Detection of in-stent protrusion (ISP) by intravascular ultrasound during carotid stenting: Usefulness of stent-in-stent placement for ISP.

OBJECTIVES: As in-stent protrusion (ISP) during carotid artery stenting (CAS) may cause postoperative embolism, ISP detection is important. Intravascular ultrasound examination (IVUS) is useful for ISP detection because the blood vessel cross-section can be drawn as a tomogram from the lumen. Our objective was to clarify the occurrence of ISP during CAS using IVUS and relevant factors, and to report the usefulness of stent-in-stent placement when treating ISP. METHODS: In 142 consecutive patients (128 men, average age 71.7 years; 69 symptomatic) who underwent CAS using dual protection and the blood aspiration method, and subsequent IVUS after stent placement were included. The outcome of CAS, and the occurrence rate of ISP and related factors (plaque characteristics, stent design, intraoperative debris capture rate and postoperative diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI) positive rate) were examined. RESULTS: All CAS procedures were successful and no major adverse events (MAEs) were observed at 30 days. ISP was found in 12% (17/142), and stent-in-stent placement was performed in all cases. Vulnerable plaques were observed in 12 of 17 ISP cases (71%). A closed stent was used in 13 of 17 ISP cases (71%). The intraoperative debris capture rate was 100%, and no neurological symptoms were observed in any patients. A significant increase in ISP susceptibility was related to vulnerable plaques and the intraoperative debris capture rate. CONCLUSIONS: Vulnerable plaques and debris capture were significantly correlated with ISP occurrence. In all ISP cases, stent-in-stent placement was performed and good results were obtained. KEY POINTS: • ISP detection during CAS using IVUS is important. • ISP-positive patients were correlated with NASCET ≥ 80%, vulnerable plaques and stent length. • Adequate additional treatment of stent in stenting under reliable protection against ISP-positive patients achieved low perioperative complications.

Superantigenic activity of toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 is resistant to heating and digestive enzymes.

AIMS: To elucidate the stability of superantigenic activity and pathogenesis of toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 (TSST-1) and staphylococcal enterotoxin A (SEA) against heating and digestive enzymes. METHODS AND RESULTS: Purified TSST-1 and SEA were treated with heating, pepsin and trypsin that are related to food cooking, stomach and intestine conditions. The integrity, superantigenic activity and toxicity of treated TSST-1 and SEA were analysed by Western blotting, spleen cell culture, cytokine assay and toxic shock models. Both TSST-1 and SEA showed strong resistance to heating, pepsin and trypsin digestion. Furthermore, the treated TSST-1 showed significant higher induction of interferon-γ and toxic shock compared with that of SEA. Pepsin- or trypsin-digested TSST-1 fragments still showed significant superantigenic and lethal shock toxicities. CONCLUSIONS: The superantigenic activity of TSST-1 was stable to heating and digestive enzymes. Pepsin- and trypsin-digested TSST-1 fragments still showed superantigenic and lethal shock activities, indicating that digested TSST-1 could cross epithelial cells and induce systemic toxicity. SIGNIFICANCE AND IMPACT OF THE STUDY: This study found, for the first time, that pepsin- or trypsin-digested smaller TSST-1 retained significant superantigenic and lethal shock activities. The different resistance of TSST-1 and SEA participates in the different pathogenic activities during food poisoning and toxic shock syndrome.

Statin-independent prognosis of patients with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma receiving rituximab plus CHOP therapy.

BACKGROUND: A recent laboratory study indicated that statins impaired the antitumor effects of rituximab by inducing conformational changes in CD20. Although these findings raised significant concerns about statin use during rituximab treatment, their clinical significance is unclear. PATIENTS AND METHODS: We conducted a retrospective study investigating the effects of statins on the prognosis of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) treated with rituximab plus cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone (RCHOP). Newly diagnosed DLBCL patients were analyzed (n = 256), including 35 patients taking statins. RESULTS: The 3-year progression-free survival rates were 84% and 73% (P = 0.38), while the overall survival rates were 89% and 78% (P = 0.28) for those patients treated with and without statins, respectively. After adjusting for the International Prognostic Index and serum cholesterol level, statin use was not associated with prognosis. CONCLUSIONS: These results indicate that statins do not influence the clinical prognosis of DLBCL treated with RCHOP. Further studies with larger numbers of patients are warranted to confirm the prognostic significance of statins for patients with DLBCL receiving rituximab-containing chemotherapy.

Risk evaluation for staphylococcal food poisoning in processed milk produced with skim milk powder.

The growth of S. aureus and the production of staphylococcal enterotoxin A (SEA) in skim milk concentrates stored at inappropriate temperatures in a recovery milk tank (tank for excess concentrated skim milk) used in the manufacture of skimmed milk powder were investigated. Also, it was estimated if a possible outbreak of food poisoning would occur if the contaminated skimmed milk powder was used in the manufacture of processed milk. Skim milk concentrates with milk solid content of 15, 25, and 35% were inoculated with S. aureus at 1-2 log CFU/ml and incubated at 15, 25, or 35 degrees C for 0 to 24 h with or without shaking. Bacterial growth and the level of SEA production were measured. At 35 degrees C with shaking, there was a significant difference (p<0.05) in one way layout analysis of variance, and it was demonstrated that the growth of S. aureus and SEA production could be milk solid content-dependent. Shaking accelerated the growth of S. aureus and SEA production at 35 degrees C. Generally, skim milk powder is produced by mixing a set percentage of skim milk concentrates (recovery milk) from the recovery milk tank into raw milk. If recovery milk contaminated with S. aureus at levels of 1-2 log CFU/ml is kept at 15 to 35 degrees C due to a power failure, it was estimated that processed milk consumption of 670-1200 ml, 420-1500 ml and 18-83 ml would trigger the onset of food poisoning symptoms when skim milk concentrates (recovery milk) are stored at 25 degrees C for 24 h, 35 degrees C for 10 h, and 35 degrees C for 24 h, respectively, during the production of the skim milk powder. Based on these consumption levels, it was concluded that, if recovery milk cannot be refrigerated and is stored at room temperature (25 to 35 degrees C), it must be used within 8 h and preferably within 6 h.

Dominant negative isoform of the Ikaros gene in patients with adult B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia.

Gene targeting studies in mice have shown that the transcription factor Ikaros plays an essential role in lymphoid development and as a tumor suppressor in T cells, whereas the related gene Aiolos functions as a tumor suppressor in B cells. We analyzed the expression levels of the Ikaros gene family, Ikaros and Aiolos, in human bone marrow samples from patients with adult acute lymphoblastic leukemia [ALL (n = 46; B-cell ALL = 41; T-cell ALL = 5)]. Overexpression of the dominant negative isoform of Ikaros gene Ik-6 was observed in 14 of 41 B-cell ALL patients by reverse transcription-PCR, and the results were confirmed by sequencing analysis and immunoblotting. None of the other dominant negative isoforms of the Ikaros gene were detected by reverse transcription-PCR analysis. Southern blotting analysis with PstI digestion revealed that those patients with the dominant negative isoform Ik-6 might have small mutations in the Ikaros locus. We did not detect any overexpression of dominant negative isoforms of Aiolos in adult ALL patients. These results suggest that Ikaros plays a key role in human B-cell malignancies through the dominant negative isoform Ik-6.

Effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibition on the development of the atrial fibrillation substrate in dogs with ventricular tachypacing-induced congestive heart failure.

BACKGROUND: Atrial structural remodeling creates a substrate for atrial fibrillation (AF), but the underlying signal transduction mechanisms are unknown. This study assessed the effects of ACE inhibition on arrhythmogenic atrial remodeling and associated mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) changes in a dog model of congestive heart failure (CHF). METHODS AND RESULTS: Dogs were subjected to various durations of ventricular tachypacing (VTP, 220 to 240 bpm) in the presence or absence of oral enalapril 2 mg. kg(-1). d(-1). VTP for 5 weeks induced CHF, local atrial conduction slowing, and interstitial fibrosis and prolonged atrial burst pacing-induced AF. Atrial angiotensin II concentrations and MAPK expression were increased by tachypacing, with substantial changes in phosphorylated forms of c-Jun N-terminal kinase (JNK), extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK), and p38-kinase. Enalapril significantly reduced tachypacing-induced changes in atrial angiotensin II concentrations and ERK expression. Enalapril also attenuated the effects of CHF on atrial conduction (conduction heterogeneity index reduced from 3.1+/-0.4 to 1.9+/-0.2 ms/mm, P<0.05), atrial fibrosis (from 11.9+/-1.1% to 7.5+/-0.4%, P<0.01), and mean AF duration (from 651+/-164 to 218+/-75 seconds, P<0.05). Vasodilator therapy of a separate group of VTP dogs with hydralazine and isosorbide mononitrate did not alter CHF-induced fibrosis or AF promotion. CONCLUSIONS: CHF-induced increases in angiotensin II content and MAPK activation contribute to arrhythmogenic atrial structural remodeling. ACE inhibition interferes with signal transduction leading to the AF substrate in CHF and may represent a useful new component to AF therapy.

Determination of refractory periods and conduction velocity during atrial fibrillation using atrial capture in dogs: direct assessment of the wavelength and its modulation by a sodium channel blocker, pilsicainide.

OBJECTIVES: The purposes of this study were to measure the atrial refractory period and the conduction velocity (CV) during atrial fibrillation (AF) and to explore the antiarrhythmic mechanism of a sodium channel blocker, pilsicainide, during AF. BACKGROUND: Sodium channel blockers not only decrease the CV, but also prolong the atrial refractory period, particularly during rapid excitation. Because these effects on the wavelength are counteractive and rate dependent, it is critical to measure these parameters during AF. METHODS: In eight dogs, after AF was induced under vagal stimulation, a single extra-stimulus was repeatedly introduced from the left atrium and its capture was statistically determined for each coupling interval. The local CV was also measured during constant capture of the fibrillating atrium by rapid pacing. The same procedure was repeated after pilsicainide administration. RESULTS: Pilsicainide significantly increased the mode of AF intervals from 81 +/- 10 to 107 +/- 16 ms (p < 0.01). While the CV was decreased from 0.9 +/- 0.1 to 0.7 +/- 0.1 m/s (p < 0.02), the effective refractory period during AF was increased from 69 +/- 11 ms to 99 +/- 17 ms (p < 0.01). As a result, the wavelength was significantly increased by pilsicainide from 6.6 +/- 0.9 to 7.6 +/- 1.2 cm (p < 0.05). CONCLUSIONS: During AF, whereas the sodium channel blocker pilsicainide decreases CV, it lengthens the wavelength by increasing the refractory period, an action that is likely to contribute to the drug's ability to terminate the arrhythmia. The direct measurement of refractoriness and CV during AF may provide new insights into the determinations of the arrhythmia and antiarrhythmic drug action.

Risk factors for proliferative vitreoretinopathy.

Proliferative vitreoretinopathy (PVR) is one of the major causes of failure in retinal detachment surgery. To prevent PVR, it is necessary to determine factors predisposing its development. In primary PVR, large retinal tears, long duration of retinal detachment, vitreous hemorrhages, aphakia and choroidal detachment were demonstrated as clinical risk factors for PVR. In postoperative PVR, it was revealed that large breaks, pre- and postoperative choroidal detachment, minor intra- or postoperative hemorrhages, signs of uveitis, extensive retinal detachment, vitrectomy, cryopexy, air injection and preoperative PVR were risk factors for PVR by multivariate analysis. Almost all risk factors for PVR are associated with intravitreal dispersion of retinal pigment epithelial (RPE) cells or breakdown of the blood-ocular barrier which are prerequisite to development of PVR.

The percentage of myeloperoxidase-positive blast cells is a strong independent prognostic factor in acute myeloid leukemia, even in the patients with normal karyotype.

To examine whether the percentage of myeloperoxidase (MPO)-positive blast cells is useful as a prognostic factor for acute myeloid leukemia (AML), cytochemical analysis of MPO was performed in 491 patients who were registered to the Japan Adult Leukemia Study Group-AML92 study. Patients were divided into two using the percentage of MPO-positive blast (high [>or=50%] and low (<50%)). Complete remission rates were 85.4% in the former and 64.1% in the latter (P=0.001). The overall survival (OS) and the disease-free survival (DFS) were significantly better in the high MPO group (48.3 vs 18.7% for OS, and 36.3 vs 20.1% for DFS, P<0.001, respectively). Multivariate analysis showed that both karyotype and the percentage of MPO-positive blast cells were equally important prognostic factors. The high MPO group still showed a better survival even when restricted to the intermediate chromosomal risk group or the patients with normal karyotype (P<0.001). The OS of patients with normal karyotype in the high MPO group was almost equal with that of the favorable chromosomal risk group. The percentage of MPO-positive blast cells is a simple and highly significant prognostic factor for AML patients, and especially useful to stratify patients with normal karyotype.

Prognostic significance of the null genotype of glutathione S-transferase-T1 in patients with acute myeloid leukemia: increased early death after chemotherapy.

We investigated the prognostic significance of genetic polymorphism in glutathione-S transferase mu 1 (GSTM1), glutathione-S transferase theta 1 (GSTT1), NAD(P)H:quinone oxidoreductase (NQO1) and myeloperoxidase (MPO), the products of which are associated with drug metabolism as well as with detoxication, in 193 patients with de novo acute myeloid leukemia (AML) other than M3. Of the patients, 64.2% were either homozygous or heterozygous for GSTT1 (GSTT1(+)), while 35.8% showed homozygous deletions of GSTT1 (GSTT1(-)). The GSTT1(-) group had a worse prognosis than the GSTT1(+) group (P = 0.04), whereas other genotypes did not affect the outcome. Multivariate analysis revealed that GSTT1(-) was an independent prognostic factor for overall survival (relative risk: 1.53; P = 0.026) but not for disease-free survival of 140 patients who achieved complete remission (CR). The rate of early death after the initiation of chemotherapy was higher in the GSTT1(-) group than the GSTT1(+) group (within 45 days after initial chemotherapy, P = 0.073; within 120 days, P = 0.028), whereas CR rates and relapse frequencies were similar. The null genotype of GSTT1 might be associated with increased toxicity after chemotherapy.

Induction therapy by frequent administration of doxorubicin with four other drugs, followed by intensive consolidation and maintenance therapy for adult acute lymphoblastic leukemia: the JALSG-ALL93 study.

In order to improve the disappointing prognosis of adult patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), we applied similar induction therapy as that used for acute myeloid leukemia (AML), ie frequent administration of doxorubicin (DOX). DOX 30 mg/m(2) was administered from days 1 to 3 and from days 8 to 10 together with vincristine, prednisolone, cyclophosphamide and L-asparaginase, followed by three courses of consolidation and four courses of intensification. From December 1993 to February 1997, 285 untreated adult patients with de novo ALL were entered. Of 263 evaluable patients (age 15 to 59; median 31), 205 (78%) obtained complete remission (CR). At a median follow-up period of 63 months, the predicted 6-year overall survival (OS) rate of all patients was 33%, and disease-free survival (DFS) rate of CR patients was 30%, respectively. By multivariate analysis, favorable prognostic factors for the achievement of CR were age <40 and WBC <50 000/microl; for longer OS were age <30 and WBC <30 000/microl; and for longer DFS of CR patients were FAB L1 and ALT <50 IU/l. Among 229 patients who had adequate cytogenetic data, 51 (22%) had Philadelphia (Ph) chromosome. Ph-negative chromosome was a common favorable prognostic factor for CR, longer OS and DFS. DFS was not different between early sequential intensification (n = 48) and intermittent intensification (n = 43) during the maintenance phase. Among CR patients under 40 years old, the 6-year survival was not different between the allocated related allo-BMT group (34 patients) and the allocated chemotherapy group (108 patients). However, among patients with Ph-positive ALL, the survival of patients who actually received allo-BMT was superior to that of patients who received chemotherapy (P = 0.046).

Ikaros expression in human hematopoietic lineages.

The Ikaros gene has been implicated in lymphoid development and proliferation from the results of gene targeting studies in mice. Recently we reported that the Ikaros gene may be involved in the disease progression of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). In this report, we investigated Ikaros isoforms in human non-lymphoid leukemia cell lines and normal granulocyte/macrophage (CFU-GM) and erythroid (BFU-E)-derived colonies. We evaluated Ikaros gene expression by RT-PCR, Southern blotting, sequencing analysis, Northern blotting, and immunoblotting.Ikaros isoforms Ik-1 and Ik-2, 3 were predominantly expressed in human non-lymphoid leukemia cell lines. Ik-4 and Ik-8 were also detectable as a minor population. In contrast to the previous report in mice, multiple Ikaros isoforms were expressed in human CFU-GM and BFU-E-derived colonies, and the dominant-negative isoform Ik-6 was not detectable. We also showed that human Ikaros isoforms contained an additional coding sequence in the N-terminal region, which was highly homologous to the sequence reported in mice. These observations suggest that the Ikaros gene may play some role in the development of human non-lymphoid lineage hematopoiesis. Moreover, the finding that the dominant-negative isoform Ik-6, which was overexpressed in patients with blast crisis of CML, was rarely detectable in non-lymphoid lineages supports its pathogenetic role in human hematologic malignancies.

Administration of granulocyte colony-stimulating factor induces hyporesponsiveness to lipopolysaccharide and impairs antigen-presenting function of peripheral blood monocytes.

OBJECTIVE: The incidence and severity of acute graft-vs-host disease after allogeneic transplantation of granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)-mobilized peripheral blood stem cells (PBSC) are not greater than those after conventional bone marrow transplantation despite infusion of more than one log greater number of donor T cells in PBSC. It has been postulated that monocytes from G-CSF-mobilized donors suppress alloreactivity of donor T cells. MATERIALS AND METHODS: We investigated the phenotype and function of monocytes in normal individuals receiving 10 microg/kg of G-CSF for 4 days. RESULTS: Monocytes were phenotypically and functionally different after G-CSF administration from steady-state monocytes. They were characterized by an increased CD14(+)CD16(+) subpopulation, reduced expression of HLA-DR, and diminished ability to produce tumor necrosis factor-alpha and interleukin-10 to lipopolysaccharide, compared with steady-state monocytes. These alterations were not replicated by culturing monocytes with G-CSF in vitro, suggesting an indirect effect of G-CSF. In addition, the antigen-presenting function of G-CSF-mobilized monocytes was impaired. CONCLUSION: Hyporesponsiveness of G-CSF-treated monocytes to lipopolysaccharide with regard to tumor necrosis factor-alpha production, together with impaired antigen-presenting function, may be responsible for the unexpectedly low incidence of graft-vs-host disease after G-CSF-mobilized PBSC transplantation.

Vascular Wall Imaging of Unruptured Cerebral Aneurysms with a Hybrid of Opposite-Contrast MR Angiography.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Inflammation and degeneration of the intracranial saccular aneurysm wall play a major role in aneurysm formation, development and subsequent rupture. The aim of this study was to characterize the walls of unruptured intracranial aneurysms by using a hybrid of opposite-contrast MRA at 3T. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Fourteen consecutive patients with 17 unruptured intracranial aneurysms who initially underwent clipping surgery were prospectively evaluated. All aneurysms were scanned preoperatively by using a hybrid of opposite-contrast MRA in 3T high-resolution MR imaging. We classified intraoperative findings of atherosclerotic plaques in the aneurysms into 3 grades: grade A (major plaques), grade B (minor plaques), and grade C (no plaques). The contrast ratio of the high-intensity area was also measured relative to the background low-intensity area inside the carotid artery. RESULTS: Findings from preoperative plaque imaging of the aneurysm corresponded to the intraoperative findings in 15 of 16 aneurysms (excluding 1 that was impossible to visualize in its entirety due to anatomic reasons). Overall sensitivity and specificity of the hybrid of opposite-contrast MRA were 88.9% and 100%, respectively. During the operation, 4 aneurysms were classified as grade A; 5, as grade B; and 7, as grade C. The means of the contrast ratio for grades A, B, and C were 0.72 ± 0.03, 0.34 ± 0.30, and -0.02 ± 0.09, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: The hybrid of opposite-contrast MRA can detect visible atherosclerotic plaques in the unruptured aneurysm wall, and the contrast ratio in intracranial aneurysms correlated with their presence and extent. A study including a larger series is needed to validate the diagnostic potential of this imaging technique.

Rapid isolation of homogeneous murine bronchoalveolar lavage fluid eosinophils by differential lectin affinity interaction and negative selection.

Murine models have advanced our understanding of the immune regulation of eosinophilic inflammation but there are few methods for the reliable isolation of viable populations of eosinophils from the inflamed lung. Here we describe a method to isolate murine eosinophils in high yield and purity from lung lavage fluid after induction of eosinophilic inflammation by inhalation of ovalbumin antigen in presensitized BALB/c mice. Thirteen biotinylated plant lectins were screened for their ability to bind selectively alveolar macrophages/monocytes thus permitting the purification of eosinophils by negative selection with streptavidin-conjugated magnetic beads. Bandierea (Griffonia) simplifora isolectin I and, to a lesser extent, Jacalin, provided selective enrichment of viable eosinophils which could be further purified with biotinylated anti-lymphocyte antibodies (up to 98.5% pure). FACS analysis revealed a surface marker phenotype consistent with active effector function (Fas/CD95(+), B7-1/CD80(+), L-selectin/CD62L(Lo), ICAM-1/CD54(+), CD51(+)). Eosinophils retained functional responsiveness, responding to PMA by producing superoxide, as detected by the reduction of dihydrorhodamine-123 to rhodamine. The eosinophils were also able to undergo active apoptosis, as detected by propidium iodide DNA staining, when exposed to a cross-linking anti-Fas antibody, Jo-2. The method may be of general use in studies of murine eosinophil biology.

Purification of staphylococcal enterotoxins A and E by immunoaffinity chromatography using a murine monoclonal antibody with dual specificity for both of these toxins.

An immunosorbent column was prepared by coupling a murine monoclonal antibody (MAb) with dual specificity for staphylococcal enterotoxins A (SEA) and E (SEE) to Affi-Gel 10. Purification of both SEA and SEE from culture supernatants was carried out with the immunosorbent column using 0.2 M acetic acid containing 0.15 M NaCl as eluant. The yields obtained were approximately 76% for SEA and 70% for SEE. Purified SEA and SEE were found to be immunologically and electrophoretically homogeneous. Immunoaffinity chromatography using a MAb with dual specificity proved to be valuable in the purification of SEA and SEE, not only from the standpoint of percentage recovery, but also because of the degree of purity and the ease of purification.

Participation of thromboxane A(2) in the cough response in guinea-pigs: antitussive effect of ozagrel.

1. The purpose of this study was to investigate the involvement of thromboxane A(2) (TXA(2)) in the cough response in a guinea-pig cough model. Here, we describe results obtained using a selective TXA(2) synthetase inhibitor, ozagrel, and a selective TXA(2) agonist, U-46619. 2. Guinea-pigs were anaesthetized and exposed to an aerosol of capsaicin (100 microM) to elicit coughing. The number of coughs was 20.0+/-5.8 during capsaicin provocation (5 min), but only 2. 8+/-0.4 during a 5-min inhalation of phosphate-buffered saline (PBS) (P:<0.05). 3. TXB(2) levels in BAL were 101.4+/-8.0 and 58.4+/-8.7 pg ml(-1) following capsaicin and PBS inhalation, respectively (P:<0. 01), but there was no intergroup difference in the cell populations in BAL. 4. Inhalation of U-46619 did not induce a cough response by itself at concentrations of 100 ng ml(-1) to 10 microg ml(-1). However, it caused a 2 fold increase in the number of capsaicin-induced coughs. 5. To explore the source of the TXA(2), BAL cells were stimulated with capsaicin and the supernatants collected for analysis. The TXB(2) concentration in BAL was increased dose-dependently, indicating that TXA(2) is released from BAL cells in response to capsaicin. 6. Ozagrel was administered orally 1 h before a 5 min capsaicin provocation and the number of coughs was counted during the capsaicin inhalation. Ozagrel decreased the number of coughs dose-dependently (ED(50) value, 26.3 mg kg(-1)). 7. These results show that TXA(2) modulates the capsaicin-induced cough response by increasing capsaicin-sensitivity.

Synergistic effects of pegylated recombinant human megakaryocyte growth and development factor and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor on mobilization of hematopoietic progenitor and stem cells with long-term repopulating ability into peripheral blood in mice.

We investigated the effects of pegylated recombinant human megakaryocyte growth and development factor (PEG-rHuMGDF) on peripheral blood progenitor cell (PBPC) mobilization and the combined effect of PEG-rHuMGDF plus recombinant human granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (rhG-CSF) in C57BL/6 mice. Treatment of mice with PEG-rHuMGDF increased the numbers of day 8 and day 12 spleen colony-forming units (CFU-S), and pre-CFU-S in the PB. Ten days administration of PEG-rHuMGDF could mobilize higher numbers of days 8 and day 12 CFU-S than 5 days administration. An optimal dose of PEG-rHuMGDF mobilized a higher number of committed progenitor cells (day 8 CFU-S) and a lower number of immature progenitor cells (pre-CFU-S) into PB than rhG-CSF. The combined administration of optimal or suboptimal doses of PEG-rHuMGDF and rhG-CSF induced synergistic effects on mobilization of CFU-S and pre-CFU-S into PB compared to either factor alone. Four months after sex-mismatched PBPC transplantation, long-term donor-derived engraftment was observed in all recipients that had been transplanted with PBPCs mobilized by rhG-CSF and/or PEG-rHuMGDF, as determined by Y-chromosome polymerase chain reaction (PCR) analysis. Our data suggest that cytokine-induced pathways for PBPC mobilization may be different between PEG-rHuMGDF and rhG-CSF and indicate that PEG-rHuMGDF alone or the combination with rhG-CSF may be useful in effective PBPC mobilization.

G-CSF reduces IFN-gamma and IL-4 production by T cells after allogeneic stimulation by indirectly modulating monocyte function.

Despite a 10-fold increase of T cell dose, the incidence and severity of acute GVHD following allogeneic transplantation of G-CSF-mobilized PBSC is not increased compared to BMT. Experimental murine studies demonstrate that G-CSF polarizes donor T cells toward a type 2 cytokine response. To determine whether G-CSF alters T cell cytokine responses, we investigated the effects of G-CSF administration on T cell proliferative and cytokine responses to alloantigen and Con A in nonadherent PBMC (NAC) and CD3+ T cells obtained from normal individuals before and after G-CSF administration (10 microg/kg x 4 days). Although T cell proliferative and cytokine (IFN-gamma and IL-4) responses to alloantigen stimulation and Con A were significantly reduced in post-G-CSF NAC, they were restored by the removal of non-T cells from post-G-CSF NAC. Furthermore, there was less T cell alloreactivity in MLR in the presence of autologous post-G-CSF monocytes than in the presence of pre-G-CSF monocytes. This alteration was not replicated in vitro by culturing PBMC with G-CSF. These results suggest that G-CSF administration suppresses T cell proliferative and cytokine (IFN-gamma and IL-4) responses to allogeneic stimulation by indirectly modulating monocyte function. Bone Marrow Transplantation (2000).

Successful treatment of advanced natural killer cell lymphoma with high-dose chemotherapy and syngeneic peripheral blood stem cell transplantation.

CD56+ angiocentric lymphoma has currently been recognized as a distinct clinical entity which is the prototype of the putative NK cell lymphomas. A 16-year-old Japanese girl with advanced CD56+ angiocentric lymphoma received high-dose chemotherapy supported with syngeneic peripheral blood stem cell transplantation (PBSCT). Prior to syngeneic PBSCT, she received six cycles of conventional chemotherapy before transplantation, resulting in a partial response. PBSC were mobilized with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) and collected from her identical twin. High-dose cyclophosphamide, MCNU, etoposide, and carboplatin were used for pretransplant conditioning. Syngeneic PBSCT was well tolerated. She achieved complete remission and is now surviving in continuous complete remission for more than 30 months after syngeneic PBSCT. Thus, marrow-ablative chemotherapy facilitated by autologous or allogeneic PBSCT should be considered as part of the primary therapy for poor prognosis NK cell lymphomas.