suggest that in recurrent sPTB occurring despite several preventive therapies, the microbe-related etiologic contribution might be limited.
ABSTRACT
PURPOSE: Rapid diagnosis and treatment of infectious meningitis and encephalitis (ME) is critical to minimize morbidity and mortality. Recently, Qiagen introduced the CE-IVD QIAstat-Dx ME panel (QS-ME) for syndromic diagnostic testing of meningitis and encephalitis. Some data on the performance of the QS-ME in comparison to the BioFire FilmArray ME panel are available. In this study, the performance of the QS-ME is compared to the current diagnostic workflow in two academic medical centers in the Netherlands. METHODS: A total of 110 cerebrospinal fluid samples were retrospectively tested with the QS-ME. The results obtained were compared to the results of laboratory-developed real-time PCR assays (LDTs), IS-pro, bacterial culture, and cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) testing. In addition, the accuracy of the QS-ME was also investigated using an external quality assessment (EQA) panel consisting of ten samples. RESULTS: Four of the 110 samples tested failed to produce a valid QS-ME result. In the remaining 106 samples, the QS-ME detected 53/53 viral targets, 38/40 bacterial targets, and 7/13 Cryptococcus neoformans targets. The discrepant bacterial results consisted of two samples that were previously tested positive for Listeria monocytogenes (CT 35.8) and Streptococcus pneumoniae (CT 40), respectively. The QS-ME detected one additional result, consisting of a varicella-zoster virus signal (CT 35.9), in a sample in which both techniques detected Streptococcus pyogenes. Finally, 100% concordance was achieved in testing a blinded bacterial ME EQA panel. CONCLUSION: The QS-ME is a relevant addition to the syndromic testing landscape to assist in diagnosing infectious ME.
Subject(s)
Cryptococcus neoformans , Encephalitis , Infectious Encephalitis , Meningitis, Bacterial , Meningitis , Humans , Retrospective Studies , Workflow , Multiplex Polymerase Chain Reaction/methods , Meningitis/diagnosis , Encephalitis/cerebrospinal fluid , Meningitis, Bacterial/diagnosis , BacteriaABSTRACT
Diagnosis of bone and joint infections (BJI) relies on microbiological culture which has a long turnaround time and is challenging for certain bacterial species. Rapid molecular methods may alleviate these obstacles. Here, we investigate the diagnostic performance of IS-pro, a broad-scope molecular technique that can detect and identify most bacteria to the species level. IS-pro additionally informs on the amount of human DNA present in a sample, as a measure of leukocyte levels. This test can be performed in 4 h with standard laboratory equipment. Residual material of 591 synovial fluid samples derived from native and prosthetic joints from patients suspected of joint infections that were sent for routine diagnostics was collected and subjected to the IS-pro test. Bacterial species identification as well as bacterial load and human DNA load outcomes of IS-pro were compared to those of culture. At sample level, percent positive agreement (PPA) between IS-pro and culture was 90.6% (95% CI 85.7- to 94%) and negative percent agreement (NPA) was 87.7% (95% CI 84.1 to 90.6%). At species level PPA was 80% (95% CI 74.3 to 84.7%). IS-pro yielded 83 extra bacterial detections over culture for which we found supporting evidence for true positivity in 40% of the extra detections. Missed detections by IS-pro were mostly related to common skin species in low abundance. Bacterial and human DNA signals measured by IS-pro were comparable to bacterial loads and leukocyte counts reported by routine diagnostics. We conclude that IS-pro showed an excellent performance for fast diagnostics of bacterial BJI.
Subject(s)
Arthritis, Infectious , Microbiological Techniques , Prosthesis-Related Infections , Humans , Arthritis, Infectious/diagnosis , Arthritis, Infectious/microbiology , Bacteria/classification , Bacteria/genetics , Bacteria/isolation & purification , Prosthesis-Related Infections/diagnosis , Prosthesis-Related Infections/microbiology , Rapid Diagnostic Tests/instrumentation , Rapid Diagnostic Tests/standards , Synovial Fluid/cytology , Synovial Fluid/microbiology , Sensitivity and Specificity , DNA/genetics , Microbiological Techniques/instrumentation , Microbiological Techniques/standardsABSTRACT
INTRODUCTION: Recurrent urinary tract infections (rUTI) largely contribute to antibiotic use in older adults. Understanding the genetic characteristics of Escherichia coli (E.coli) is needed to identify patients at risk for recurrence. The aim of this study was to obtain a greater understanding of the genetics of E. coli rUTI in nursing home residents. METHODS: This is a secondary analysis of a multicenter Dutch nursing home study (PROGRESS). E. coli strains from residents with a suspected UTI and positive urine culture were analyzed using antimicrobial susceptibility testing and whole-genome sequencing (WGS). Same-strain recurrences were identified by single-nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) analysis. RESULT: In total, 121 E. coli strains were analyzed using WGS, of which 54 belonged to a rUTI episode. One third of E. coli rUTI episodes were caused by the same strain (n = 18, 33.3%). Same-strain recurrence occurred anywhere between 30 and 434 days after the index UTI, caused by sequence types (ST): ST12, ST23, ST73, ST131, ST453, ST538 and ST2522, in seven nursing home residents. In both single UTI and rUTI, antimicrobial resistance rates were low. CONCLUSION: Recurrent UTI in nursing home residents are caused by same-strain E. coli as well as due to different E. coli strains or other uropathogens. Same-strain recurrence can occur over 400 days after the index UTI, suggesting that some strains have the ability to colonize the bladder or gut for longer periods.
ABSTRACT
Early detection of bacterial transmission and outbreaks in hospitals is important because nosocomial infections can result in health complications and longer hospitalization. Current practice to detect outbreaks uses genotyping methods amplified fragment length polymorphism (AFLP) and whole genome sequencing (WGS), which are not suitable methods for real-time transmission screening of both susceptible and resistant bacteria. The aim was to assess the typing technique Fourier transform infrared (FTIR) spectroscopy as real-time screening method to discriminate large amounts of susceptible and resistant bacteria at strain level when there is no evident outbreak in comparison with the WGS reference. Isolates of past hospital outbreak strains of Acinetobacter baumannii/calcoaceticus complex (n = 25), Escherichia coli (n = 31), Enterococcus faecium (n = 22), Staphylococcus aureus (n = 37) and Pseudomonas aeruginosa (n = 30) were used for validation of FTIR. Subsequently, Enterococcus faecalis (n = 106) and Enterococcus faecium (n = 104) isolates from weekly routine screening samples when no potential outbreak was present were analysed. FTIR showed reproducibility and congruence of cluster composition with WGS for A. baumannii/calcoaceticus complex and E. faecium outbreak isolates. The FTIR results of E. faecalis and E. faecium isolates from routine samples showed reproducibility, but the congruence of cluster composition with WGS was low. For A. baumannii/calcoaceticus complex and E. faecium outbreak isolates, FTIR appears to be a discriminatory typing tool. However, our study shows the discriminatory power is too low to screen real-time for transmission of E. faecium and E. faecalis at patient wards based on isolates acquired in routine surveillance cultures when there is no clear suspicion of an ongoing outbreak.
Subject(s)
Cross Infection , Enterococcus faecium , Gram-Positive Bacterial Infections , Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism Analysis , Cross Infection/epidemiology , Cross Infection/genetics , Cross Infection/microbiology , Enterococcus faecium/genetics , Genome, Bacterial , Genotype , Gram-Positive Bacterial Infections/epidemiology , Gram-Positive Bacterial Infections/genetics , Gram-Positive Bacterial Infections/microbiology , Hospitals , Humans , Reproducibility of Results , Spectroscopy, Fourier Transform Infrared , Whole Genome Sequencing/methodsABSTRACT
OBJECTIVES: Our aim was to evaluate the effect of the updated European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer (EORTC) and Mycoses Study Group 2019 definitions for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis (IPA) on patient classification and the related all-cause 12-week mortality. METHODS: In this retrospective cohort study from our tertiary care centre, we reclassified patients with haematological malignancy who underwent bronchoalveolar lavage between 2014 and 2019 for suspected IPA using the novel EORTC 2019 criteria. We performed receiver operating characteristic curve analysis to define the optimal cut-off for positive PCR and galactomannan and present survival analyses and their possible association with these diagnostic criteria through post hoc comparisons with log rank and Cox regression. RESULTS: From 323 episodes of suspected IPA in 282 patients, 73 were reclassified: 31 (42.5%) from possible to probable IPA, 5 (6.8%) from EORTC criteria not met to probable IPA, and 37 (50.7%) from EORTC criteria not met to possible IPA. Probable IPA increased therefore 11.1% (64/323, 19.8% to 100/323, 30.9%), mostly due to positive PCR (31/36, 86.1%). There was no difference in mortality between newly defined possible and probable IPA (log rank p = 0.950). Mortality was higher in probable cases with lower cycle thresholds (Ct values) versus higher Ct values (p = 0.004). Receiver operating characteristic curve analysis showed an optimal Ct value cut-off of 36.8 with a sensitivity of 75% (95% CI 64.9%-85.1%) and a specificity of 61.7% (95% CI 53.5-69.9) for 12-week mortality. DISCUSSION: The new EORTC criteria led to 11.1% more probable IPA diagnoses, mostly due to Aspergillus PCR. Restricting positive PCR to below a certain threshold might improve the discrimination of the new EORTC IPA categories for mortality.
Subject(s)
Invasive Pulmonary Aspergillosis , Humans , Bronchoalveolar Lavage Fluid/microbiology , Invasive Pulmonary Aspergillosis/diagnosis , Invasive Pulmonary Aspergillosis/microbiology , Mannans/analysis , Retrospective Studies , Sensitivity and SpecificityABSTRACT
Postmenopausal women and renal transplant recipients are at increased risk of recurrent urinary tract infections (RUTI). Urine and vaginal microbiota of premenopausal controls (N = 18) and RUTI cases (18), and of postmenopausal controls (30) and RUTI cases (20) with and without a renal transplant, were characterized using 16S rRNA sequencing. Participants did not have UTI symptoms at the time of sampling. Gram-negative uropathobionts (predominantly Escherichia/Shigella, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, and Acinetobacter) had a much higher mean relative abundance in urine than vaginal samples, especially in premenopausal women. No statistically significant differences in mean relative abundances of bacterial groups were found within the premenopausal group or within the postmenopausal group by RUTI or renal transplant status without chronic antibiotic use. Comparing postmenopausal to premenopausal women, mean relative abundances of lactobacilli (especially L. crispatus) in urine and vaginal samples and of Gram-negative uropathobionts in urine were lower, and of BV-anaerobes and Gram-positive uropathobionts in urine and vaginal samples were higher. While RUTI in premenopausal women is predominantly caused by Escherichia, the causative organisms in postmenopausal women are likely more diverse. The relative importance of individual organisms is currently unknown. We recommend that future studies, including intervention studies, include longitudinal microbiota assessments.
Subject(s)
Kidney Transplantation/adverse effects , Postmenopause/urine , Premenopause/urine , Urinary Tract Infections/microbiology , Urine/microbiology , Vagina/microbiology , Adolescent , Adult , Aged , Bacteria/genetics , Female , Humans , Microbiota/genetics , Middle Aged , RNA, Ribosomal, 16S/analysis , Young AdultABSTRACT
BACKGROUND: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) plays an important role in maintaining a healthy intestinal microbiome, but little is known about the interaction between local immunoglobulins and the vaginal microbiome. We assessed immunoglobulins (unbound and bound to bacteria), their association with vaginal microbiota composition and the changes over time in 25 healthy women of reproductive age. RESULTS: In both Lactobacillus crispatus-dominated and non-L. crispatus-dominated microbiota, IgA and IgG (unbound and bound to bacteria) were higher during menses (T = 1) compared to day 711 (T = 2) and day 1725 (T = 3) after menses onset. The majority of vaginal bacteria are coated with IgA and/or IgG. Women with L. crispatus-dominated microbiota have increased IgA coating of vaginal bacteria compared to women with other microbiota compositions, but contained less IgA per bacterium. Presence of a dominantly IgA-coated population at T = 2 and/or T = 3 was also strongly associated with L. crispatus-dominated microbiota. In women with non-L. crispatus-dominated microbiota, more bacteria were uncoated. Unbound IgA, unbound IgG, and bound IgG levels were not associated with microbiota composition. CONCLUSIONS: In conclusion, L. crispatus-dominated vaginal microbiota have higher levels of bacterial IgA coating compared to non-L. crispatus-dominated vaginal microbiota. Similar to its regulating function in the intestinal tract, we hypothesize that IgA is involved in maintaining L. crispatus-dominated microbiota in the female genital tract. This may play a role in L. crispatus-associated health benefits. Video abstract.
Subject(s)
Lactobacillus crispatus , Microbiota , Bacteria , Female , Humans , Immunoglobulin A , Vagina/microbiologyABSTRACT
BACKGROUND: Viruses and bacteria from the nasopharynx are capable of causing community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), which can be difficult to diagnose. We aimed to investigate whether shifts in the composition of these nasopharyngeal microbial communities can be used as diagnostic biomarkers for CAP in adults. METHODS: We collected nasopharyngeal swabs from adult CAP patients and controls without infection in a prospective multicenter case-control study design. We generated bacterial and viral profiles using 16S ribosomal RNA gene sequencing and multiplex polymerase chain reaction (PCR), respectively. Bacterial, viral, and clinical data were subsequently used as inputs for extremely randomized trees classification models aiming to distinguish subjects with CAP from healthy controls. RESULTS: We enrolled 117 cases and 48 control subjects. Cases displayed significant beta diversity differences in nasopharyngeal microbiota (Pâ =â .016, R2 = .01) compared to healthy controls. Our extremely randomized trees classification models accurately discriminated CAP caused by bacteria (area under the curve [AUC] .83), viruses (AUC .95) or mixed origin (AUC .81) from healthy control subjects. We validated this approach using a dataset of nasopharyngeal samples from 140 influenza patients and 38 controls, which yielded highly accurate (AUC .93) separation between cases and controls. CONCLUSIONS: Relative proportions of different bacteria and viruses in the nasopharynx can be leveraged to diagnose CAP and identify etiologic agent(s) in adult patients. Such data can inform the development of a microbiota-based diagnostic panel used to identify CAP patients and causative agents from nasopharyngeal samples, potentially improving diagnostic specificity, efficiency, and antimicrobial stewardship practices.
Subject(s)
Community-Acquired Infections , Microbiota , Respiratory Tract Infections , Adult , Bacteria/genetics , Case-Control Studies , Community-Acquired Infections/diagnosis , Humans , Microbiota/genetics , Nasopharynx/microbiology , Prospective Studies , Respiratory System/microbiologyABSTRACT
BACKGROUND: Quantitative PCR (qPCR) aims to measure the DNA or RNA concentration in diagnostic and biological samples based on the quantification cycle (Cq) value observed in the amplification curves. Results of qPCR experiments are regularly calculated as if all assays are 100% efficient or reported as just Cq, ΔCq, or ΔΔCq values. CONTENTS: When the reaction shows specific amplification, it should be deemed to be positive, regardless of the observed Cq. Because the Cq is highly dependent on amplification efficiency that can vary among targets and samples, accurate calculation of the target quantity and relative gene expression requires that the actual amplification efficiency be taken into account in the analysis and reports. PCR efficiency is frequently derived from standard curves, but this approach is affected by dilution errors and hampered by properties of the standard and the diluent. These factors affect accurate quantification of clinical and biological samples used in diagnostic applications and collected in challenging conditions. PCR efficiencies determined from individual amplification curves avoid these confounders. To obtain unbiased efficiency-corrected results, we recommend absolute quantification with a single undiluted calibrator with a known target concentration and efficiency values derived from the amplification curves of the calibrator and the unknown samples. SUMMARY: For meaningful diagnostics or biological interpretation, the reported results of qPCR experiments should be efficiency corrected. To avoid ambiguity, the Minimal Information for Publications on Quantitative Real-Time PCR Experiments (MIQE) guidelines checklist should be extended to require the methods that were used (1) to determine the PCR efficiency and (2) to calculate the reported target quantity and relative gene expression value.
Subject(s)
Genetic Techniques , RNA , Calibration , Humans , Real-Time Polymerase Chain ReactionABSTRACT
BACKGROUND: Detecting SARS-CoV-2 antibodies may help to diagnose COVID-19. Head-to-head validation of different types of immunoassays in well-characterized cohorts of hospitalized patients remains needed. METHODS: We validated three chemiluminescence immunoassays (CLIAs) (Liaison, Elecsys, and Abbott) and one single molecule array assay (SIMOA) (Quanterix) for automated analyzers, one rapid immunoassay RIA (AllTest), and one ELISA (Wantai) in parallel in first samples from 126 PCR confirmed COVID-19 hospitalized patients and 158 pre-COVID-19 patients. Specificity of the AllTest was also tested in 106 patients with confirmed parasitic and dengue virus infections. Specificity of the Wantai assay was not tested due to limitations in sample volumes. RESULTS: Overall sensitivity in first samples was 70.6 % for the Liaison, 71.4 % for the Elecsys, 75.4 % for the Abbott, 70.6 % for the Quanterix, 77.8 % for the AllTest, and 88.9 % for the Wantai assay, respectively. Sensitivity was between 77.4 % (Liaison) and 94.0 % (Wantai) after 10 dpso. No false positive results were observed for the Elecsys and Abbott assays. Specificity was 91.1 % for the Quanterix, 96.2 % for the Liaison, and 98.1 % for the AllTest assay, respectively. CONCLUSION: We conclude that low sensitivity of all immunoassays limits their use early after onset of illness in diagnosing COVID-19 in hospitalized patients. After 10 dpso, the Wantai ELISA has a relatively high sensitivity, followed by the point-of-care AllTest RIA that compares favorably with automated analyzer immunoassays.
Subject(s)
Antibodies, Viral/blood , COVID-19/diagnosis , Immunoassay/methods , SARS-CoV-2/immunology , Adult , Aged , Aged, 80 and over , COVID-19 Serological Testing , Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay , Female , Humans , Male , Middle Aged , Sensitivity and SpecificityABSTRACT
BACKGROUND: Clostridioides difficile is the most common cause of nosocomial diarrhea. Ribotyping of cultured strains by a PCR-based test is used to study potential transmission between patients. We aimed to develop a rapid test that can be applied directly on fecal samples for simultaneous detection and ribotyping of C. difficile, as well as detection of toxin genes. METHODS: We developed a highly specific and sensitive primer set for simultaneous detection and ribotyping of C. difficile directly on total fecal DNA. Toxin genes were detected with primers adapted from Persson et al. (Clin Microbiol Infect 14(11):1057-1064). Our study set comprised 130 fecal samples: 65 samples with positive qPCR for C. difficile toxin A/B genes and 65 C. difficile qPCR negative samples. PCR products were analyzed by capillary gel electrophoresis. RESULTS: Ribosomal DNA fragment peak profiles and toxin genes were detected in all 65 C. difficile positive fecal samples and in none of the 65 C. difficile negative samples. The 65 samples were assigned to 27 ribotypes by the Dutch reference laboratory. Our peak profiles corresponded to these ribotypes, except for two samples. During a C. difficile outbreak, patients were correctly allocated to the outbreak-cluster based on the results of direct fecal ribotyping, before C. difficile isolates were cultured and conventionally typed. CONCLUSION: C. difficile ribotyping directly on fecal DNA is feasible, with sensitivity and specificity comparable to that of diagnostic toxin gene qPCR and with ribotype assignment similar to that obtained by conventional typing on DNA from cultured isolates. This supports simultaneous diagnosis and typing to recognize an outbreak.
Subject(s)
Bacterial Toxins/genetics , Clostridioides difficile/classification , Clostridium Infections , Ribotyping , Bacterial Typing Techniques , Clostridium Infections/diagnosis , Clostridium Infections/microbiology , Disease Outbreaks , Feces/microbiology , HumansABSTRACT
A proportion of patients suspected of Clostridium difficile infection are unnecessarily placed in contact isolation. By introducing a random-access glutamate dehydrogenase (GDH) test for C. difficile, we aimed to reduce isolation time. In addition, we investigated whether the result of the toxin A&B enzyme immunoassay (EIA) was associated with the decision to initiate antibiotic treatment against C. difficile. This retrospective pre- and post-implementation study was from June 3, 2016, to June 4, 2018. Pre-implementation, only a NAAT was performed. In the post-implementation period, a GDH test was performed; if positive, a toxin A&B EIA followed the same day and subsequently a NAAT. Contact isolation for CDI was discontinued when the GDH test was negative. Median time in isolation was 50.8 h pre-implementation (n = 189) versus 28.0 h post-implementation (n = 119), p < 0.001. The GDH test had a negative predictive value of 98.8% (95% CI 97.9-99.4). In 7/31 (22.6%) patients with a positive NAAT and GDH test and a negative toxin A&B EIA, no antibiotics against C. difficile were initiated versus 4/28 (14.3%) patients who were NAAT, GDH and toxin A&B EIA positive. Introducing a random-access screening test resulted in a significant decrease in patient isolation time. The GDH test had a high negative predictive value making it suitable to determine whether contact isolation can be discontinued. Furthermore, the result of a toxin A&B EIA had limited added value on the percentage of patients in whom antibiotic treatment against C. difficile was initiated.
Subject(s)
Algorithms , Anti-Bacterial Agents/therapeutic use , Clostridioides difficile/isolation & purification , Clostridium Infections/diagnosis , Patient Isolation , Bacterial Proteins/metabolism , Bacterial Toxins/metabolism , Clostridioides difficile/genetics , Clostridioides difficile/metabolism , Clostridium Infections/drug therapy , Clostridium Infections/prevention & control , Diagnostic Tests, Routine , Enterotoxins/metabolism , Glutamate Dehydrogenase/metabolism , Humans , Immunoenzyme Techniques , Nucleic Acid Amplification Techniques , Retrospective Studies , Sensitivity and SpecificityABSTRACT
High rates (~25%) of developing chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection (hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)-positive for > 6 months following infection) have been observed in people who use drugs (PWUD) and men who have sex with men (MSM). We aimed to estimate the frequency of delayed HBsAg seroclearance, along with its determinants, and time to delayed HBsAg seroclearance. Data were used from MSM and PWUD enrolled in the Amsterdam Cohort Studies (1985-2002) who had anti-hepatitis B core antibody seroconversion. Potential determinants for standard HBsAg seroclearance, delayed HBsAg seroclearance and chronic HBV were examined using multinominal logistic regression. Time to HBsAg seroclearance was estimated using Kaplan-Meier curves. A total of 147 incident HBV infections occurred during follow-up. On initial HBsAg testing after infection (6-12 months), 42 (29%) were HBsAg-positive and 105 (71%) were HBsAg-negative ('standard HBsAg seroclearance'). Of the 42 initially HBsAg-positive individuals, 22 subsequently tested HBsAg-negative (of whom 7 (31.8%) were HBV DNA positive at last visit, suggesting occult HBV). Overall, 15 became HBsAg-negative and HBV DNA-negative ('delayed HBsAg seroclearance'), while 27 remained HBsAg and/or HBV DNA-positive ('chronic HBV'). The 5-year cumulative probability of delayed HBsAg seroclearance was 41.6% for initially HBsAg-positive individuals. Delayed HBsAg seroclearance and remaining chronically infected were associated with younger age and HIV/hepatitis C virus (HCV)-co-infection. In conclusion, delayed HBsAg seroclearance is common in these key adult populations at-risk for HBV, while proportion developing HBV chronicity (18%) is still higher compared to the general population (~5%). Given the proportion of individuals with occult HBV infection and that HCV direct-acting antivirals can lead to HBV reactivation, HBV DNA testing in HCV co-infected MSM/PWUD are warranted prior to treatment initiation.
Subject(s)
Hepacivirus/immunology , Hepatitis B Antibodies/blood , Hepatitis B virus/immunology , Hepatitis B, Chronic/immunology , Adult , Drug Users/statistics & numerical data , Female , Hepatitis B e Antigens/blood , Homosexuality, Male , Humans , Male , Prospective Studies , Retrospective Studies , Seroconversion , Sexual and Gender Minorities/statistics & numerical data , Surveys and Questionnaires , Time FactorsABSTRACT
Background: Recognition of nosocomial outbreaks with antimicrobial resistant (AMR) pathogens and appropriate infection prevention measures are essential to limit the consequences of AMR pathogens to patients in hospitals. Because unrelated, but genetically similar AMR pathogens may circulate simultaneously, rapid high-resolution molecular typing methods are needed for outbreak management. We compared amplified fragment length polymorphism (AFLP) and whole genome sequencing (WGS) during a nosocomial outbreak of vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium (VRE) that spanned 5 months. Methods: Hierarchical clustering of AFLP profiles was performed using unweighted pair-grouping and similarity coefficients were calculated with Pearson correlation. For WGS-analysis, core single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) were used to calculate the pairwise distance between isolates, construct a maximum likelihood phylogeny and establish a cut-off for relatedness of epidemiologically linked VRE isolates. SNP-variations in the vanB gene cluster were compared to increase the comparative resolution. Technical replicates of 2 isolates were sequenced to determine the number of core-SNPs derived from random sequencing errors. Results: Of the 721 patients screened for VRE carriage, AFLP assigned isolates of 22 patients to the outbreak cluster. According to WGS, all 22 isolates belonged to ST117 but only 21 grouped in a tight phylogenetic cluster and carried vanB resistance gene clusters. Sequencing of technical replicates showed that 4-5 core-SNPs were derived by random sequencing errors. The cut-off for relatedness of epidemiologically linked VRE isolates was established at ≤7 core-SNPs. The discrepant isolate was separated from the index isolate by 61 core-SNPs and the vanB gene cluster was absent. In AFLP analysis this discrepant isolate was indistinguishable from the other outbreak isolates, forming a cluster with 92% similarity (cut-off for identical isolates ≥90%). The inclusion of the discrepant isolate in the outbreak resulted in the screening of 250 patients and quarantining of an entire ward. Conclusion: AFLP was a rapid and affordable screening tool for characterising hospital VRE outbreaks. For in-depth understanding of the outbreak WGS was needed. Compared to AFLP, WGS provided higher resolution typing of VRE isolates with implications for outbreak management.
Subject(s)
Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism Analysis/methods , Cross Infection/microbiology , Gram-Positive Bacterial Infections/diagnosis , Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococci/isolation & purification , Whole Genome Sequencing/methods , Bacterial Proteins/genetics , Carrier State/diagnosis , Carrier State/microbiology , Cluster Analysis , Disease Outbreaks , Enterococcus faecium/classification , Enterococcus faecium/genetics , Enterococcus faecium/isolation & purification , Genome, Bacterial , Humans , Molecular Typing , Phylogeny , Polymorphism, Single Nucleotide , Retrospective Studies , Tertiary Care Centers , Time Factors , Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococci/classification , Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococci/geneticsABSTRACT
PURPOSE: Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common clinical condition characterized by odorous vaginal discharge, vaginal itching and/or burning. BV can occur when vaginal lactobacilli are depleted and replaced by diverse anaerobic bacteria. We evaluated a commercial multiplex PCR (ATRiDA) for the diagnosis of BV. METHODS: Cervicovaginal samples were included from women reporting urogenital symptoms and from women notified for sexually transmitted infections (STI) - who were not (necessarily) symptomatic. Clinical BV diagnoses were obtained from electronic patient files. The ATRiDA test measures the loads of Gardnerella vaginalis, Atopobium vaginae and Lactobacillus species in relation to overall bacterial load. The ATRiDA test outcome was compared to the clinical BV diagnosis and to vaginal microbiota composition, determined by 16SrRNA gene sequencing. RESULTS: We included samples from 185 women reporting urogenital symptoms, of whom 81 had BV and 93 women who were notified for an STI, of whom 16 had BV. Overall, compared to the clinical BV diagnosis, the ATRiDA test demonstrated high sensitivity (96.9â%) and moderate specificity (70.2â%). The negative predictive value was high (>97.3). The positive predictive value differed by study group and was highest in women reporting urogenital symptoms (78.2â%). Sequencing showed that 54â% of women who had an ATRiDA BV-positive test outcome, but who were not clinically diagnosed with BV, had diverse anaerobic vaginal microbiota (asymptomatic vaginal dysbiosis). CONCLUSION: The ATRiDA test is a sensitive method for the detection of BV but, given the high occurrence of asymptomatic vaginal dysbiosis, a positive test outcome should be interpreted together with clinical symptoms.
Subject(s)
Bacteria/isolation & purification , Multiplex Polymerase Chain Reaction/methods , Vaginosis, Bacterial/diagnosis , Adult , Bacteria/classification , Bacteria/genetics , Female , Humans , Microbiota , Multiplex Polymerase Chain Reaction/economics , Multiplex Polymerase Chain Reaction/instrumentation , Vagina/microbiology , Vaginosis, Bacterial/microbiology , Young AdultABSTRACT
INTRODUCTION: This prospective study aimed to study the composition and structure of the vaginal microbiota prior to Chlamydia trachomatis infection. METHODS: A nested case-control study was performed in 122 women, half of which acquired C. trachomatis within a year after their first visit. At the first visit, the composition and structure of vaginal microbial communities were analysed using 16S rRNA sequencing in the context of the sociodemographic and sexual risk behaviour information using logistic regression. RESULTS: Five vaginal community state types (CSTs) were identified. Four CSTs were dominated by Lactobacillus spp., of which L. crispatus (37%) and L. iners (33%) were the most common. One CST was characterised by the absence of Lactobacillus spp. (25%) and the presence of an array of strict and facultative anaerobes. Multivariate logistic regression analysis revealed that women with a L. iners-dominated CST had an increased risk of C. trachomatis infection (p=0.04; OR: 2.6, 95% CI 1.0 to 6.6). CONCLUSIONS: The distribution of CSTs dominated by Lactobacillus spp. agreed with previous studies. However, the frequency of dysbiosis among Caucasian women was relatively high (24%). Having vaginal microbiota dominated by L. iners was associated with an increased risk for C. trachomatis infection. Therefore, we hypothesise that specific signatures of vaginal microbiota are indicative of increased host predisposition to acquiring STIs.
Subject(s)
Chlamydia Infections/etiology , Chlamydia trachomatis , Lactobacillus/isolation & purification , Microbiota , Sexually Transmitted Diseases/microbiology , Vagina/microbiology , Adult , Case-Control Studies , Chlamydia Infections/epidemiology , Chlamydia Infections/microbiology , Chlamydia trachomatis/genetics , Chlamydia trachomatis/isolation & purification , DNA, Bacterial , Female , Humans , Lactobacillus/classification , Lactobacillus/genetics , Netherlands/epidemiology , Prospective Studies , Quality Control , RNA, Ribosomal, 16S , Risk Factors , Sexual Behavior , Sexually Transmitted Diseases/epidemiology , White People , Young AdultABSTRACT
OBJECTIVE: To evaluate whether ethnicity is independently associated with vaginal microbiota (VMB) composition in women living in Amsterdam, the Netherlands, as has been shown for American women. METHODS: Women (18-34 years, non-pregnant, N = 610) representing the six largest ethnic groups (Dutch, African Surinamese, South-Asian Surinamese, Turkish, Moroccan, and Ghanaian) were sampled from the population-based HELIUS study. Sampling was performed irrespective of health status or healthcare seeking behavior. DNA was extracted from self-sampled vaginal swabs and sequenced by Illumina MiSeq (16S rRNA gene V3-V4 region). RESULTS: The overall prevalence of VMBs not dominated by lactobacilli was 38.5%: 32.2% had a VMB resembling bacterial vaginosis and another 6.2% had a VMB dominated by Bifidobacteriaceae (not including Gardnerella vaginalis), Corynebacterium, or pathobionts (streptococci, staphylococci, Proteus or Enterobacteriaceae). The most prevalent VMB in ethnically Dutch women was a Lactobacillus crispatus-dominated VMB, in African Surinamese and Ghanaian women a polybacterial G. vaginalis-containing VMB, and in the other ethnic groups a L. iners-dominated VMB. After adjustment for sociodemographic, behavioral and clinical factors, African Surinamese ethnicity (adjusted odds ratio (aOR) 5.1, 95% confidence interval (CI) 2.1-12.0) and Ghanaian ethnicity (aOR 4.8, 95% CI 1.8-12.6) were associated with having a polybacterial G. vaginalis-containing VMB, and African Surinamese ethnicity with a L. iners-dominated VMB (aOR 2.8, 95% CI 1.2-6.2). Shorter steady relationship duration, inconsistent condom use with casual partners, and not using hormonal contraception were also associated with having a polybacterial G. vaginalis-containing VMB, but human papillomavirus infection was not. Other sexually transmitted infections were uncommon. CONCLUSIONS: The overall prevalence of having a VMB not dominated by lactobacilli in this population-based cohort of women aged 18-34 years in Amsterdam was high (38.5%), and women of sub-Saharan African descent were significantly more likely to have a polybacterial G. vaginalis-containing VMB than Dutch women independent of modifiable behaviors.
Subject(s)
Microbiota/physiology , Vagina/microbiology , Adolescent , Adult , Bifidobacterium/genetics , Bifidobacterium/physiology , Corynebacterium/genetics , Corynebacterium/physiology , Enterobacteriaceae/genetics , Enterobacteriaceae/physiology , Female , Humans , Lactobacillus/genetics , Lactobacillus/physiology , Microbiota/genetics , Netherlands , Proteus/genetics , Proteus/physiology , RNA, Ribosomal, 16S/genetics , Staphylococcus/genetics , Staphylococcus/physiology , Streptococcus/genetics , Streptococcus/physiology , Young AdultABSTRACT
BACKGROUND: Increasing evidence suggests that the cervicovaginal microbiota (CVM) plays an important role in acquiring sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Here we study the CVM in a population of women notified by a sex partner for Chlamydia trachomatis infection. METHODS: We included 98 women who were contact-traced by C. trachomatis-positive sex partners at the STI outpatient clinic in Amsterdam, the Netherlands, and analyzed their cervicovaginal samples and clinical data. CVMs were characterized by sequencing the V3/V4 region of the 16S ribosomal RNA gene and by hierarchical clustering. Characteristics associating with C. trachomatis infection were examined using bivariable and multivariable logistic regression analysis. RESULTS: The CVM was characterized for 93 women, of whom 52 tested C. trachomatis positive and 41 C. trachomatis negative. We identified 3 major CVM clusters. Clustered CVM predominantly comprised either diverse anaerobic bacteria (n = 39 [42%]), Lactobacillus iners (n = 32 [34%]), or Lactobacillus crispatus (n = 22 [24%]). In multivariable analysis, we found that CVM was significantly associated with C. trachomatis infection (odds ratio [OR], 4.2 [95% confidence interval {CI}, 1.2-15.4] for women with diverse anaerobic CVM and OR, 4.4 [95% CI, 1.3-15.6], for women with L. iners-dominated CVM, compared with women with L. crispatus-dominated CVM), as was younger age (OR, 3.1 [95% CI, 1.1-8.7] for those ≤21 years old) and reporting a steady sex partner (OR, 3.6 [95% CI, 1.4-9.4]). CONCLUSIONS: Women who tested positive for Chlamydia trachomatis infection after having been contact-traced by a chlamydia-positive partner were more likely to have CVM dominated by L. iners or by diverse anaerobic bacteria, than by L. crispatus.
Subject(s)
Cervix Uteri/microbiology , Chlamydia Infections/epidemiology , Chlamydia Infections/microbiology , Chlamydia trachomatis , Microbiota , Vagina/microbiology , Adult , Case-Control Studies , Chlamydia trachomatis/classification , Chlamydia trachomatis/genetics , Disease Notification , Female , High-Throughput Nucleotide Sequencing , Humans , Netherlands/epidemiology , Phylogeny , Public Health Surveillance , RNA, Ribosomal, 16S/genetics , Risk Factors , Sexual Behavior , Sexually Transmitted Diseases , Young AdultABSTRACT
BACKGROUND: An outbreak of Clostridium difficile ribotype 027 infection (CDI) occurred at an university hospital, involving 19 departments. To determine what hospital-associated factors drove the outbreak of this particular strain we performed a case-control study. METHODS: Cases (n = 79), diagnosed with CDI due to C. difficile ribotype 027 were matched for age and treating medical specialty to four control patients (n = 316). Patients diagnosed with CDI due to other ribotypes were included as a second control group. A random selection of C. difficile ribotype 027 strains (n = 10) was genotyped by Whole Genome Sequencing (WGS). FINDINGS: WGS showed the outbreak was likely caused by a single strain of C. difficile (two or less single-nucleotide variants between isolates). Ninety-five percent of cases had used antibiotics, compared to 56% of controls. Previous admission to the intensive care unit (ICU) (OR: 2.4, 95% CI 1.0-5.6), longer length of stay (LOS), and recent hospital admission were associated with CDI ribotype 027. Cases were less likely to have been admitted to a ward with a known isolated CDI patient (OR: 0.2, 95% CI 0.1-0.6). Analysis of patients who stayed at the ICU (35 cases; 51 controls), indicated that the use of selective decontamination of the digestive tract (SDD) and a longer LOS in the ICU were associated with CDI risk. INTERPRETATION: In this large outbreak, any antibiotic use, including SDD use, appeared as a prerequisite for acquisition of the outbreak strain. The role of use of SDD and prolonged stay on the ICU could not be disentangled, but both factors can play a biologically plausible role in C. difficile acquisition and infection.