Hepatozoon canis in hunting dogs from Southern Italy: distribution and risk factors.

Hepatozoon canis is a hemoprotozoan organism that infects domestic and wild carnivores throughout much of Europe. The parasite is mainly transmitted through the ingestion of infected ticks containing mature oocysts. The aims of the present survey were to determine the prevalence of H. canis in hunting dogs living in Southern Italy and to assess potential infection risk factors. DNA extracted from whole blood samples, collected from 1433 apparently healthy dogs living in the Napoli, Avellino, and Salerno provinces of Campania region (Southern Italy), was tested by a quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (qPCR) assay to amplify H. canis. Furthermore, the investigated dog population was also screened by qPCR for the presence of Ehrlichia canis, a major tick-borne pathogen in Southern Italy, in order to assess possible co-infections. Two hundred dogs were H. canis PCR-positive, resulting in an overall prevalence of 14.0% (CI 12.2-15.9). Breed category (P < 0.0001), hair coat length (P = 0.015), and province of residence (P < 0.0001) represented significant risk factors for H. canis infection. The presence of H. canis DNA was also significantly associated with E. canis PCR positivity (P < 0.0001). Hunting dogs in Campania region (Southern Italy) are frequently exposed to H. canis, and the infection is potentially associated with close contact with wildlife. Further studies are needed to assess the pathogenic potential of H. canis, as well as the epidemiological relationships between hunting dogs and wild animal populations sharing the same habitats in Southern Italy.

Radiographic morphology of normal ring apophyses in the immature cervical spine.

BACKGROUND: The ring apophyses of the cervical spine have a variable appearance that changes with age. The times at which they appear and fuse at each level are not fixed. In this study, we aim to detail normal ranges of appearance of these ossification centers for each age group. MATERIALS AND METHODS: One hundred and eighty patients under the age of 21 attending the Royal Stoke University Hospital for cervical spine radiographs were retrospectively identified. The presence or absence of ring apophyses at each cervical level and whether these had undergone fusion was reported, as were the thickness, length, and craniocaudal and anteroposterior distance of the apophysis from the vertebral body. The angulation of the apophysis relative to the endplate was also noted. RESULTS: The youngest patient in which apophyses were seen was aged 3, but apophyses were otherwise rarely seen before the age of 6. All apophyses were present from age 14, and the superior apophyses fused by the age of 18, although unfused inferior apophyses were still seen in the 20-year age group. It was observed that apophyses were rarely separated from the vertebral body by greater than 1 mm in craniocaudal distance (1%) or 2.5 mm in anteroposterior distance (2.6%) and the anterior apophysis was angulated towards the endplate in only 1% of cases. CONCLUSIONS: We have detailed the range of normal appearances of the ring apophyses of the developing cervical spine. Cervical spine apophyseal injury is thought to be rare, but knowledge of normative morphological features should help in this diagnosis.

Tumours and tumour mimics in the olecranon.

Lesions in the olecranon are rare and may be identified during the investigation of a clinically suspected abnormality or as an incidental finding. This review describes the spectrum of tumours and tumour-like lesions that can involve the olecranon and illustrates the radiographic, CT, and MRI appearances that may facilitate diagnosis. A variety of pathological processes affecting the olecranon are presented and discussed including the epidemiology and imaging features.

MRI of inflammatory spondyloarthropathy following traumatic cauda equina syndrome.

BACKGROUND CONTEXT: Spondyloarthropathy has been described radiographically in patients following paralysis from spinal cord trauma. Onset of these findings after cauda equina syndrome have not been reported previously. Furthermore, the magnetic resonance documentation of its early evolution has not been recorded. PURPOSE: We report a case of early-onset spondyloarthropathy shown by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in a patient with cauda equina syndrome due to bilateral sacral insufficiency fractures. STUDY DESIGN: Unique case study review, one case. METHODS: Review of the clinical case notes and imaging including initial and subsequent MR imaging. RESULTS: The initial MRI of the lumbosacral spine showed bilateral sacral insufficiency fractures with a kyphotic deformity. The vertebral bodies were normal on the initial computed tomography and MRI studies, which did not reveal pre-existing features of sacroiliitis. The second MRI performed 5 months later clearly showed spondylitis at multiple vertebral levels with partial resolution 18 months post injury. CONCLUSION: Spondyloarthropathy in patients with paralysis due to spinal cord injury is well documented in the English language literature, but until now this has not been demonstrated by MRI. It is a rare complication of traumatic cauda equina syndrome that commences soon after the traumatic event and can resolve spontaneously.

A new method for measurement of subcoracoid outlet and its relationship to rotator cuff pathology at MR arthrography.

OBJECTIVE: Orthopaedic surgical studies have shown that variations in the vertical distance between the tip of the coracoid process and the supra-glenoid tubercle alter the shape of the subcoracoid outlet. Our objective was to measure the vertical distance between the coracoid tip and the supra-glenoid tubercle (CTGT) on MR and to assess whether this showed better correlation with rotator cuff pathology compared with the axial coraco-humeral distance. MATERIALS AND METHODS: A retrospective review was performed of 100 consecutive shoulder MR arthrograms. Vertical distance between the coracoid tip and the supraglenoid tubercle was measured in the sagittal oblique plane. Separate assessment was then made of tendon pathology of the subscapularis, supraspinatus and long head of biceps tendons. Axial coraco-humeral distance was then measured. Correlation between tendon abnormalities and the two measurements was then made. RESULTS: Of the 100 cases, 42 had subscapularis tendon lesions, 21 had lesions of the long head of biceps and 53 had supraspinatus tendon lesions. Mean vertical distance from the coracoid tip to supraglenoid tubercle was greater in those with lesions of any of these tendons and was statistically significant for the supraspinatus group (P = 0.005). Reduced axial coraco-humeral distance was also seen in patients with tendinopathy, although with less statistically significant difference (p = 0.059). CONCLUSION: Our results support orthopaedic studies that have shown that the vertical distance between the coracoid tip and the supraglenoid tubercle increases the incidence and risk of rotator cuff disease by altering the shape of the subcoracoid outlet.

Adiposis dolorosa (Dercum's disease): MRI and ultrasound appearances.

AIM: To describe ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) features of adiposis dolorosa, Dercum's disease, and to evaluate the MRI features prospectively against a large number of MRI examinations. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Institutional review board approval for this study was obtained. The imaging features at MRI and ultrasound of 13 cases of adiposis dolorosa (nine female, four male; age range 32-72 years) were reviewed. MRI findings typical for adiposis dolorosa were proposed and prospectively evaluated on 6247 MRI examinations performed over a period of 8 months. RESULTS: Adiposis dolorosa demonstrates multiple, oblong, fatty lesions in the superficial subcutaneous fatty tissue. They are mostly <2 cm in long axis diameter. They demonstrate nodular ("blush-like") increased fluid signal at unenhanced MRI and are markedly hyperechoic at ultrasound. There is no contrast medium enhancement at MRI and no increased Doppler signal at ultrasound. Most lesions were clinically asymptomatic, some were painful/tender. There was no imaging evidence of oedema or inflammation. During prospective validation of these MRI features on 6247 MRI examinations, two cases with typical imaging features were encountered; both were diagnosed as adiposis dolorosa on clinical review. All cases of adiposis dolorosa showed these imaging findings. This results in a very low likelihood that a nodular, blush-like appearance of subcutaneous fat on MRI is not due to adiposis dolorosa. DISCUSSION: Adiposis dolorosa, Dercum's disease, should be suggested in the presence of multiple (many) small, oblong, fatty lesions in the subcutaneous fatty tissue in adult patients if they are hyperechoic on ultrasound imaging or blush-like at unenhanced MRI; typically a small number of these lesions are tender/painful. Imaging does not demonstrate inflammation or oedema in relation to these lesions. These MRI features should suggest the diagnosis and are likely to be pathognomonic. The radiologist is often the first to suggest the diagnosis based on the imaging features.

SAPHO: What radiologists should know.

SAPHO (synovitis, acne, pustulosis, hyperostosis, and osteitis) is an umbrella acronym for inflammatory clinical conditions whose common denominator is aseptic osteoarticular involvement with characteristic skin lesions. It involves all ages, can involve any skeletal site, and has variable imaging appearances depending on the stage/age of the lesion and imaging method. It mimics important differentials including infection and neoplasia. Awareness of the imaging features, especially in the spine, facilitates early diagnosis, prevents repeated biopsies, and avoids unnecessary surgery, while initiating appropriate treatment.

Destructive discovertebral degenerative disease of the lumbar spine.

The uncommon variant of degenerative hip joint disease, termed rapidly progressive osteoarthritis, and highlighted by severe joint space loss and osteochondral disintegration, is well established. We present a similar unusual subset in the lumbar spine termed destructive discovertebral degenerative disease (DDDD) with radiological features of vertebral malalignment, severe disc resorption, and "bone sand" formation secondary to vertebral fragmentation. Co-existing metabolic bone disease is likely to promote the development of DDDD of the lumbar spine, which presents with back pain and sciatica due to nerve root compression by the "bone sand" in the epidural space. MRI and CT play a complimentary role in making the diagnosis.

FLAIR MRI biomarkers of the normal appearing brain matter are related to cognition.

A novel biomarker panel was proposed to quantify macro and microstructural biomarkers from the normal-appearing brain matter (NABM) in multicentre fluid-attenuation inversion recovery (FLAIR) MRI. The NABM is composed of the white and gray matter regions of the brain, with the lesions and cerebrospinal fluid removed. The primary hypothesis was that NABM biomarkers from FLAIR MRI are related to cognitive outcome as determined by MoCA score. There were three groups of features designed for this task based on 1) texture: microstructural integrity (MII), macrostructural damage (MAD), microstructural damage (MID), 2) intensity: median, skewness, kurtosis and 3) volume: NABM to ICV volume ratio. Biomarkers were extracted from over 1400 imaging volumes from more than 87 centres and unadjusted ANOVA analysis revealed significant differences in means of the MII, MAD, and NABM volume biomarkers across all cognitive groups. In an adjusted ANCOVA model, a significant relationship between MoCA categories was found that was dependent on subject age for MII, MAD, intensity, kurtosis and NABM volume biomarkers. These results demonstrate that structural brain changes in the NABM are related to cognitive outcome (with different relationships depending on the age of the subjects). Therefore these biomarkers have high potential for clinical translation. As a secondary hypothesis, we investigated whether texture features from FLAIR MRI can quantify microstructural changes related to how "structured" or "damaged" the tissue is. Based on correlation analysis with diffusion weighted MRI (dMRI), it was shown that FLAIR MRI texture biomarkers (MII and MAD) had strong correlations to mean diffusivity (MD) which is related to tissue degeneration in the GM and WM regions. As FLAIR MRI is routinely collected for clinical neurological examinations, novel biomarkers from FLAIR MRI could be used to supplement current clinical biomarkers and for monitoring disease progression. Biomarkers could also be used to stratify patients into homogeneous disease subgroups for clinical trials, or to learn more about mechanistic development of dementia disease.

Distribution and risk factors of canine haemotropic mycoplasmas in hunting dogs from southern Italy.

Mycoplasma haemocanis (Mhc) and "Candidatus Mycoplasma haematoparvum" (CMhp) are the main haemoplasma species known to infect dogs. The aim of this study was to determine the prevalence of haemoplasma species infections in hunting dogs from southern Italy and assess related risk factors. 1,433 hunting dogs living in Campania region were tested by qPCR assay. The prevalence was 19.9 %; 13.1 % for Mhc and 11.4 % for CMhp; 4.6 % showed a coinfection with both haemoplasma species. Statistical analysis revealed living in Salerno province (Mhc: OR 3.72; CMhp: OR 2.74), hound (Mhc: OR 5.26; CMhp: OR 8.46) and mixed breed (Mhc: OR 3.38; CMhp: OR 2.80), rural environment (Mhc: OR 12.58; CMhp: OR 10.38), wild mammal hunting (Mhc: OR 8.73; CMhp: OR 8.32), cohabitation with other animals (Mhc: OR 2.82; CMhp: OR 2.78) and large pack size (Mhc: OR 2.96; CMhp: OR 1.61) as risk factors for haemoplasmas. Male gender (OR 1.44) and tick infestation history (OR 1.40) represented risk factors only for Mhc, while adult age (2-7 years - OR 2.01; > 7 years - OR 1.84) and large body size (OR 1.48) were associated only to CMhp. Mhc infection was significantly associated to Babesia vogeli (p < 0.05) and Hepatozoon canis (p < 0.001), while CMhp with H. canis (p < 0.001). This study adds information on haemoplasma species distribution in hunting dogs in southern Italy. Outdoor lifestyle and contact with wild fauna, through greater exposure to tick infestation, or possibly wounds acquired during hunting or fighting, could be factors contributing to haemoplasma infections.

Acute renal failure in paediatric systemic lupus erythematosus: treatment and outcome.

OBJECTIVE: To determine the outcome of paediatric SLE (pSLE) patients with nephritis who developed acute renal failure (ARF). Efficacy and safety of treatment regimens were compared. METHODS: A total of 249 pSLE patients were diagnosed and prospectively followed at a single centre between July 1973 and July 2003; 127 children (51%) had lupus nephritis. ARF was defined as serum creatinine of > 250 micromol/l or > 75% above baseline. Standardized assessments included clinical data and medications, laboratory testing, disease activity and damage scores were obtained. Subsequent renal flares were documented. PRIMARY OUTCOME: renal function at last follow-up. SECONDARY OUTCOMES: treatment efficacy and safety. AZA- and cyclophosphamide (CYCLO)-treated patients were compared. Propensity score methods were applied to balance covariates. An intention to treat approach was chosen. RESULTS: The ARF study cohort included 50 patients; 13 boys and 37 girls with a median age of 13.2 yrs at diagnosis and a mean follow-up of 45 months. Renal histology: Class III nephritis in 16; Class IV in 34. Dialysis requirement and disease activity were similar in both groups. TREATMENT: AZA in 33 patients, CYCLO in 9 and corticosteroids only in 8. OUTCOME: no statistically significant or clinically relevant differences were found for any of the outcome measures including last serum creatinine, time to renal flare, overall renal survival, disease activity over time, disease damage, mean annual corticosteroid dose and rate of infection. CONCLUSION: The treatment of renal failure in this pSLE cohort was associated with an excellent outcome. AZA and CYCLO were equally efficacious.

Assessment of an infectious disease history preceding juvenile dermatomyositis symptom onset.

OBJECTIVES: A number of studies have looked at the role of infectious diseases in triggering juvenile dermatomyositis (JDM). Previous studies have found a moderately high frequency of infectious symptoms prior to disease onset; however, no specific pathogens could be identified. We sought to correlate preceding infectious symptoms with onset and outcomes of JDM. METHODS: We studied an inception cohort of all JDM cases diagnosed at The Hospital for Sick Children (SickKids) between 1988 and 2006. Data pertaining to symptoms at onset, diagnosis and disease outcomes were abstracted. Two independent paediatric infectious disease specialists reviewed all records of patients with symptoms or tests suggestive of infection. RESULTS: A total of 110 patients were reviewed; of these, 78 had sufficient information about disease onset for inclusion. Potential indications of an infectious process prior to JDM onset were found in 55/78 (71%) patients and were further evaluated for evidence of infection temporally associated with symptom onset. Features suggestive of infection prior to JDM symptom onset were found in 40/55 [probable (30/40) or possible (10/40)]. Most children with probable infections had respiratory illnesses [24/30 (80%)]. Fewer patients than expected had disease onset during summer months. The presence of an infection at onset was not found to be associated with differences in characteristics at diagnosis or disease outcomes. CONCLUSIONS: A substantial number of JDM patients have a clinical history consistent with an infection prior to onset. Newly diagnosed patients should undergo a full infectious disease assessment as part of their initial work-up; specific attention should be given to respiratory infections.

Prognosis in patients with transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and minor stroke attending TIA services in the North West of England: the NORTHSTAR Study.

BACKGROUND: The ABCD2 score predicts stroke risk within a few days of transient ischaemic attack (TIA). It is not clear whether the predictive value of the ABCD2 score can be generalised to UK TIA services, where delayed presentation of TIA and minor stroke are common. We investigated prognosis, and the use of the ABCD2 score, in patients attending TIA services in the North West of England with a diagnosis of TIA or minor stroke. METHODS: 711 patients with TIA or minor stroke were prospectively recruited from five centres (median duration from index event to recruitment 15 days). The primary outcome was the composite of incident TIA, stroke, acute coronary syndrome or cardiovascular death at the 3 month follow-up. Prognostic factors were analysed using Cox proportional hazards regression. RESULTS: The primary outcome occurred in 126 (18%) patients. Overall, there were 30 incident strokes. At least one incident TIA occurred in 100 patients (14%), but only four had a subsequent stroke. In multifactorial analyses, the ABCD2 score was unrelated to the risk of the primary outcome, but predicted the risk of incident stroke: score 4-5: hazard ratio (HR) 3.4 (95% CI 1.0 to 12); score 6-7: HR 4.8 (1.3 to 18). Of the components of the ABCD2 score, unilateral motor weakness predicted both the primary outcome (HR 1.8 (1.2 to 2.8)) and stroke risk (HR 4.2 (1.3 to 14)). CONCLUSIONS: In patients attending typical NHS TIA services, the risk of incident stroke was relatively low, probably reflecting delays to assessment. Current provision of TIA services, where delayed presentation to "rapid access" TIA clinics is common, does not appear to provide an appropriate setting for urgent evaluation, risk stratification or timely secondary prevention for those who may be at highest risk.

Deglutitive laryngeal closure in stroke patients.

BACKGROUND: Dysphagia has been reported in up to 70% of patients with stroke, predisposing them to aspiration and pneumonia. Despite this, the mechanism for aspiration remains unclear. AIMS: To determine the relationship between bolus flow and laryngeal closure during swallowing in patients with stroke and to examine the sensorimotor mechanisms leading to aspiration. METHODS: Measures of swallowing and bolus flow were taken from digital videofluoroscopic images in 90 patients with stroke and 50 healthy adults, after repeated volitional swallows of controlled volumes of thin liquid. Aspiration was assessed using a validated Penetration-Aspiration Scale. Oral sensation was also measured by electrical stimulation at the faucial pillars. RESULTS: After stroke, laryngeal ascent was delayed (mean (standard deviation (SD)) 0.31 (0.06) s, p<0.001), resulting in prolongation of pharyngeal transit time (1.17 (0.07) s, p<0.001) without a concomitant increase in laryngeal closure duration (0.84 (0.04) s, p = 0.9). The delay in laryngeal elevation correlated with both the severity of aspiration (r = 0.5, p<0.001) and oral sensation (r = 0.5, p<0.001). CONCLUSIONS: After stroke, duration of laryngeal delay and degree of sensory deficit are associated with the severity of aspiration. These findings indicate a role for sensorimotor interactions in control of swallowing and have implications for the assessment and management of dysphagia after stroke.

Angiography of primary central nervous system angiitis of childhood: conventional angiography versus magnetic resonance angiography at presentation.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: To systematically analyze conventional angiographic (CA) features of children with primary central nervous system angiitis (cPACNS), to compare and correlate CA and MR angiography (MRA) lesion characteristics, and to define the sensitivity and specificity of MRA with CA as a reference standard. METHODS: A retrospective, single-center cohort study of consecutive patients with cPACNS was performed. Patients with CA and MRA studies at diagnosis were included. Imaging studies were blindly reviewed by 2 neuroradiologists using a standard analysis protocol. CA and MRA studies were compared using nonparametric analysis. RESULTS: Of 45 patients with MRA at diagnosis, there were 25 for whom CA and MRA studies were performed within 1 month of each other. These comprised the study group. The CA distribution of lesions was multifocal (76%) and proximal (86%) (P < .05) with a trend toward unilaterality (P = .06) with anterior circulation involvement (P = .08). The sensitivity and specificity of MRA for CA abnormality was 70% and 98%, respectively. There was no significant difference between MRA and CA for lesion detection or characterization (P = .87), and the modalities showed a fair correlation (kappa = 0.4). CONCLUSION: Angiographic lesions are multifocal and occur proximally and unilaterally within the anterior circulation. There is no significant difference in the ability of MRA to detect and characterize lesions when compared with CA.

Serologic responses to peptides of Anaplasma phagocytophilum and Borrelia burgdorferi in dogs infested with wild-caught Ixodes scapularis.

Anaplasma phagocytophilum and Borrelia burgdorferi are both transmitted by Ixodes spp. and are associated with clinical illness in some infected dogs. This study evaluated canine antibody responses to the A. phagocytophilum p44 peptides APH-1 and APH-4 as well as the B. burgdorferi C6 peptide before and after doxycycline treatment. A total of eight dogs were infested with wild-caught I. scapularis for 1 week. Blood was collected prior to tick attachment and from Days 3-77 to 218-302 with doxycycline treatment beginning on Day 218. Blood was assayed for A. phagocytophilum DNA by PCR assay. Sera was assessed for antibodies by immunofluorescent antibody (IFA) test and ELISA. Anaplasma phagocytophilum DNA was amplified from blood of all dogs by Day 7. Antibodies to APH-4 were detected in serum as early as 14days after tick exposure and six dogs had APH-4 antibodies detected 3-7 days before antibodies against APH-1. All dogs were seropositive for A. phagocytophilum from Days 218 to 302. Antibodies to B. burgdorferi were detected in 6/8 dogs beginning 21days after I. scapularis infestation. Among the five dogs that remained seropositive at Day 218, C6 antibody levels declined on average 81% within 84days of initiating treatment. The results suggest that the APH-4 peptide may be more useful than APH-1 for detecting antibodies earlier in the course of an A. phagocytophilum infection. After doxycycline administration, C6 antibody levels but not APH-1 or APH-4 antibody levels decreased, suggesting a treatment effect on C6 antibody production.

MR imaging and angiography of primary CNS vasculitis of childhood.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Primary angiitis of the central nervous system of childhood (cPACNS) is a rare and ill-defined disease. In the absence of a brain biopsy, the diagnosis is based on typical clinical and imaging abnormalities. The aim of this study was to analyze systematically the MR imaging and MR angiographic (MRA) abnormalities in a large cohort of children with cPACNS. METHODS: We analyzed the MR imaging features of a single pediatric center cohort of 45 cPACNS patients. MR imaging studies were performed for all patients, and both MR imaging and MRA were performed for 42 patients, who formed the cohort for review of the presence and correlation of lesions. Proportions were calculated by using the Fisher exact test, and agreement between MR imaging and MRA was calculated by using the McNemar test. The sensitivity of each diagnostic technique was established. RESULTS: The most-common pattern of parenchymal abnormality was multifocal, unilateral involvement, each in 42/45 patients (93%). The lateral lenticulostriate artery terrritory was affected in 56% of cases, with involvement of a supratentorial deep gray matter structure in 91%. No infratentorial lesion occurred in the absence of supratentorial abnormality. MRA was normal in 12/42 patients (28.6%). Among the abnormal studies, stenosis was detected on MRA in 83% and was "benign" in appearance in 73% of patients and "aggressive" in 16.7%. Involvement was proximal in 83% and distal in 27% of patients. Multiple ipsilateral lesions were seen in 63%. MR imaging was abnormal in every patient where MRA was abnormal. With the assumption of MR imaging as the gold standard, the sensitivity of MRA was 72%. The agreement between MR imaging and MRA for abnormality was significant (P = .04). CONCLUSION: We have illustrated the MR imaging and MRA appearances of cPACNS in the largest cohort to date. Both parenchymal and vascular lesions were predominantly proximal, unilateral, and multifocal within the anterior circulation. There was good agreement between MR imaging and MRA for lesion location. MR imaging findings were abnormal in all cases at diagnosis, and this remains the most sensitive technique to the detection of vasculitis.

Surveillance of intramedullary cartilage tumours in long bones.

AIMS: The purpose of this study was to determine if clinical and radiological surveillance of cartilage tumours with low biological activity is appropriate. PATIENTS AND METHODS: A total of 98 patients with an intramedullary cartilage neoplasm in a long bone met our inclusion criteria and were included in the study. These patients had undergone a total of 384 scans. Patients with radiological follow-up of more than three years (46 patients) were divided into two groups: an active group (11 patients) and a latent group (35 patients). RESULTS: Active lesions had a total growth in all three planes that was > 6 mm, whilst latent lesions had < 6 mm of growth. Most latent lesions were heavily calcified: active lesions were calcified less than 50% (p = 0.025). CONCLUSION: Clinico-radiological surveillance can identify growing cartilage lesions: MRI is the surveillance modality of choice. A CT scan is recommended, in addition, at presentation to assess the amount of calcification within the lesion. A first follow-up MRI is suggested one year from diagnosis. If the total growth in the cartilage lesion is > 6 mm, surgical treatment should be considered. Otherwise, a second surveillance scan can be performed at three years to determine further management. Cite this article: Bone Joint J 2016;98-B:1542-7.

Quenching of Chlorophyll a Fluorescence in Response to Na+-Dependent HCO3- Transport-Mediated Accumulation of Inorganic Carbon in the Cyanobacterium Synechococcus UTEX 625.

In the cyanobacterium Synechococcus UTEX 625, the yield of chlorophyll a fluorescence decreased in response to the transport-mediated accumulation of intracellular inorganic carbon (CO2 + HCO3- + CO32- = dissolved inorganic carbon [DIC]) and subsequently increased to a near-maximum level following photosynthetic depletion of the DIC pool. When DIC accumulation was mediated by the active Na+-dependent HCO3- transport system, the initial rate of fluorescence quenching was found to be highly correlated with the initial rate of H14CO3- transport (r = 0.96), and the extent of fluorescence quenching was correlated with the size of the internal DIC pool (r = 0.99). Na+-dependent HCO3- transport-mediated accumulation of DIC caused fluorescence quenching in either the presence or absence of the CO2 fixation inhibitor glycolaldehyde, indicating that quenching was not due simply to NADP+ reduction. The concentration of Na+ required to attain one-half the maximum rate of H14CO3- transport, at 20 [mu]M external HCO3-, declined from 9 to 1 mM as the external pH increased from 8 to 9.6. A similar pH dependency was observed when fluorescence quenching was used to determine the kinetic constants for HCO3- transport. In cells capable of Na+-dependent HCO3- transport, both the initial rate and extent of fluorescence quenching increased with increasing external HCO3-, saturating at about 150 [mu]M. In contrast Na+-independent HCO3- transport-mediated fluorescence quenching saturated at an HCO3- concentration of about 10 [mu]M. It was concluded that measurement of chlorophyll a fluorescence emission provided a convenient, but indirect, means of following Na+-dependent HCO3- transport and accumulation in Synechococcus.