Fluoropyrimidine type, patient age, tumour sidedness and mutation status as determinants of benefit in patients with metastatic colorectal cancer treated with EGFR monoclonal antibodies: individual patient data pooled analysis of randomised trials from the ARCAD database.

BACKGROUND: KRAS mutations in metastatic colorectal cancer (mCRC) are used as predictive biomarkers to select therapy with EGFR monoclonal antibodies (mAbs). Other factors may be significant determinants of benefit. METHODS: Individual patient data from randomised trials with a head-to-head comparison between EGFR mAb versus no EGFR mAb (chemotherapy alone or best supportive care) in mCRC, across all lines of therapy, were pooled. Overall survival (OS) and progression-free survival (PFS) were compared between groups. Treatment effects within the predefined KRAS biomarker subsets were estimated by adjusted hazard ratio (HRadj) and 95% confidence interval (CI). EGFR mAb efficacy was measured within the KRAS wild-type subgroup according to BRAF and NRAS mutation status. In both KRAS wild-type and mutant subgroups, additional factors that could impact EGFR mAb efficacy were explored including the type of chemotherapy, line of therapy, age, sex, tumour sidedness and site of metastasis. RESULTS: 5675 patients from 8 studies were included, all with known mCRC KRAS mutation status. OS (HRadj 0.90, 95% CI 0.84-0.98, p = 0.01) and PFS benefit (HRadj 0.73, 95% CI 0.68-0.79, p < 0.001) from EGFR mAbs was observed in the KRAS wild-type group. PFS benefit was seen in patients treated with fluorouracil (HRadj 0.75, 95% CI 0.68-0.82) but not with capecitabine-containing regimens (HRadj 1.04, 95% CI 0.86-1.26) (pinteraction = 0.002). Sidedness also interacted with EGFR mAb efficacy, with survival benefit restricted to left-sided disease (pinteraction = 0.038). PFS benefits differed according to age, with benefits greater in those under 70 (pinteraction = 0.001). The survival benefit was not demonstrated in those patients with mutations found in the KRAS, NRAS or BRAF genes. The presence of liver metastases interacted with EGFR mAb efficacy in patients with KRAS mutant mCRC (pinteraction = 0.004). CONCLUSION: The benefit provided by EGFR mAbs in KRAS WT mCRC is associated with left-sided primary tumour location, younger patient age and absence of NRAS or BRAF mutations. Survival benefit is observed with fluorouracil but not capecitabine. Exploratory results support further research in KRAS mutant mCRC without liver metastases.

Different prognostic values of KRAS exon 2 submutations and BRAF V600E mutation in microsatellite stable (MSS) and unstable (MSI) stage III colon cancer: an ACCENT/IDEA pooled analysis of seven trials.

BACKGROUND: The prognostic value of KRAS and BRAFV600E mutations in stage III colon cancer (CC) remains controversial and has never been clearly analyzed in patients with microsatellite instability-high (MSI-H) tumors due to sample size limitations. Data are also lacking for KRAS submutations and prognosis. PATIENTS AND METHODS: We examined clinicopathological variables and prognosis in patients with surgically resected stage III CC who participated in seven clinical trials from the ACCENT/IDEA databases. Associations between KRAS exon 2 and BRAFV600E mutations and time to recurrence (TTR), overall survival (OS), and survival after recurrence (SAR) were assessed using a Cox model. We also analyzed the prognostic value of KRAS exon 2 submutations. RESULTS: Among 8460 patients, 11.4% had MSI-H status. In the MSI-H group, BRAFV600E, KRAS exon 2 mutants, and double-wild-type statuses were detected in 40.6%, 18.1%, and 41.3%, respectively, whereas and in the microsatellite stable (MSS) group, these were detected in 7.7%, 38.6%, and 53.8%, respectively. In the MSS group, 5-year TTR rates of 61.8%, 66.3%, and 72.9% were observed among patients with BRAFV600E, KRAS exon 2 mutants, and those who were DWT, respectively [adjusted hazard ratio (HR) = 1.58 and 1.31, both P < 0.001]. In the MSI-H group, 5-year TTR rates did not differ significantly among the mutated subgroups. Similar results were found for OS. However, survival after relapse was significantly shorter in the KRAS exon 2- and BRAFV600E-mutated patients in both MSS (adjusted HR = 2.06 and 1.15; both P < 0.05) and MSI-H (adjusted HR = 1.99 and 1.81; both P < 0.05) groups. In the MSS group, KRAS exon 2 mutations were associated with TTR, but only p.G12C, p.G12D, and p.G13D were associated with poor outcomes after disease recurrence. CONCLUSIONS: Testing for both KRAS and BRAFV600E mutations in stage III patients should be considered as they can better define individual patient prognosis, and may also enable patient selection for (neo)adjuvant trials dedicated to specific molecular subtypes with poor prognosis.

Evaluation of the change of outcomes over a 10-year period in patients with stage III colon cancer: pooled analysis of 6501 patients treated with fluorouracil, leucovorin, and oxaliplatin in the ACCENT database.

BACKGROUND: Since 2004, adjuvant 5-fluorouracil, leucovorin, and oxaliplatin (FOLFOX or FLOX) have been the standard of care for patients with resected colon cancer. Herein we examine the change of outcomes over a 10-year period in patients with stage III colon cancer who received this regimen. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Individual patient data from the ACCENT database was used to compare the outcomes in older (1998-2003) and newer (2004-2009) treatment eras for patients with stage III colon cancer who received adjuvant FOLFOX or FLOX. The outcomes were compared between the two groups by the multivariate Cox proportional-hazards model adjusting for age, sex, performance score, T stage, N stage, tumor sidedness, and histological grade. RESULTS: A total of 6501 patients with stage III colon cancer who received adjuvant FOLFOX or FLOX in six randomized trials were included in the analysis. Patients enrolled in the new era group experienced statistically significant improvement in time to recurrence [3-year rate, 76.1% versus 73.0%; adjusted hazard ratio (HRadj) = 0.83 (95% CI, 0.74-0.92), P = 0.0008], disease-free survival (DFS) [3-year rate, 74.7% versus 72.3%; HRadj = 0.88 (0.79-0.98), P = 0.024], survival after recurrence (SAR) [median time, 27.0 versus 17.7 months; HRadj = 0.65 (0.57-0.74), P < 0.0001], and overall survival (OS) [5-year rate, 80.9% versus 75.7%; HRadj = 0.78 (0.69-0.88), P < 0.0001]. The improved outcomes remained in patients diagnosed at 45 years of age or older, low-risk patients (T1-3 and N1), left colon, mismatch repair proficient (pMMR), BRAF, and KRAS wild-type tumors. CONCLUSION: Improved outcomes were observed in patients with stage III colon cancer enrolled in clinical trials who received adjuvant FOLFOX/FLOX therapy in 2004 or later compared with patients in the older era. Prolonged SAR calls for revalidation of 3-year DFS as the surrogate endpoint of OS in adjuvant clinical trials and reevaluation of optimal follow-up of OS to confirm the trial findings based on the DFS endpoints. CLINICAL TRIALS NUMBERS: NCT00079274; NCT00096278; NCT00004931; NCT00275210; NCT00265811; NCT00112918.

Prognosis of microsatellite instability and/or mismatch repair deficiency stage III colon cancer patients after disease recurrence following adjuvant treatment: results of an ACCENT pooled analysis of seven studies.

BACKGROUND: Microsatellite instable/deficient mismatch repair (MSI/dMMR) metastatic colorectal cancers have been reported to have a poor prognosis. Frequent co-occurrence of MSI/dMMR and BRAFV600E complicates the association. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Patients with resected stage III colon cancer (CC) from seven adjuvant studies with available data for disease recurrence and MMR and BRAFV600E status were analyzed. The primary end point was survival after recurrence (SAR). Associations of markers with SAR were analyzed using Cox proportional hazards models adjusted for age, gender, performance status, T stage, N stage, primary tumor location, grade, KRAS status, and timing of recurrence. RESULTS: Among 2630 patients with cancer recurrence (1491 men [56.7%], mean age, 58.5 [19-85] years), multivariable analysis revealed that patients with MSI/dMMR tumors had significantly longer SAR than did patients with microsatellite stable/proficient MMR tumors (MSS/pMMR) (adjusted hazard ratio [aHR], 0.82; 95% CI [confidence interval], 0.69-0.98; P = 0.029). This finding remained when looking at patients treated with standard oxaliplatin-based adjuvant chemotherapy regimens only (aHR, 0.76; 95% CI, 0.58-1.00; P = 0.048). Same trends for SAR were observed when analyzing MSI/dMMR versus MSS/pMMR tumor subgroups lacking BRAFV600E (aHR, 0.84; P = 0.10) or those harboring BRAFV600E (aHR, 0.88; P = 0.43), without reaching statistical significance. Furthermore, SAR was significantly shorter in tumors with BRAFV600E versus those lacking this mutation (aHR, 2.06; 95% CI, 1.73-2.46; P < 0.0001), even in the subgroup of MSI/dMMR tumors (aHR, 2.65; 95% CI, 1.67-4.21; P < 0.0001). Other factors associated with a shorter SAR were as follows: older age, male gender, T4/N2, proximal primary tumor location, poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma, and early recurrence. CONCLUSIONS: In stage III CC patients recurring after adjuvant chemotherapy, and before the era of immunotherapy, the MSI/dMMR phenotype was associated with a better SAR compared with MSS/pMMR. BRAFV600E mutation was a poor prognostic factor for both MSI/dMMR and MSS/pMMR patients. TRIAL IDENTIFICATION NUMBERS: NCT00079274, NCT00265811, NCT00004931, NCT00004931, NCT00026273, NCT00096278, NCT00112918.

Analysis of gene expression identifies differentially expressed genes and pathways associated with lymphatic dissemination in patients with adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.

INTRODUCTION: The presence of lymphatic dissemination is an important predictor of survival in esophageal adenocarcinoma (EA). The aim of this study was to discover a prognostic gene expression profile for lymphatic dissemination in EA and to identify genes and pathways that provide oncological insight in lymphatic dissemination. METHODS: Patients who had lymphatic dissemination (N = 55) were compared with patients without lymphatic dissemination (N = 22). Whole-genome oligonucleotide microarrays were used to evaluate the genetic signature of 77 esophageal cancers. Multiple random validation was used to analyze the stability of the molecular signature and predictive power. Gene set enrichment analysis (GSEA) was applied to elucidate oncogenetic pathways. RESULTS: Lymphatic dissemination was correctly predicted in 75 +/- 14% of lymph node positive patients. The absence of lymphatic dissemination was correctly predicted in 41 +/- 23% of lymph-node-negative patients. Argininosuccinate synthetase (ASS) was selected for validation on the protein level because it was present in most prognostic signatures as well as the list of differentially expressed genes. ASS expression was lower (P = 0.048) in patients with lymphatic dissemination than in patients without. GSEA identified that arginine metabolism pathways and lipid metabolism pathways are related to less chance of developing lymphatic dissemination. DISCUSSION: The predictive profile does not outperform current clinical practice to predict the presence of lymphatic dissemination in patients with EA. Several genes, including ASS, and genetic pathways which are important in the development of lymphatic dissemination in EA, were identified.

Lenalidomide plus R-CHOP21 in newly diagnosed diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL): long-term follow-up results from a combined analysis from two phase 2 trials.

Lenalidomide-RCHOP (R2-CHOP21) has been shown to be safe and effective in patients with untreated diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL). The aim of this analysis is to report long-term outcome and toxicities in newly diagnosed DLBCL patients who received R2-CHOP21 in two independent phase 2 trials, conducted by Mayo Clinic (MC) and Fondazione Italiana Linfomi (FIL). All patients received R-CHOP21 plus lenalidomide. Long-term progression-free survival (PFS), time to progression (TTP), overall survival (OS) and late toxicities and second tumors were analyzed. Hundred and twelve patients (63 MC, 49 FIL) were included. Median age was 69 years, 88% were stage III-IV. At a median follow-up of 5.1 years, 5y-PFS was 63.5%, 5y-TTP 70.1% and 5y-OS 75.4%; according to cell of origin (COO): 5y-PFS 52.8% vs 64.5%, 5y-TTP 61.6% vs 69.6% and 5y-OS 68.6% vs 74.1% in germinal center (GCB) vs non-GCB respectively. Four patients experienced grade 4-5 late toxicities. Grade ≤ 3 toxicities were infections (N = 4), thrombosis (N = 1) and neuropathy (N = 3). Seven seconds tumors were observed. Long-term follow-up demonstrates that R2-CHOP21 efficacy was maintained with high rates of PFS, TTP, and OS. Lenalidomide appears to mitigate the negative prognosis of non-GCB phenotype. Incidence of therapy-related secondary malignancies and late toxicities were low.

New tobacco products: do smokers like them?

BACKGROUND: There is little information about smokers who tried potentially reduced exposure products (PREPs) (Eclipse, Omni, Advance Lights, Accord, or Ariva), why they tried them, if they liked these products, and if they will continue to use them. OBJECTIVES: The objectives of this qualitative study were to understand: (1) how smokers who tried PREPs learned about them, (2) reasons for first trying PREPs, (3) which PREP(s) they tried, (4) what they thought of the product at first trial, (5) reasons for continuing or discontinuing use, and (6) whether they would recommend PREPs to others. DESIGN: In October 2002, 16 focus group sessions were conducted with current cigarette smokers aged 30-50 years: eight groups in Chattanooga, Tennessee, and eight in Dallas, Texas. Specific focus groups were composed of white men, white women, African American men, African American women, Hispanic men, or Hispanic women. RESULTS: The majority of the participants learned about PREPs through advertising or promotion, family, friends, and co-workers; major reasons given for first trying PREPs were that the products were free or inexpensive, they wanted to stop smoking, they believed the product claims of fewer health risks, or they were curious; most of them tried Eclipse probably because the focus groups were conducted in the same cities where Eclipse was introduced; most participants did not like PREPs; most discontinued the use of PREPS, some who continued to use them did so infrequently and also kept smoking their regular brands of cigarettes; and most would not recommend PREPs, although a few might recommend them to specific groups (for example, new smokers, the young, women, curious or health conscious people). CONCLUSIONS: Although most established smokers did not like the PREPs they tried and will not recommend them to anyone, a minority of established smokers believe that there may be a market for these products.

Identification of breast cancer cell line-derived paracrine factors that stimulate osteoclast activity.

Metastatic breast cancer causes destruction of significant amounts of bone, and, although bone is the most likely site of breast cancer metastasis, little is understood about interactions between tumor cells and bone-resorbing osteoclasts. We have investigated the paracrine factors produced by breast cancer cells that are involved in increasing osteoclast activity. We have determined by immunoassay that the human breast cancer cell line MDA MB 231 (231) cultured in serum-free medium secretes transforming growth factors type beta(TGF-beta) 1 and 2, macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF), granulocyte macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), interleukin (IL) -1 and -6, tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha), insulin-like growth factor II (IGF II), and parathyroid hormone-related peptide. To determine which of these are involved in increased bone destruction, we have fractionated serum-free 231-conditioned media and measured these fractions for effects on osteoclast resorption activity using multiple activity assays. The pattern of responses was complex. Several fractions stimulated osteoclast resorption either by increasing the number of osteoclasts binding to the bone or by elevating the resorption activity of the individual osteoclasts. Other fractions inhibited osteoclast activity. Analysis of active fractions for the factors identified in the 231-conditioned medium revealed that the presence of TNF-alpha and IGF-II was restricted to separate fractions that stimulated osteoclast resorption activity. The fractions that inhibited osteoclast resorption activity contained M-CSF, IL-6, TGF-beta2, and GM-CSF. No TGF-beta1 or IL-1 was detected in any of the active fractions. Our data support the hypothesis that breast cancer cells modulate osteoclast activity using multiple regulatory factors that increase both the number of mature osteoclasts attached to the bone and the bone resorption activity of these individual osteoclasts. Once it is understood how metastatic breast cancer elevates osteoclast-mediated bone loss, effective therapies to slow the progression and/or prevent this bone loss will become possible.

Molecular chemotherapy combined with radiation therapy enhances killing of cholangiocarcinoma cells in vitro and in vivo.

Cholangiocarcinoma is a virtually incurable tumor, resistant to current surgical, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy interventions. We applied the gene therapy strategy of toxin gene conversion of nontoxic prodrug to chemotherapeutic drug in combination with radiation therapy to the treatment of cholangiocarcinoma. In this regard, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is an accepted radiosensitizing and chemotherapeutic agent presently used in cancer therapy. The Escherichia coli enzyme cytosine deaminase (CD) converts the prodrug 5-fluorocytosine (5-FC) to 5-FU. Therefore, our goal was to express the CD gene in the human cholangiocarcinoma cell line, SK-ChA-1, assess the cytotoxicity of intracellular production of 5-FU, and determine any enhanced cell killing by the addition of external beam radiation. The susceptibility of SK-ChA-1 cells to recombinant adenoviral infection was determined by fluorescence-activated cell sorting analysis. We used the recombinant adenoviral vector AdCMVLacZ, encoding the E. coli beta-galactosidase reporter gene under control of the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) promoter, to infect SK-ChA-1 and HeLa cells at 10 and 100 plaque forming units (pfu)/cell, followed by FACS analysis. To evaluate CD-mediated conversion of 5-FC to 5-FU and subsequent cytotoxicity, SK-ChA-1 cells were infected with the recombinant adenovirus AdCMVCD, which encodes CD. Cells were then plated in 96-well microtiter plates and exposed to varying concentrations of 5-FC. Cell proliferation assays (tetrazolium salt conversion to formazan colorimetric assay) were performed beginning 2-8 days after plating. We evaluated the effects of external beam radiation using a single 8 Gy 60Co dose to AdCMVCD infected cells, with prior exposure to 5-FC for 2-3 days. MTS assays were performed following radiation treatment. Radiation dose-response analysis, via clonogenic assay, was used as a more sensitive assay to confirm the interaction of the treatment conditions. s.c. SK-ChA-1 tumors in athymic nude mice were established, which then received three intratumoral injections of 1 x 10(9) pfu AdCMVCD. Mice received i.p. injections of 400 mg/kg of 5-FC twice daily for 7 days beginning the day of initial AdCMVCD injection (day -2). The radiation treatment group received 10 Gy of 60Co exposure to their tumor on day 0. SK-ChA-1 cells were efficiently transduced (48.7 and 99.2%) by 10 and 100 pfu/cell of AdCMVLacZ, respectively. From 37.9 to 84.4% of SK-ChA-1 cells were killed following infection with 10 pfu/cell AdCMVCD and 8 days of exposure to various concentrations of 5-FC (5, 10, 30, 50, and 100 microg/ml). Higher 5-FC concentrations and longer duration of exposure resulted in greater cell killing. Radiation treatment (8 Gy) enhanced cell killing by greater than 70% when combined with 10 or 20 microg/ml of 5-FC. Radiation dose-response analysis with clonogenic assay confirmed enhanced SK-ChA-1 cell cytotoxicity as a result of radiation treatment following AdCMVCD infection and 5-FC exposure, with radiobiological parameters alpha = 0.44 and D0 = 0.96. Combined treatment of SK-ChA-1 tumors with AdCMVCD, 5-FC, and radiation in animals resulted in significantly greater survival, time to tumor regrowth, and doubling time compared to the nonradiation treatment group (P = 0.03, 0.015, and 0.002, respectively). Significantly greater change in tumor size, smaller ratio of final tumor size to original tumor size, and smaller final tumor size were observed in the radiation treatment group compared to the no radiation treatment group (P = 0.02, 0.03, and 0.03, respectively). Human cholangiocarcinoma cells were transduced with a recombinant adenovirus in vitro at high efficiency and were susceptible to CD-mediated intracellular 5-FU production. Radiobiological survival curve parameters confirmed an interactive cytotoxic effect when viral infection and prodrug therapy were combined with external beam radiation exposure. (ABSTRACT TRUNCATED)

Bisphosphonates directly regulate cell proliferation, differentiation, and gene expression in human osteoblasts.

Bisphosphonates are widely used clinically to treat bone diseases in which bone resorption is in excess. However, the mechanism of bisphosphonate action on bone is not fully understood. Studies of direct action of bisphosphonates on bone have been limited mainly to their effects on bone-resorbing osteoclast cells, with implications that some activity may be mediated indirectly through paracrine factors produced by the bone-forming osteoblast cells. Little is known about the direct effects of bisphosphonates on osteoblasts. In this report, the direct actions of several bisphosphonates on cell proliferation, gene expression, and bone formation by cultured human fetal osteoblasts were examined. Osteoblast cell proliferation was decreased, and cytodifferentiation was increased in a dose-dependent manner in cultures treated with the bisphosphonate pamidronate. In addition, pamidronate treatment increased total cellular protein, alkaline phosphatase activity, and type I collagen secretion in osteoblasts. Consistent with the above-mentioned findings, the rate of bone formation was also increased in osteoblasts cultured with pamidronate. The actions of two other bisphosphonates, the weak-acting etidronate and the potent new analogue zoledronate, were also compared with the action of pamidronate on proliferation of immortalized human fetal osteoblast (hFOB) cells and rate of bone formation. Pamidronate and zoledronate decreased hFOB cell proliferation with equal potency, whereas etidronate decreased proliferation only at much higher concentrations. Studies comparing EDTA and etidronate indicate that etidronate may act indirectly on the hFOB cells by reducing free divalent ion concentrations, whereas pamidronate and zoledronate appear to act on the hFOB cells by a direct action. Both pamidronate and zoledronate increase hFOB cell bone formation, whereas no increase is observed with etidronate and EDTA. Taken together, these observations strongly suggest that treatment with pamidronate or zoledronate enhances the differentiation and bone-forming activities of osteoblasts.

Evidence of a correlation of estrogen receptor level and avian osteoclast estrogen responsiveness.

Isolated osteoclasts from 5-week-old chickens respond to estradiol treatment in vitro with decreased resorption activity, increased nuclear proto-oncogene expression, and decreased lysosomal enzyme secretion. This study examines osteoclasts from embryonic chickens and egg-laying hens for evidence of estrogen responsiveness. Although osteoclasts from both of these sources express estrogen receptor mRNA and protein, estradiol treatment had no effect on resorption activity. In contrast to the lack of effect on resorption, estradiol treatment for 30 minutes resulted in steady-state mRNA levels of c-fos and c-jun increasing in osteoclasts from embryonic chickens and decreasing in osteoclasts from egg-laying hens. These data suggest that a nuclear proto-oncogene response may not be involved in estradiol-mediated decreased osteoclast resorption activity. To examine the influence of circulating estrogen on osteoclast estrogen responsiveness, 5-week-old chickens were injected with estrogen for 4 days prior to sacrifice. Estradiol treatment of osteoclasts from these chickens did not decrease resorption activity in vitro. Transfection of an estrogen receptor expression vector into osteoclasts from the estradiol-injected chickens and egg-laying hens restored estrogen responsiveness. Osteoclasts from 5-week-old chickens and estradiol treated 5-week-old chickens transfected with the estrogen receptor expression vector contained significantly higher levels of estrogen receptor protein and responded to estradiol treatment by decreasing secretion of cathepsins B and L and tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase. In contrast, osteoclasts from embryonic chickens, egg-laying hens, and estradiol-treated 5-week-old chickens either untransfected or transfected with an empty expression vector did not respond similarly. These data suggest that modulation of osteoclast estrogen responsiveness may be controlled by changes in the osteoclast estrogen receptor levels.

Estrogen modulation of avian osteoclast lysosomal gene expression.

We have previously demonstrated that avian osteoclasts contain high levels of 17 beta-estradiol (17 beta E2) receptors and respond to 17 beta E2 treatment with a dose-dependent decrease in in vitro resorption of [3H] proline-labeled bone particles. To more accurately assess the influence of 17 beta E2 on osteoclastic activity, the specificity of estrogen modulation of resorption levels was determined using a quantitative pit resorption assay. Treatment with 17 beta E2 significantly decreased the number of osteoclast resorption pits formed compared with that after either vehicle or 17 alpha E2 treatment. Cotreatment with 17 beta E2 and hydroxytamoxifen (a complete 17 beta E2 antagonist in birds) abrogated the influence of 17 beta E2 on resorption activity. To elucidate the mechanism by which 17 beta E2 inhibits osteoclast activity, the effects of 17 beta E2 on the steady state mRNA levels of two avian osteoclast lysosomal proteins, lysozyme and a lysosomal membrane protein (LEP-100), were examined. Using highly purified avian osteoclasts, 17 beta E2 was shown to decrease lysosomal protein mRNA levels in a dose-dependent manner within 8 h of treatment in a process that required de novo protein synthesis. This response was specific for 17 beta E2, since the inactive stereoisomer 17 alpha E2 had no effect. Furthermore, coincubation of 17 beta E2 with hydroxytamoxifen eliminated the 17 beta E2 influence. After removal of 10(-8) M 17 beta E2, lysosomal gene mRNA levels returned to near-normal levels within 24 h. This is consistent with the previously reported ability of avian osteoclast-mediated resorption activity to recover from 17 beta E2 treatment. Lysozyme protein levels similarly decreased after 17 beta E2 treatment. These data suggest that avian osteoclasts are target cells for 17 beta E2 in vitro, that osteoclast activity in vivo is likely to be modulated by circulating levels of 17 beta E2, and that the 17 beta E2 inhibition of osteoclast resorption activity may be mediated at least in part via regulation of osteoclast lysosomal gene expression.

Specific membrane receptor gene expression targeted with radiolabeled peptide employing the erbB-2 and DF3 promoter elements in adenoviral vectors.

Radioimmunotherapy is limited by a variety of factors, including poor tumor penetration of monoclonal antibodies and low levels of intratumoral antigen expression. To address these limitations, a gene therapy strategy was devised to genetically induce tumor cells to express enhanced levels of membrane receptors with high affinity for a radiolabeled peptide. We designated this approach as genetic radioisotope targeting strategy. To this end, an adenoviral vector (AdCMVGRPr) encoding the murine gastrin-releasing peptide receptor (GRPr) was used to achieve a high level of binding of radiolabeled bombesin (BBN). To achieve genetic induction of membrane GRPr specifically to tumor cells, we constructed two adenoviral vectors encoding the GRPr gene under the control of the tumor-specific regulatory elements, DF3 (AdDF3GRPr) or erbB-2 (AderbGRPr). We investigated the binding of [125I]BBN to the GRPr following infection with AdDF3GRPr and AderbGRPr in a panel of human breast, pancreatic, and cholangiocarcinoma tumor cell lines. [125I]BBN binding and GRPr expression increased with increasing multiplicities of infection of AdCMVGRPr in all of the cell lines tested. Breast cancer cell lines expressing erbB-2 showed significant GRPr expression using AderbGRPr. A similar result was observed in breast and cholangiocarcinoma cells infected with AdDF3GRPr expressing MUC1 as detected by immunohistochemistry but was not seen in the pancreatic cell lines tested. Thus, adenoviral vectors with tissue-specific promoter elements can be used to achieve a selective expression of membrane receptors that can be targeted with a radiolabeled peptide. The use of such a transcriptional targeting approach may restrict gene expression to tumors and limit the radiation dose deposited in normal tissues in vivo.

Is smoking associated with the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease? Results from three Canadian data sets.

PURPOSE: To determine whether smoking is associated with Alzheimer's disease (AD). METHODS: Analyses were conducted using three Canadian data sets: the University of Western Ontario Dementia Study (200 cases, 163 controls), the Canadian Study of Health and Aging (258 cases, 258 controls), and the patient database from the Clinic for Alzheimer Disease and Related Disorders at the Vancouver Hospital and Health Sciences Centre (566 cases, 277 controls). The association between smoking and AD was investigated using bivariate analyses and multiple logistic regression models adjusted for the potential confounders age, sex, educational level, family history of dementia, head injury, and hypertension. RESULTS: The results of bivariate analyses were inconsistent across the three data sets, with smoking status a significant protective factor, a significant risk factor, or not associated with AD. The results of multiple logistic regression models, however, were consistent: any association between smoking status and AD disappeared in all three data sets after adjustment for confounders. CONCLUSIONS: Smoking status was consistently not associated with AD across all three data sets after adjustment for confounders. Failure to adjust for relevant confounders may explain inconsistent reports of the influence of smoking on AD. Any protective effect of smoking may be limited to specific AD subtypes (e.g., early onset AD).

Change in smoking status among a cohort of late adolescents: prediction and explanation of initiation, maintenance and cessation.

This study examined the degree and type of changes in adolescent smoking status that occurred over an eight-year period, when the group was in grades four to six, to late adolescence and early adulthood. Where changes in smoking occurred, they were more likely to be in the direction of increased (57.7%), as compared to decreased (4.1%) involvement with smoking, particularly among females. Discriminant function models were developed and resulted in 60% accuracy of classification. Variables measured in 1975 found to be related to change in status (from 1975 to 1983) were early smoking, sex, age, peer and parental smoking, prediction of future smoking, attitude and knowledge. Changes in some of the independent variables were examined and found to be related to changes in smoking. Implications for prevention and cessation programmes are discussed.

Self-reported long-term smoking cessation in patients with respiratory disease: prediction of success and perception of health effects.

Smoking status of 372 patients with respiratory disease, who had been advised to quit smoking by a respiratory specialist, was assessed six months after the advice. A multiple logistic regression model was developed for prediction of successful abstinence. The patients were again followed four to seven years later. Questionnaires were returned by 160 patients (43.0%). Of the remaining patients, 27 (7.3%) had died, 12 (3.2%) refused to participate, 53 (14.2%) had no current address available and 120 (32.3%) did not return questionnaires mailed to them. Among the respondents, 31.9% reported at least one year of abstinence from cigarettes, 63.1% were still smoking and 5.0% had quit smoking for periods of less than one year. While the original logistic model was not very useful for predicting long-term success (69.7% accuracy of classification), a model that included, as predictors, six-month smoking status and reasons for smoking other than addiction, was more useful (78.9% accuracy). At follow-up, successful abstainers reported improvement in their respiratory condition but no differences were found in reported symptoms or emotional well-being when they were compared to those who continued to smoke. Treatment implications of these results are discussed and include offers of alternative treatments if short-term abstinence is not achieved following physician advice.

A population survey in Ontario regarding restrictive measures on smoking: relationship of smoking status to knowledge, attitudes and predicted behaviour.

A population survey of Ontario residents regarding knowledge of the health effects of smoking, attitudes towards restrictive measures, and predicted behaviour was carried out. Telephone responses of 490 current, 290 former, and 581 never smokers were compared. For both active and passive smoking, never smokers were most knowledgeable about health effects, former smokers being less knowledgeable, and current smokers least so. While a majority of each smoking status group supported some restriction on smoking in all 13 settings examined, there were consistent differences among the groups as to degree. Never and former smokers were in close agreement and were more restrictive in their attitudes than current smokers. Prohibition was more strongly favoured by all groups for health and day care facilities, schools, stores, and local transit systems than for other settings. While a majority of smokers thought there would be compliance with restrictions, non-smokers were less optimistic. Smokers were less likely than non-smokers to see a role for governments in enactment; municipal involvement was favoured over other levels by all groups. No group indicated much support for enforcement by police. These findings remained when multivariate analyses controlling for inter-group differences in sociodemographic characteristics were carried out.

A questionnaire to evaluate disability in osteoporotic patients with vertebral compression fractures.

BACKGROUND: Few studies have reported on the functional disability due to vertebral compression factors in osteoporosis. The Osteoporosis Functional Disability Questionnaire (OFDQ) was developed to assess disability in patients with osteoporosis and back pain due to vertebral fractures. The domains of the OFDQ include: quantitative indices of pain, a standard 20-item depression scale, 26 items relating to functional abilities, a scale of social activities, and confidence in the ability of prescribed osteoporosis treatment to reverse disability. METHODS: Reliability of the OFDQ was assessed using test-retest and internal consistency methods. Criterion validity was demonstrated by correlating disability against radiographic evidence of vertebral fractures. Construct validity was demonstrated through comparisons of 81 patients with osteoporosis and fractures to 37 healthy age-matched controls. Additional evidence was found in comparing 45 of the 81 cases who were actively engaged in an exercise program with 36 cases who were sedentary. RESULTS: The test-retest reliabilities ranged from .76 to .93, with internal consistencies from .57 to .96. The OFDQ correlated significantly with relevant spinal pathology, and showed significant improvements in activities of daily living and socialization when active exercisers were compared to inactive patients with osteoporosis. CONCLUSIONS: The OFDQ is a reliable instrument which correlates well with objective measures of osteoporotic spinal damage. It is also sensitive to changes in disability brought about by participation in our aerobic exercise program. The OFDQ may be a useful adjunct to measuring outcomes in other osteoporotic treatment protocols.

Infectious disease patterns in the Waorani, an isolated Amerindian population.

The Waorani Indians of eastern Ecuador provide a unique opportunity for studying exposure of an isolated human population to various infectious disease agents. Using serologic tests to determine antibody prevalence, skin test data, and stool examination for parasites, we have been able to construct a profile of infectious diseases which are endemic, and others which have been introduced into the Waorani population. These findings are compared with similar data reported from elsewhere in the Amazon. Serologic studies demonstrating the presence of antibody to measles and poliovirus type 3 after vaccination indicate that the Waorani respond normally to viral challenge with these agents. The question of genetic inability among aboriginal Amerindians to respond to viral agents is discussed. Finally, general recommendations are made regarding the future health care of the Waorani.

Support among smokers and nonsmokers for restrictions on smoking.

The responses of 387 smokers and 988 nonsmokers obtained in a population-based survey in Ontario, Canada, were compared with regard to knowledge, attitudes, and predicted behavior concerning restrictions on smoking. Responses were tabulated as percentages and weighted according to the sample design. Nonoverlapping 95% confidence intervals provided evidence to reject the null hypothesis. Although smokers were found to be less knowledgable about the health effects of smoking and environmental tobacco smoke, more than 90% of both smokers and nonsmokers agreed with restrictions on smoking in 14 specific settings; for some settings, they disagreed on the extent of restrictions. The groups differed concerning specific bans on cigarette sales, but support was uniformly strong for bans in hospitals, controls on vending machines, and enforcement of the law prohibiting sales to minors. Clear majorities of both groups agreed that local government should enact and enforce restrictions. Smokers were more likely than nonsmokers to predict that smokers would comply with more restrictions, and most smokers indicated that they, themselves, would comply. We conclude that general health education should be bolstered by strategies specifically targeted at smokers. There is a strong basis across the population for restrictions to reduce exposure to environmental tobacco smoke; support for the role of local government in this regard is clear. Noncompliance with more restrictions is unlikely to present enforcement problems. Measures limiting the physical access of youths to tobacco will be widely supported, but strategies to increase support for tax measures are needed.