European Council of Legal Medicine (ECLM) principles for on-site forensic and medico-legal scene and corpse investigation.

Forensic medical practitioners need to define the general principles governing procedures to be used for the on-site examination of a body where the death has occurred in unnatural, violent or suspicious circumstances. These principles should be followed whenever a medical expert is required to perform an on-site corpse inspection and should be utilised as a set of general guidelines to be adapted to the specific situation in hand and interpreted using common sense and scientific knowledge of the relevant procedures and facts of the case. The aim of these principles is to ensure that forensic evidence at the scene of a death is properly observed and assessed and all necessary relevant evidence gathered in order to ensure that a comprehensive report is available to the judicial authority (investigating judge or coroner) in the justice system. The on-site corpse inspection by a forensic practitioner is a mandatory and essential stage of the forensic and medico-legal autopsy, as it may provide important information for subsequent investigation stages.

Whiplash-Associated Disorders : Clinical and medico-legal guidelines on the methods of ascertainment.

The manuscript presents the International Guidelines developed by the Working Group on Personal Injury and Damage under the patronage of the International Academy of Legal Medicine (IALM) regarding the Methods of Ascertainment of any suspected Whiplash-Associated Disorders (WAD).The document includes a detailed description of the logical and methodological steps of the ascertainment process as well as a synoptic diagram in the form of Flow Chart.

Is the timing of caloric intake associated with variation in diet-induced thermogenesis and in the metabolic pattern? A randomized cross-over study.

BACKGROUND/OBJECTIVES: Food-induced thermogenesis is generally reported to be higher in the morning, although contrasting results exist because of differences in experimental settings related to the preceding fasting, exercise, sleeping and dieting. To definitively answer to this issue, we compared the calorimetric and metabolic responses to identical meals consumed at 0800 hours and at 2000 hours by healthy volunteers, after standardized diet, physical activity, duration of fast and resting. SUBJECTS/METHODS: Twenty subjects (age range 20-35 years, body mass index=19-26 kg m(-)(2)) were enrolled to a randomized cross-over trial. They randomly received the same standard meal in the morning and, 7 days after, in the evening, or vice versa. A 30-min basal calorimetry was performed; a further 60-min calorimetry was done 120-min after the beginning of the meal. Blood samples were drawn every 30-min for 180-min. General linear models, adjusted for period and carry-over, were used to evaluate the 'morning effect', that is, the difference of morning delta (after-meal minus fasting values) minus evening delta (after-meal minus fasting values) of the variables. RESULTS: Fasting resting metabolic rate (RMR) did not change from morning to evening; after-meal RMR values were significantly higher after the morning meal (1916; 95% confidence interval (CI)=1792, 2041 vs 1756; 1648, 1863 kcal; P<0.001). RMR was significantly increased after the morning meal (90.5; 95% CI=40.4, 140.6 kcal; P<0.001), whereas differences in areas-under-the-curve for glucose (-1800; -2564,-1036 mg dl(-1) × h, P<0.001), log-insulin (-0.19; -0.30,-0.07 µU ml(-1) × h; P=0.001) and fatty free acid concentrations (-16.1;-30.0,-2.09 mmol l(-1) × h; P=0.024) were significantly lower. Delayed and larger increases in glucose and insulin concentrations were found after the evening meals. CONCLUSIONS: The same meal consumed in the evening determined a lower RMR, and increased glycemic/insulinemic responses, suggesting circadian variations in the energy expenditure and metabolic pattern of healthy individuals. The timing of meals should probably be considered when nutritional recommendations are given.

Physical exercise for late-life major depression.

BACKGROUND: Interventions including physical exercise may help improve the outcomes of late-life major depression, but few studies are available. AIMS: To investigate whether augmenting sertraline therapy with physical exercise leads to better outcomes of late-life major depression. METHOD: Primary care patients (465 years) with major depression were randomised to 24 weeks of higher-intensity, progressive aerobic exercise plus sertraline (S+PAE), lower-intensity, non-progressive exercise plus sertraline (S+NPE) and sertraline alone. The primary outcome was remission (a score of ≤10 on the Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression). RESULTS: A total of 121 patients were included. At study end, 45% of participants in the sertraline group, 73% of those in the S+NPE group and 81% of those in the S+PAE group achieved remission (P = 0.001). A shorter time to remission was observed in the S+PAE group than in the sertraline-only group. CONCLUSIONS: Physical exercise may be a safe and effective augmentation to antidepressant therapy in late-life major depression.

Sensitivity and specificity of EtG in hair as a marker of chronic excessive drinking: pooled analysis of raw data and meta-analysis of diagnostic accuracy studies.

BACKGROUND: To assess the debated diagnostic performance of ethyl glucuronide in the 3-cm proximal scalp hair fraction (HEtG) as a marker of chronic excessive drinking. METHODS: In July 2012/May 2013, after a systematic search through the MEDLINE, OVID/EMBASE, WEB OF SCIENCE, and SCOPUS databases, 8 studies were included in the pooled analysis that report raw single data on HEtG concentration and self-reported daily alcohol intake (SDAI). A receiver operating characteristic curve analysis and a Spearman rank-order correlation test were used. A meta-analysis was performed following the Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analyses and Cochrane recommendations, comprising quality and bias assessments. RESULTS: The pooled analysis showed that 30 pg/mg could be a useful cutoff value for HEtG to detect an SDAI >60 g/d and demonstrated a parabolic direct correlation between HEtG and SDAI data [rho 0.79; 95% confidence interval (CI), 0.69-0.87; P < 0.001]. The meta-analysis found an overall HEtG sensitivity of 0.96 (95% CI, 0.72-1.00) and a specificity of 0.99 (95% CI, 0.92-1.00); a nomogram to predict the posttest probability of exhibiting the targeted condition in the general population was built. Significant variability among the included studies was detected, which was mainly explained by true heterogeneity in the presence of publication bias. CONCLUSIONS: With the available data, we conclude that HEtG is a promising marker for identifying chronic excessive drinking. Nonetheless, larger and well-designed population studies are required to draw any definitive conclusions on the significance and appropriateness of its application in the forensic setting.

Micro-CT features of intermediate gunshot wounds severely damaged by fire.

Incineration or extensive burning of the body, causing changes in the content and distribution of fluids, fixation and shrinking processes of tissues, can alter the typical macroscopic and microscopic characteristics of firearm wounds, hampering or at least complicating the reconstruction of gunshot fatalities. The present study aims at evaluating the potential role of micro-computed tomography (micro-CT) for detecting and quantifying gunshot residue (GSR) particles in experimentally produced intermediate-range gunshot wounds severely damaged by fire. Eighteen experimental shootings were performed on 18 sections of human calves surgically amputated for medical reasons at three different firing distances (5, 15 and 30 cm). Six stab wounds produced with an ice pick were used as controls. Each calf section underwent a charring cycle, being placed in a wood-burning stove for 4 min at a temperature of 400 °C. At visual inspection, the charred entrance wounds could not be differentiated from the exit lesions and the stab wounds. On the contrary, micro-CT analysis showed the presence of GSR particles in all burnt entrance gunshot wounds, while GSR was absent in the exit and stab wounds. The GSR deposits of the firearm lesions inflicted at very close distance (5 cm) were mainly constituted of huge particles (diameter >150 µm) with an irregular shape and well-delineated edges; at greater distances (15 and 30 cm), agglomerates of tiny radiopaque particles scattered in the epidermis and dermis layers were evident. Statistical analysis demonstrated that also in charred firearm wounds the amount of GSR roughly correlates with the distance from which the gun was fired. The obtained results suggest that micro-CT analysis can be a valid screening tool for identifying entrance gunshot wounds and for differentiating firearm wounds from sharp-force injuries in bodies severely damaged by fire.

Prevalence of sleep disturbances in mild cognitive impairment and dementing disorders: a multicenter Italian clinical cross-sectional study on 431 patients.

BACKGROUND/AIMS: Sleep disturbances are common in the elderly and in persons with cognitive decline. The aim of this study was to describe frequency and characteristics of insomnia, excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep-disordered breathing, REM behavior disorder and restless legs syndrome in a large cohort of persons with mild cognitive impairment or dementia. METHODS: 431 consecutive patients were enrolled in 10 Italian neurological centers: 204 had Alzheimer's disease, 138 mild cognitive impairment, 43 vascular dementia, 25 frontotemporal dementia and 21 Lewy body dementia or Parkinson's disease dementia. Sleep disorders were investigated with a battery of standardized questions and questionnaires. RESULTS: Over 60% of persons had one or more sleep disturbances almost invariably associated one to another without any evident and specific pattern of co-occurrence. Persons with Alzheimer's disease and those with mild cognitive impairment had the same frequency of any sleep disorder. Sleep-disordered breathing was more frequent in vascular dementia. REM behavior disorder was more represented in Lewy body or Parkinson's disease dementia. CONCLUSION: A careful clinical evaluation of sleep disorders should be performed routinely in the clinical setting of persons with cognitive decline. Instrumental supports should be used only in selected patients.

Psychic trauma as cause of death.

AIM: of study Psychic trauma is described as the action of 'an emotionally overwhelming factor' capable of causing neurovegetative alterations leading to transitory or persisting bodily changes. The medico-legal concept of psychic trauma and its definition as a cause in penal cases is debated. The authors present three cases of death after psychic trauma, and discuss the definition of cause within the penal ambit of identified 'emotionally overwhelming factors'. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The methodological approach to ascertainment and criterion-based assessment in each case involved the following phases: (1) examination of circumstantial evidence, clinical records and documentation; (2) autopsy; (3) ascertainment of cause of death; and (4) ascertainment of psychic trauma, and its coexisting relationship with the cause of death. RESULTS: The results and assessment of each of the three cases are discussed from the viewpoint of the causal connotation of psychic trauma. In the cases presented, psychic trauma caused death, as deduced from assessment of the type of externally caused emotional insult, the subjects' personal characteristics and the circumstances of the event causing death. CONCLUSIONS: In cases of death due to psychic trauma, careful methodological ascertainment is essential, with the double aim of defining 'emotionally overwhelming factors' as a significant cause of death from the penal point of view, and of identifying the responsibility of third parties involved in the death event and associated dynamics of homicide.

Morbidity of teeth in the line of the fracture.

AIM: Management of a jaw fracture in which a tooth lies in the fracture line is controversial. In the past, teeth were generally removed because they were thought to be the cause of infections or locus minoris resistentiae. To provide a better indication in the management of teeth in the fracture line and the relate complications we retrospectively reviewed the files particularly in relation to treatment options. METHODS: From 1999 to 2009 a total of 478 patients with jaw fracture were observed at the Maxillofacial Department of the University "Federico II" of Naples. RESULTS: In 63 cases the fracture involved the angle of the mandible and in 48 a tooth lay in the fracture line. Of the 48 teeth in the fracture line, 14 were removed for various causes. Surgical treatment consisted of fracture reduction and fixation by titanium plates and screws. CONCLUSION: We suggest few guiding lines in the management of teeth in fracture lines that need to be extracted only in particular conditions. Finally there are few cases of later dental complications that can affect the teeth in the fracture line after the osseous healing process of the fractures. These cases require a follow-up of three-six months, and the treatment is the same commonly described in Literature for dental trauma.

Physical Exercise for Late-Life Major Depression.

(Reprinted with permission from Br J Psychiatry 2005; 207: 235-242).

Forensic application of ESEM and XRF-EDS techniques to a fatal case of sodium phosphate enema intoxication.

Sodium phosphate enemas and laxatives are widely used for the treatment of constipation, even if a number of cases of significant toxicity due to alterations of the fluid and electrolyte equilibria (hypernatremia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia) have been reported. We present the case of an 83-year-old man who died of fecal and chemical peritonitis secondary to an iatrogenic colon perforation (produced performing a Fleet enema through the patient's iliac colostomy) with peritoneal absorption of sodium phosphate. Environmental scanning electron microscopy coupled with an X-ray fluorescence energy dispersive spectrometry discovered multiple bright crystals formed of calcium, phosphorus, and oxygen in the brain, heart, lung, and kidney sections of the victim. The absence of these kinds of precipitates in two control samples chronically treated with Fleet enemas led us to assume that the deceased had adsorbed a great quantity of phosphorus ions from the peritoneal cavity with subsequent systemic dissemination and precipitation of calcium phosphate bindings.

Selective stroke of the solitary tract nuclei in two cases of central sleep apnoea.

Central sleep apnoea (CSA) is a breathing disorder characterized by repetitive central apnoeas with hypoxia interrupted by hyperventilation phases. In the literature, there are reports of CSA caused by brainstem infarcts. We report two patients (38 and 53 years old) with longstanding history of central sleep apnoea who died during sleep. In both cases the autopsy revealed acute bilateral hypoxic lesions at the level of the solitary tract nuclei. In one case, symmetrical selective neuronal necrosis was found in the dorsal part of the solitary tract nuclei. A chronic obstructive vasculopathy was also found, with thickening and fibrosis of the smallest vessels of the medullary tegmentum. In the other case, bilateral infarctions were found with the base at the ependymal lining of the 4th ventricle floor and the apex towards the solitary tract. An acute intramural hemorrhagic lesion in the premedullary segment of the left vertebral artery was also found. Episodes of hypoxemic hypoxia during sleep may worsen the effects of focal oligohemic hypoxia in the medullary tegmentum. Selective stroke of the solitary tract nuclei may be the acute fatal lesion in patients with both central sleep apnoea and lesions of the vertebro-basilar system. To the best of our knowledge, this is the first neuropathologic report of acute medullary ischemic-hypoxic lesions which may not be considered the cause of the CSA because of their recent onset. Our findings suggest that CSA, besides being caused by ischemic events at the level of the medulla, may also contribute to pathogenesis of strokes, through hypoxia or hemodynamic oscillations.

Frontal sinus osteoma and palpebral abscess: case report.

Osteomas of the paranasal sinuses are slow-growing, benign tumours most frequently found in the frontal sinus with an incidence that varies from 47% to 80% of the cases; there are often no symptoms and they are diagnosed by chance during an x-ray examination. The symptoms are usually headaches and those secondary to ocular or neurological complications. The therapy to be preferred is surgery. The authors describe a case of frontal osteoma complicated by frontal sinusitis and palpebral abscess.

Diagnostic prostate biopsy performed in a non-academic center increases the risk of re-classification at confirmatory biopsy for men considering active surveillance for prostate cancer.

BACKGROUND: To examine whether diagnostic biopsy (B1), for patients on active surveillance (AS) for prostate cancer, performed at an outside referral centre (external) compared with our in-house tertiary center (internal), increased the risk of re-classification on the second (confirmatory) biopsy (B2). METHODS: Patients on AS were identified from our tertiary center database (1997-2012) with PSA<10, Gleason sum (GS) ⩽6, clinical stage ⩽cT2, ⩽3 positive cores, <50% of single core involved, age ⩽75 years and having a B2. Patients who had <10 cores at B1 and delay in B2 >24 mo were excluded. Depending on center where B1 was performed, men were dichotomized to internal or external groups. All B2 were performed internally. Multivariate logistic regression examined if external B1 was a predictor of re-classification at B2. RESULTS: A total of 375 patients were divided into external (n=71, 18.9%) and internal groups (n=304, 81.1%). At B2, more men in the external group re-classified (26.8%) compared with the internal group (13.8%) (P=0.008). On multivariate analysis, external B1 predicted grade-related re-classification (odds ratio (OR) 4.14, confidence interval (CI) 2.01-8.54, P<0.001) and volume-related re-classification (OR 3.43, CI 1.87-6.25, P<0.001). Other significant predictors for grade-related re-classification were age (OR 2.13 per decade, CI 1.32-3.57, P<0.001), PSA density (OR 2.56 per unit, CI 1.44-4.73, P<0.001), maximum % core involvement (OR 1.04 per percentage point, CI 1.01-1.09, P=0.02) and time between B1 and B2 (OR 1.43 per 6 months, CI 1.21-1.71, P<0.001). CONCLUSION: At our institution, patients on AS who had their initial B1 performed externally were more likely to have adverse pathological features and re-classify on internal B2.

Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid for treatment of opiate withdrawal syndrome.

In a double-blind placebo-controlled trial, gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB) (25 mg/kg orally) suppressed most of the withdrawal symptomatology in 14 heroin addicts and 13 methadone-maintained subjects. The GHB effect was prompt (within 15 minutes) and persisted for between 2 and 3 hours. Subsequently, the same patients received GHB in an open study every 2 to 4 hours for the first 2 days and 4 to 6 hours for the following 6 days: most abstinence signs and symptoms remained suppressed and patients reported felling well. Urine analysis failed to detect any presence of opiate metabolites. No withdrawal symptomatology recurred after 8 days of treatment when GHB was suspended, and patients were challenged with an intravenous injection of 0.4 mg naloxone. The results indicate that GHB may be useful in the management of opiate withdrawal.

A novel B cell stimulation/proliferation assay using simultaneous flow cytometric detection of cell surface markers and DNA content.

Assessment of the specific B cell proliferative response by thymidine incorporation following polyclonal stimulation (e.g. with pokeweed mitogen or B cell growth factor) is problematic whenever the proportion of B cells in a particular sample is low as in blood samples. Here we describe a simple assay consisting of identifying the cultured B cells with anti-CD19/CD20 fluorescein-conjugated antibody and simultaneously using propidium iodide DNA staining to determine the percent of S/G2/M phase cells among the gated B cells. This assay can be used to determine B cell responsiveness even in individuals with very low blood B cell counts (e.g., in recipients of bone marrow transplant), does not require laborious B cell purifications and does not involve radiation hazard.

Binding of the radioligand [3H]-SCH 58261, a new non-xanthine A2A adenosine receptor antagonist, to rat striatal membranes.

1. The present study describes the binding to rat striatal A2A adenosine receptors of the new potent and selective antagonist radioligand, [3H]-5-amino-7-(2-phenylethyl)-2-(2-furyl)-pyrazolo[4,3-e]-1,2,4-triazol o [1,5-c] pyrimidine, [3H]-SCH 58261. 2. [3H]-SCH 58261 specific binding to rat striatal membranes ( > 90%) was saturable, reversible and dependent upon protein concentration. Saturation experiments revealed that [3H]-SCH 58261 labelled a single class of recognition sites with high affinity (Kd = 0.70 nM) and limited capacity (apparent Bmax = 971 fmol mg-1 of protein). The presence of 100 microM GTP in the incubation mixture did not modify [3H]-SCH 58261 binding parameters. 3. Competition experiments showed that [3H]-SCH 58261 binding is consistent with the labelling of A2A striatal receptors. Adenosine receptor agonists competed with the binding of 0.2 nM [3H]-SCH 58261 with the following order of potency: 2-hexynyl-5'-N-ethyl carboxamidoadenosine (2HE-NECA) > 5'-N-ethylcarboxamidoadenosine (NECA) > 2-[4-(2-carboxyethyl)-phenethylamino]-5'-N-ethylcarboxamidoadenosi ne (CGS 21680) > 2-phenylaminoadenosine (CV 1808) > R-N6-phenylisopropyladenosine (R-PIA) > N6-cyclohexyladenosine (CHA) = 2-chloro-N6-cyclopentyladenosine (CCPA) > S-N6-phenylisopropyladenosine (S-PIA). 4. Adenosine antagonists inhibited [3H]-SCH 58261 binding with the following order: 5-amino-9-chloro-2-(2-furyl)-[1,2,4]-triazolo[1,5-c] quinazoline (CGS 15943) > 5-amino-8-(4-fluorobenzyl)-2-(2-furyl)-pyrazolo [4,3-e]-1,2,4-triazolo [1,5-c] pyrimidine (8FB-PTP) = SCH 58261 > xanthine amine congener (XAC) = (E,18%-Z,82%)7-methyl-8-(3,4-dimethoxystyryl)-1,3-dipropylxanthine (KF 17837S) > 8-cyclopentyl-1,3-dipropylxanthine (DPCPX) > or = 8-phenyltheophylline (8-PT). 5. The Ki values for adenosine antagonists were similar to those labelled with the A2A agonist [3H]-CGS 21680. Affinities of agonists were generally lower. The A1-selective agonist, R-PIA, was found to be about 9 fold more potent than its stereoisomer, S-PIA, thus showing the stereoselectivity of [3H]-SCH 58261 binding. Except for 8-PT, the adenosine agonists and antagonists examined inhibited [3H]-SCH 58261 binding with Hill coefficients not significantly different from unity. 6. The present results indicate that [3H]-SCH 58261 is the first non-xanthine adenosine antagonist radioligand which directly labels A2A striatal receptors. High receptor affinity, good selectivity and very low non-specific binding make [3H]-SCH 58261 an excellent probe for studying the A2A adenosine receptor subtype in mammalian brain.

B cell reconstitution after human bone marrow transplantation: recapitulation of ontogeny?

Patients undergoing BMT have a long-lasting defect of B cell-mediated immunity, especially if chronic GVHD ensues. It has been postulated that the post-transplant B cell abnormalities can be explained by the recapitulation of B cell ontogeny. To test this hypothesis, we studied the quantitative and phenotypic reconstitution of circulating B cells in 24 transplant recipients and compared it with normal ontogeny. The results confirm that a second round of ontogeny occurs in transplant recipients without chronic GVHD. This was evidenced by the pattern of quantitative B cell reconstitution (low-->high-->normal B cell counts), large B cell size and a high proportion of B cells overexpressing CD38, membrane IgM (mIgM) and membrane IgD (mIgD). The recapitulation of ontogeny was blunted in most patients with chronic GVHD, as evidenced by the absence of the overshoot of total B cells and by the relative lack of CD38high, mIgMhigh and mIgDhigh B cells. We conclude the post-transplant B cell development in patients without chronic GVHD parallels ontogeny. The limited ability of patients with chronic GVHD to re-enact B cell ontogeny may contribute to their longer-lasting and more severe humoral immunodeficiency.