Open-label phase II study of the efficacy of nivolumab for cancer of unknown primary.

BACKGROUND: Cancer of unknown primary (CUP) has a poor prognosis. Given the recent approval of immune checkpoint inhibitors for several cancer types, we carried out a multicenter phase II study to assess the efficacy of nivolumab for patients with CUP. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Patients with CUP who were previously treated with at least one line of systemic chemotherapy constituted the principal study population. Previously untreated patients with CUP were also enrolled for exploratory analysis. Nivolumab (240 mg/body) was administered every 2 weeks for up to 52 cycles. The primary endpoint was objective response rate in previously treated patients as determined by blinded independent central review according to RECIST version 1.1. RESULTS: Fifty-six patients with CUP were enrolled in the trial. For the 45 previously treated patients, objective response rate was 22.2% [95% confidence interval (CI), 11.2% to 37.1%], with a median progression-free survival and overall survival of 4.0 months (95% CI, 1.9-5.8 months) and 15.9 months (95% CI, 8.4-21.5 months), respectively. Similar clinical benefits were also observed in the 11 previously untreated patients. Better clinical efficacy of nivolumab was apparent for tumors with a higher programmed death-ligand 1 expression level, for those with a higher tumor mutation burden, and for microsatellite instability-high tumors. In contrast, no differences in efficacy were apparent between tumor subgroups based on estimated tissue of origin. Adverse events were consistent with the known safety profile of nivolumab. No treatment-related death was observed. CONCLUSIONS: Our results demonstrate a clinical benefit of nivolumab for patients with CUP, suggesting that nivolumab is a potential additional therapeutic option for CUP.

An outbreak of food poisoning due to Escherichia coli serotype O7:H4 carrying astA for enteroaggregative E. coli heat-stable enterotoxin1 (EAST1).

In June 2020, a large-scale food poisoning outbreak involving about 3000 elementary and junior high school students occurred in Yashio, Saitama, Japan. A school lunch was the only food stuff ingested by all of the patients. Escherichia coli serotype O7:H4 carrying the astA gene for enteroaggregative E. coli (EAggEC) heat-stable enterotoxin 1 (EAST1) was detected in faecal specimens from the patients, and sample inspection revealed its presence in a seaweed salad and red seaweed (Gigartina tenella) as one of the raw materials. Analysis of the antibiotic sensitivity of the isolates revealed resistance to ampicillin and cefotaxime. All isolates were confirmed to be of the same origin by pulsed-field gel electrophoresis after digestion with the restriction enzyme XbaI, and single nucleotide polymorphism analysis using whole genome sequencing. To our knowledge, this is the first report of a large-scale food poisoning caused by E. coli O7:H4, which lacks well-characterized virulence genes other than astA.

Tumor immune microenvironment and nivolumab efficacy in EGFR mutation-positive non-small-cell lung cancer based on T790M status after disease progression during EGFR-TKI treatment.

BACKGROUND: The efficacy of programmed death-1 blockade in epidermal growth factor receptor gene (EGFR) mutation-positive non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC) patients with different mechanisms of acquired resistance to EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) is unknown. We retrospectively evaluated nivolumab efficacy and immune-related factors in such patients according to their status for the T790M resistance mutation of EGFR. PATIENTS AND METHODS: We identified 25 patients with EGFR mutation-positive NSCLC who were treated with nivolumab after disease progression during EGFR-TKI treatment (cohort A). Programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) expression and tumor-infiltrating lymphocyte (TIL) density in tumor specimens obtained after acquisition of EGFR-TKI resistance were determined by immunohistochemistry. Whole-exome sequencing of tumor DNA was carried out to identify gene alterations. The relation of T790M status to PD-L1 expression or TIL density was also examined in an independent cohort of 60 patients (cohort B). RESULTS: In cohort A, median progression-free survival (PFS) was 2.1 and 1.3 months for T790M-negative and T790M-positive patients, respectively (P = 0.099; hazard ratio of 0.48 with a 95% confidence interval of 0.20-1.24). Median PFS was 2.1 and 1.3 months for patients with a PD-L1 expression level of ≥1% or <1%, respectively (P = 0.084; hazard ratio of 0.37, 95% confidence interval of 0.10-1.21). PFS tended to increase as the PD-L1 expression level increased with cutoff values of ≥10% and ≥50%. The proportion of tumors with a PD-L1 level of ≥10% or ≥50% was higher among T790M-negative patients than among T790M-positive patients of both cohorts A and B. Nivolumab responders had a significantly higher CD8+ TIL density and nonsynonymous mutation burden. CONCLUSION: T790M-negative patients with EGFR mutation-positive NSCLC are more likely to benefit from nivolumab after EGFR-TKI treatment, possibly as a result of a higher PD-L1 expression level, than are T790M-positive patients.

Biochemical markers for bone turnover predict risk of vertebral fractures in postmenopausal women over 10 years: the Japanese Population-based Osteoporosis (JPOS) Cohort Study.

UNLABELLED: We evaluated how bone turnover might predict vertebral fracture risk in postmenopausal women over 10 years. After adjusting for age and femoral neck bone mineral density, high bone-specific alkaline phosphatase and total and free deoxypyridinoline at baseline predicted increased vertebral fracture risk in women with ≥ 5 years since menopause. INTRODUCTION: The aim was to evaluate the ability of bone turnover markers (BTMs) in predicting vertebral fractures. METHODS: Participants in the 1996 baseline survey of the JPOS Cohort Study included 522 postmenopausal women, with no diseases or medications affecting bone metabolism. Vertebral fractures were ascertained in three follow-up surveys (1999, 2002, and 2006). Initial fracture events were diagnosed morphometrically. The Poisson regression model was applied to estimate the rate ratio (RR) of the following log-transformed BTM values at baseline: osteocalcin and bone-specific alkaline phosphatase (BAP) in serum and C-terminal cross-linked telopeptide of type I collagen, total deoxypyridinoline (tDPD), and free deoxypyridinoline (fDPD) in urine. RESULTS: Eighty-three fracture events were diagnosed over a median follow-up period of 10.0 years. RR per standard deviation (SD) (95 % confidence interval) for BAP was 4.38 (1.45, 13.21) among 65 subjects with years since menopause (YSM) < 5 years. RRs per SD (95 % confidence interval) for BAP, tDPD, and fDPD were 1.39 (1.12, 1.74), 1.32 (1.05, 1.67), and 1.40 (1.12, 1.76), respectively, after adjusting for age and femoral neck bone mineral density (FN BMD) among 457 subjects with YSM ≥ 5 years. Of the 451 women followed at least once until 2002, RRs per SD for BAP, tDPD, and fDPD adjusted for age and FN BMD over 6 years were not significantly different from those over 10 years. CONCLUSION: BAP was associated with vertebral fracture risk among early postmenopausal women. BTMs can predict vertebral fractures independently of BMD among late postmenopausal women over a 10-year follow-up period.

Isolation and characterization of mutations in the human holocarboxylase synthetase cDNA.

Holocarboxylase synthetase (HCS) plays an essential role in biotin utilization in eukaryotic cells and its deficiency causes biotin-responsive multiple carboxylase deficiency in humans. We have cloned the human HCS cDNA and show that antiserum against the recombinant protein immunoprecipitates human HCS. A one base deletion resulting in a premature termination and a missense mutation (Leu to Pro) were found in cells from siblings with HCS deficiency. Human HCS shows homology to BirA, which acts as both a biotin-[acetyl-CoA-carboxylase] ligase and a biotin repressor in E. coli, suggesting a functional relationship between the two proteins. The human HCS gene maps to chromosome 21q22.1.

Immunohistochemical localization of aggresomal proteins in glial cytoplasmic inclusions in multiple system atrophy.

AIMS: Multiple system atrophy (MSA) is pathologically characterized by the formation of α-synuclein-containing glial cytoplasmic inclusions (GCIs) in oligodendrocytes. However, the mechanisms of GCI formation are not fully understood. Cellular machinery for the formation of aggresomes has been linked to the biogenesis of the Lewy body, a characteristic α-synuclein-containing inclusion of Parkinson's disease and dementia with Lewy bodies. Here, we examined whether GCIs contain the components of aggresomes by immunohistochemistry. METHODS: Sections from five patients with MSA were stained immunohistochemically with antibodies against aggresome-related proteins and analysed in comparison with sections from five patients with no neurological disease. We evaluated the presence or absence of aggresome-related proteins in GCIs by double immunofluorescence and immunoelectron microscopy. RESULTS: GCIs were clearly immunolabelled with antibodies against aggresome-related proteins, such as γ-tubulin, histone deacetylase 6 (HDAC6) and 20S proteasome subunits. Neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions (NCIs) were also immunopositive for these aggresome-related proteins. Double immunofluorescence staining and quantitative analysis demonstrated that the majority of GCIs contained these proteins, as well as other aggresome-related proteins, such as Hsp70, Hsp90 and 62-kDa protein/sequestosome 1 (p62/SQSTM1). Immunoelectron microscopy demonstrated immunoreactivities for γ-tubulin and HDAC6 along the fibrils comprising GCIs. CONCLUSIONS: Our results indicate that GCIs, and probably NCIs, share at least some characteristics with aggresomes in terms of their protein components. Therefore, GCIs and NCIs may be another manifestation of aggresome-related inclusion bodies observed in neurodegenerative diseases.

Plasma MMP-9 Levels as the Future Risk of Conversion to Dementia in ApoE4-Positive MCI Patients: Investigation Based on the Alzheimer's Disease Neuroimaging Initiative Database.

BACKGROUND: Matrix metalloproteinase 9 (MMP-9) has been reported to be correlated with declines in hippocampal volume and cognitive function in ApoE4-positive MCI patients. OBJECTIVES: The present study was aimed to investigate the effects of plasma matrix MMP-9 on the conversion risk between mild cognitive impairment (MCI) patients with and without ApoE4. DESIGN AND SETTING: Retrospective observational study using the data extracted from the Alzheimer's Disease Neuroimaging Initiative database. PARTICIPANTS: We included 211 ApoE4-positive MCI subjects (ApoE4+ MCI) and 184 ApoE4-negative MCI subjects (ApoE4- MCI). MEASUREMENTS: We obtained demographic and data including plasma MMP-9 levels at baseline and longitudinal changes in Clinical Dementia Rating (CDR) up to 15 years. We compared conversion rates between ApoE4+ MCI and ApoE4- MCI by the Log-rank test and calculated the hazard ratio (HR) for covariates including age, sex, educational attainment, drinking and smoking histories, medications, and plasma MMP-9 levels using a multiple Cox regression analysis of ApoE4+ MCI and ApoE4- MCI. RESULTS: No significant differences were observed in baseline plasma MMP-9 levels between ApoE4+ MCI and ApoE4- MCI. High plasma MMP-9 levels increased the conversion risk significantly more than low plasma MMP-9 levels (HR, 2.46 [95% CI, 1.31-4.48]) and middle plasma MMP-9 levels (HR, 1.67 [95% CI, 1.04-2.65]) in ApoE4+ MCI, but not in ApoE4- MCI. CONCLUSION: Plasma MMP-9 would be the risk of the future conversion to dementia in ApoE4+ MCI.

Difference between "Physical Fitness Age" Based on Physical Function and Chronological Age Is Associated with Obesity, Hyperglycemia, Depressive Symptoms, and Low Serum Albumin.

OBJECTIVES: This study aimed to (1) develop the physical fitness age, which is the biological age based on physical function, (2) evaluate the validity of the physical fitness age for the assessment of sarcopenia, and (3) examine the factors associated with the difference between physical fitness age and chronological age. DESIGN: Cross-sectional study. SETTING AND PARTICIPANTS: Community-dwelling older adults and outpatients. MEASUREMENTS: A formula for calculating the physical fitness age was created based on the usual walking speed, handgrip strength, one-leg standing time, and chronological age of 4,076 older adults from the pooled data of community-dwelling and outpatients using the principal component analysis. For the validation of the physical fitness age, we also used pooled data from community-dwelling older adults (n = 1929) and outpatients (n = 473). Sarcopenia was diagnosed according to the Asian Working Group for Sarcopenia 2019 consensus. The association of D-age (the difference between physical and chronological ages) with cardiovascular risk factors, renal function, and cardiac function was examined. RESULTS: The receiver operating characteristic analysis, with sarcopenia as the outcome, showed that the area under the curve (AUC) of physical fitness age was greater than that of chronological age (AUC 0.87 and 0.77, respectively, p < 0.001). Binomial logistic regression analysis revealed that the D-age was significantly associated with sarcopenia after adjustment for covariates (odds ratio 1.22, 95% confidence interval 1.19-1.26; p <0.001). In multivariate linear regression analysis with D-age as the dependent variable, D-age was independently associated with a history of diabetes mellitus (or hemoglobin A1c as a continuous variable), obesity, depression, and low serum albumin level. D-age was also correlated with estimated glomerular filtration rate derived from serum cystatin C, brain natriuretic peptide, and ankle-brachial index, reflecting some organ function and arteriosclerosis. CONCLUSIONS: Compared to chronological age, physical fitness age calculated from handgrip strength, one-leg standing time, and usual walking speed was a better scale for sarcopenia. D-age, which could be a simple indicator of physical function, was associated with modifiable factors, such as poor glycemic control, obesity, depressive symptoms, and malnutrition.

Integration of Single-Cell RNA- and CAGE-seq Reveals Tooth-Enriched Genes.

Organ development is dictated by the regulation of genes preferentially expressed in tissues or cell types. Gene expression profiling and identification of specific genes in organs can provide insights into organogenesis. Therefore, genome-wide analysis is a powerful tool for clarifying the mechanisms of development during organogenesis as well as tooth development. Single-cell RNA sequencing (scRNA-seq) is a suitable tool for unraveling the gene expression profile of dental cells. Using scRNA-seq, we can obtain a large pool of information on gene expression; however, identification of functional genes, which are key molecules for tooth development, via this approach remains challenging. In the present study, we performed cap analysis of gene expression sequence (CAGE-seq) using mouse tooth germ to identify the genes preferentially expressed in teeth. The CAGE-seq counts short reads at the 5'-end of transcripts; therefore, this method can quantify the amount of transcripts without bias related to the transcript length. We hypothesized that this CAGE data set would be of great help for further understanding a gene expression profile through scRNA-seq. We aimed to identify the important genes involved in tooth development via bioinformatics analyses, using a combination of scRNA-seq and CAGE-seq. We obtained the scRNA-seq data set of 12,212 cells from postnatal day 1 mouse molars and the CAGE-seq data set from postnatal day 1 molars. scRNA-seq analysis revealed the spatiotemporal expression of cell type-specific genes, and CAGE-seq helped determine whether these genes are preferentially expressed in tooth or ubiquitously. Furthermore, we identified candidate genes as novel tooth-enriched and dental cell type-specific markers. Our results show that the integration of scRNA-seq and CAGE-seq highlights the genes important for tooth development among numerous gene expression profiles. These findings should contribute to resolving the mechanism of tooth development and establishing the basis for tooth regeneration in the future.

Prevalent vertebral deformity independently increases incident vertebral fracture risk in middle-aged and elderly Japanese women: the Japanese Population-based Osteoporosis (JPOS) Cohort Study.

SUMMARY: Prevalent vertebral deformity increases incident vertebral fracture risk according to studies focusing primarily on Caucasian elderly populations. We report a 3-fold increase in this risk in a population-based cohort of Japanese women after adjusting for subject propensity for having vertebral deformities. This relationship tended to be stronger in middle-aged women. INTRODUCTION: Evidence on increased risk of incident vertebral fractures associated with vertebral deformity in middle-aged women is limited. We aimed to evaluate this risk in a population-based cohort of Japanese women. METHODS: We followed 712 women aged 50-79 years at baseline randomly selected from 3 municipalities in Japan for 6 years. McCloskey-Kanis criteria identified vertebral deformities on X-ray absorptiometric images. At follow-up, vertebra with > or = 20% height reduction from baseline were considered incident fractures. Rate ratio (RR) of incident fracture for prevalent vertebral deformities was calculated using the Poisson regression equation adjusted for propensity of having vertebral deformities based on potential risk factors. RESULT: Vertebral fractures occurred in 73 women (10.3%). Crude RR of vertebral deformity-associated fracture was 4.63 [95% confidence interval (CI), 3.04-7.04] and decreased to 2.96 (95% CI, 1.77-4.94) after propensity score adjustment. Adjusted RR was generally greater in younger women at 7.19 (95% CI, 1.04-49.6), 3.19 (95% CI, 1.27-7.97), and 2.34 (95% CI, 1.33-4.11) for women aged 50-59, 60-69, and 70-79 years, respectively (p = 0.0527 for those aged 50-59 vs 70-79). CONCLUSION: Vertebral deformity was associated with a 3-fold increase in subsequent vertebral fracture risk in Japanese women, and this association was stronger in middle-aged women.

Quantitative reverse transcription-PCR assay for the rapid detection of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

AIM: To evaluate a new quantitative reverse transcription-PCR (qRT-PCR) assay for the rapid detection of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). METHODS AND RESULTS: Primers for Staphylococcus-specific regions of 16S rRNA gene, spa gene and mecA gene were newly designed. RNAs extracted from broth-cultured strains were tested by qRT-PCR targeting each primer, and the bacterial counts obtained correlated well with those counted by the plating method with detection limits of 10(0), 10(1) and 10(2) CFU. The qRT-PCR assay targeting the 16S rRNA was 6430-fold or more sensitive than qPCR assay. All Staph. aureus strains tested were detected and none of the other Staphylococcus species and genus strains tested cross-reacted with the assay targeting the spa gene. All MRSAs tested were detected by the assay targeting the mecA gene. Clinical samples, faecal material and bronchial washout solutions were tested by our assay, and MRSAs were detected with a high sensitivity within 6 h. CONCLUSION: Our qRT-PCR assay targeting three new primers to the target genes is a rapid and sensitive tool for the detection of MRSA directly from clinical samples. SIGNIFICANCE AND IMPACT OF THE STUDY: Because of its sensitivity and rapidity, our qRT-PCR assay is considered to be a valuable tool for clinical management.

Inter- and intra-rater reliability in fibroptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing.

Fibroptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing (FEES) is a useful way for dentists to evaluate oropharyngeal dysfunction. However, no study has paid attention to inter- and intra-rater reliability of FEES evaluation about oropharyngeal dysfunction. The purpose of this study is to verify whether dentist who trained and experienced for evaluation of dysphagia could diagnose oropharyngeal function with FEES. Nine dentists independently evaluated FEES images of 10 cases four times each. At first, evaluators performed the first evaluation without consulting the evaluative criteria. Subsequently, evaluators independently re-evaluated at 1-week intervals for three consecutive weeks, consulting the evaluative criteria. And then, inter- and intra-rater reliability was calculated. Cohen's Kappa was used to assess reliability. The results found that overall inter-rater reliability was 0·35±0·04 (first evaluation), 0·45±0·05 (s), 0·44±0·05 (third) and 0·46±0·04 (fourth). Most of inter-rater reliability related to aspiration was moderate to high, but lower for categories that evaluated timing of swallowing and mastication. In contrast, intra-rater reliability was moderate to high for overall categories, at 0·53±0·04 (first vs. second evaluation), 0·55±0·04 (first vs. third), 0·53±0·04 (first vs. fourth), 0·55±0·03 (second vs. third), 0·60±0·03 (second vs. fourth) and 0·78±0·03 (third vs. fourth). FEES is reliable for experienced dentists to diagnose oropharyngeal function. Moreover, repeated evaluation with the aids of evaluative criteria is useful to improve the reliability of FEES.

Evidence for autoregulation of cystathionine gamma-synthase mRNA stability in Arabidopsis.

Control of messenger RNA (mRNA) stability serves as an important mechanism for regulating gene expression. Analysis of Arabidopsis mutants that overaccumulate soluble methionine (Met) revealed that the gene for cystathionine gamma-synthase (CGS), the key enzyme in Met biosynthesis, is regulated at the level of mRNA stability. Transfection experiments with wild-type and mutant forms of the CGS gene suggest that an amino acid sequence encoded by the first exon of CGS acts in cis to destabilize its own mRNA in a process that is activated by Met or one of its metabolites.

Lovastatin inhibits antigen-induced airway eosinophilia without affecting the production of inflammatory mediators in mice.

OBJECTIVE AND DESIGN: Statins have been proposed as a novel treatment of respiratory diseases. To determine the beneficial effects of statins on allergic bronchial asthma, the effect of systemic treatment with lovastatin on antigen-induced airway inflammation was investigated. SUBJECTS: Male BALB/c mice were used. TREATMENTS: Mice were sensitized and repeatedly challenged with ovalbumin (OA) antigen to induce asthmatic response. Animals were also treated with lovastatin (4 mg/kg/day, i.p.) once a day prior to and during the antigen inhalation period. METHODS: Inflammatory cell counts and levels of interleukin (IL)-4, IL-13, eotaxin, thymus and activation-regulated chemokine and leukotriene B(4) (LTB(4)) in bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluids were measured. RESULTS: Significant increases in eosinophils and levels of the T helper 2 cytokines, chemokines and LTB(4) in BAL fluids in association with the increments of total and OA-specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) in sera were observed in the repeatedly antigen-challenged mice. The airway eosinophilia was ameliorated by lovastatin, whereas it had no significant effect on the levels of these inflammatory mediators or IgE. CONCLUSION: Lovastatin may be beneficial for the treatment of allergic inflammatory diseases in the airways, such as allergic bronchial asthma.

GGTI-2133, an inhibitor of geranylgeranyltransferase, inhibits infiltration of inflammatory cells into airways in mouse experimental asthma.

Statins have been proposed as a novel treatment of respiratory diseases including asthma. Although the mechanism of anti-inflammatory effect of statins is still unclear, an inhibition of protein prenylation by depleting the downstream metabolites of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase might be involved. To test the hypothesis, the effects of GGTI-2133, a direct inhibitor of geran ylgeranyltransferase (GGTase), on antigen-induced airway inflammation were investigated in a murine model of allergic bronchial asthma. Mice were sensitized and repeatedly challenged with ovalbumin antigen (OA). Animals were also treated with GGTI-2133 (5 mg/kg/day, i.p.) once a day before and during the antigen inhalation period. Repeated antigen inhalation caused an infiltration of inflammatory cells, especially eosinophils, into airways. Significant increases in interleukin (IL)-4, IL-13, eotaxin, thymus and activation-regulated chemokine (TARC) and leukotriene B4 (LTB4) in bronchoalveolar lavage fluids and total and OA-specific IgE in sera were also found in the antigen-exposed animals. The systemic treatments with GGTI-2133 inhibited the antigen-induced eosinophil infiltration into airways almost completely. However, interestingly, the GGTI-2133 treatment did not affect the levels of these chemotactic factors and IgE. These findings suggest that selective inhibition of GGTase is effective for eosinophilic airway inflammation such as asthma.

Identification of the Novel Tooth-Specific Transcription Factor AmeloD.

Basic-helix-loop-helix (bHLH) transcription factors play an important role in various organs' development; however, a tooth-specific bHLH factor has not been reported. In this study, we identified a novel tooth-specific bHLH transcription factor, which we named AmeloD, by screening a tooth germ complementary DNA (cDNA) library using a yeast 2-hybrid system. AmeloD was mapped onto the mouse chromosome 1q32. Phylogenetic analysis showed that AmeloD belongs to the achaete-scute complex-like ( ASCL) gene family and is a homologue of ASCL5. AmeloD was uniquely expressed in the inner enamel epithelium (IEE), but its expression was suppressed after IEE cell differentiation into ameloblasts. Furthermore, AmeloD expression showed an inverse expression pattern with the epithelial cell-specific cell-cell adhesion molecule E-cadherin in the dental epithelium. Overexpression of AmeloD in dental epithelial cell line CLDE cells resulted in E-cadherin suppression. We found that AmeloD bound to E-box cis-regulatory elements in the proximal promoter region of the E-cadherin gene. These results reveal that AmeloD functions as a suppressor of E-cadherin transcription in IEE cells. Our study demonstrated that AmeloD is a novel tooth-specific bHLH transcription factor that may regulate tooth development through the suppression of E-cadherin in IEE cells.

Lactobacillus gasseri PA-3, but not L. gasseri OLL2996, reduces the absorption of purine nucleosides in rats.

Lactobacillus gasseri PA-3 (PA-3) is a bacterial strain with a strong ability to degrade purine nucleosides. We previously showed that PA-3 incorporates purines in vitro and that oral administration of PA-3 and purines to rats attenuated their absorption of purines. It remains unclear whether these effects of PA-3 depend on bacterial strains. This study therefore compared the abilities of PA-3 and another bacterial strain of L. gasseri, OLL2996, which has shown decreased ability to degrade purine nucleosides in vitro, to incorporate purine nucleosides and to inhibit the absorption of purines fed to rats. Each bacterial strain was incubated in the presence of 14C-adenosine or 14C-inosine and the incorporation of each purine was evaluated by measuring their radioactivity. In vivo, rats were fed 14C-labeled purines along with PA-3 or OLL2996 and the absorption of these 14C-labeled purines was evaluated by analyzing radioactivity of blood samples. PA-3 incorporated about twice as much 14C-adenosine and 14C-inosine as OLL2996. The elevation of radioactivity levels in blood was 10-20% lower in rats treated with PA-3 than in control rats, after feeding with both 14C-adenosine and 14C-inosine as purines. In contrast, treatment with OLL2996 did not have statistically significant effects on radioactivity compared with the control group. These results indicate that the magnitude of bacterial inhibition of purine absorption is dependent on bacterial strain, correlating at least partly with the ability to incorporate and degrade purines.

Lactobacillus gasseri PA-3 utilizes the purines GMP and guanosine and decreases their absorption in rats.

Excessive intake of purine-rich foods elevates serum uric acid levels, making it a risk factor for hyperuricemia. We hypothesized that lactic acid bacteria ingested with food might utilize purines and contribute to their decreased absorption in the intestines, thereby preventing hyperuricemia. We previously reported that Lactobacillus gasseri PA-3 (PA-3) incorporates adenosine/inosine and related purines and that oral ingestion of PA-3 reduced the absorption of these purines in rats. However, it is unclear whether PA-3 also decreases the absorption of other purines, such as guanosine 5'-monophosphate (GMP) and guanosine. This study investigated whether PA-3 incorporates GMP and guanosine and reduces their absorption in rats. PA-3 incorporated both purines, with 14C-GMP uptake being greater than that of 14C-guanosine. Radioactivity in rat blood was significantly lower 30, 45, and 60 minutes after administration of 14C-GMP plus PA-3 than after administration of 14C-GMP alone and was significantly lower 15 minutes after administration of 14C-guanosine plus PA-3 than after administration of 14C-guanosine alone. PA-3 incorporates GMP and guanosine in vitro. Oral administration of PA-3 with GMP and guanosine reduces the intestinal absorption of these purines in vivo. These findings, together with those of previous studies, indicate that PA-3 reduces the absorption of major purines contained in foods. PA-3 may also attenuate the excessive absorption of dietary purines in humans, protecting these individuals against hyperuricemia.

Optimal Settings for Double Filtration Plasmapheresis With Targeted Removal Rate of Preexisting Antibody in Antibody-Incompatible Kidney Transplant.

BACKGROUND: Elimination of preexisting donor-reactive antibodies is essential for antibody-incompatible kidney transplantation. Double filtration plasmapheresis (DFPP) using albumin (Alb) replacement fluid (Rf) removes immunoglobulin more selectively than plasma exchange; however, fixed-dose treatment can result in insufficient removal of antibody or excess loss of osmotic pressure and subsequent hypotension. The aim of this study was to determine the optimal setting (volume and concentration of Rf) of DFPP to remove donor-reactive antibodies. MATERIALS AND METHODS: One hundred seventeen DFPPs were performed in 41 patients for kidney transplant in an ABO-incompatible or crossmatch-positive setting. A formula for Rf volume was determined based on volume-removal rate (RR) curve of IgG. Another formula for Alb concentration of Rf was also established to keep plasma volume within pre-DFPP plasma volume ± 10% calculated by post- to pre-DFPP hematocrit ratio to avoid hypotensive events. RESULTS: RR-IgG was obtained based on patient data: Rf (mL) = BW (kg) × eX, [X = (RR-IgG + 10.757)/25.603] (R2 = 0.401, P < .001). Rf Alb concentration was determined by AlbRf ≥ (2.982 - 2.36 × RR-IgG) × Albpre + (2.36 × RR-IgG - 0.236) × pre-DFPP total protein. CONCLUSIONS: Optimal volume and concentration of Alb Rf can be calculated using our formulae with targeted RR-IgG.

timrit Lengthens circadian period in a temperature-dependent manner through suppression of PERIOD protein cycling and nuclear localization.

A fundamental feature of circadian clocks is temperature compensation of period. The free-running period of ritsu (timrit) (a novel allele of timeless [tim]) mutants is drastically lengthened in a temperature-dependent manner. PER and TIM protein levels become lower in timrit mutants as temperature becomes higher. This mutation reduces per mRNA but not tim mRNA abundance. PER constitutively driven by the rhodopsin1 promoter is lowered in rit mutants, indicating that timrit mainly affects the per feedback loop at a posttranscriptional level. An excess of per+ gene dosage can ameliorate all rit phenotypes, including the weak nuclear localization of PER, suggesting that timrit affects circadian rhythms by reducing PER abundance and its subsequent transportation into nuclei as temperature increases.