Impaired intratumoral dendritic cell function and potential predictive value of dendritic cell markers for metastasis in malignant salivary gland tumors.

BACKGROUND: The differentiation between primary and metastatic salivary gland neoplasms (SGNs) helps in determining appropriate management strategies, including the need for additional diagnostic tests, surveillance, or aggressive treatment. The purpose of this study was to identify and quantify the immature and mature dendritic cells (DCs) in metastatic and no metastatic SGNs and determine its association with clinicopathological findings. MATERIAL AND METHODS: Cross-sectional, observational, and descriptive study that includes 33 malignant salivary gland neoplasms [MSGN (6, 18.1% metastatic)], and 22 pleomorphic adenomas (PA), as a control group. Clinical and histopathological characteristics were obtained. Immunohistochemistry for human leukocyte antigen D-related (HLA-DR), CD1a, CD83, and Ki-67 proteins was done. Positive intra- and peritumoral DCs were counted. RESULTS: Individuals with MSGN had a lower density of intratumoral HLA-DR+ cells than those with PA (p=0.001), Ki-67 immunostaining was significantly higher in MSGN than in PA (6% vs. 1.4%, p<0.001). Metastatic MSGN showed less intratumoral CD1a+ than non-metastatic (3.2 vs. 165.1, p=0.001). No differences in intra- and peritumoral CD83+ cells were found between benign and malignant SGN. CONCLUSIONS: These results suggest that the immune-protective function of intratumoral DCs is compromised in MSGNs. DCs markers may represent useful prediction tools for metastases in salivary gland malignancies, with crucial implications in the implementation of appropriate disease management strategies.

Plasma miRNAs as biomarkers for endometriosis.

STUDY QUESTION: Can plasma miRNAs be used for the non-invasive diagnosis of endometriosis in infertile women? SUMMARY ANSWER: miRNA-based diagnostic models for endometriosis failed the test of independent validation. WHAT IS KNOWN ALREADY: Circulating miRNAs have been described to be differentially expressed in patients with endometriosis compared with women without endometriosis, suggesting that they could be used for the non-invasive diagnosis of endometriosis. However, these studies have shown limited consistency or conflicting results, and no miRNA-based diagnostic test has been validated in an independent patient cohort. STUDY DESIGN, SIZE, DURATION: We performed genome-wide miRNA expression profiling by small RNA sequencing to identify a set of plasma miRNAs with discriminative potential between patients with and without endometriosis. Expression of this set of miRNAs was confirmed by RT-qPCR. Diagnostic models were built using multivariate logistic regression with stepwise feature selection. In a final step, the models were tested for validation in an independent patient cohort. PARTICIPANTS/MATERIALS, SETTINGS, METHODS: Plasma of all patients was available in the biobank of the Leuven Endometriosis Centre of Excellence. Biomarker discovery and model development were performed in a discovery cohort of 120 patients (controls = 38, endometriosis = 82), and models were tested for validation in an independent cohort of 90 patients (controls = 30, endometriosis = 60). RNA was extracted with the miRNeasy Plasma Kit. Genome-wide miRNA expression analysis was done by small RNA sequencing using the NEBNext small RNA library prep kit and the NextSeq 500 System. cDNA synthesis and qPCR were performed using the Qiagen miScript technology. MAIN RESULTS AND THE ROLE OF CHANCE: We identified a set of 42 miRNAs with discriminative power between patients with and without endometriosis based on genome-wide miRNA expression profiling. Expression of 41 miRNAs was confirmed by RT-qPCR, and 3 diagnostic models were built. Only the model for minimal-mild endometriosis (Model 2: hsa-miR-125b-5p, hsa-miR-28-5p and hsa-miR-29a-3p) had diagnostic power above chance performance in the independent validation (AUC = 60%) with an acceptable sensitivity (78%) but poor specificity (37%). LIMITATIONS, REASONS FOR CAUTION: The diagnostic models were built and tested for validation in two patient cohorts from a single tertiary endometriosis centre. Further validation tests in large cohorts with patients from multiple endometriosis centres are needed. WIDER IMPLICATION OF THE FINDINGS: Our study supports a possible biological link between certain miRNAs and endometriosis, but the potential of these miRNAs as clinically useful biomarkers is questionable in women with infertility. Large studies in well-described patient cohorts, with rigorous methodology for miRNA expression analysis, sufficient statistical power and an independent validation step, are necessary to answer the question of whether miRNAs can be used as diagnostics markers for endometriosis. STUDY FUNDING/COMPETING INTEREST(S): The project was funded by a grant from the Research Foundation - Flanders (FWO). A.V., D.F.O. and D.P. are PhD fellows from the FWO. T.D. is vice president and Head of Global Medical Affairs Fertility, Research and Development, Merck KGaA, Darmstadt, Germany. He is also a professor in Reproductive Medicine and Biology at the Department of Development and Regeneration, Group Biomedical Sciences, KU Leuven (University of Leuven), Belgium and an adjunct professor at the Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology in the University of Yale, New Haven, USA. Neither his corporate role nor his academic roles represent a conflict of interest with respect to the work done by him for this study. The other co-authors have no conflict of interest. TRIAL REGISTRATION NUMBER: Not applicable.

Induction of cellular proliferation in a human astrocytoma cell line by a Trypanosoma cruzi-derived antigen: a mechanism of pathogenesis?

Trypanosoma cruzi can compromise the human central nervous system (CNS) during acute infection or reactivation in immune-suppressed hosts. Astrocytes have been identified as targets of T. cruzi's CNS infection in humans. Despite a high degree of parasitism and cellular lysis by T. cruzi in vitro the number of astrocytoma cells did not change when compared to uninfected cultures. This work evaluated cellular proliferation, changes in Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) expression as a reflection of antigen processing, and cytokine (IL-6 & IL-8) secretion in a human astrocytoma cell line exposed to a trypomastigote-derived antigen. Light microscopy was used to evaluate the number of cells; MHC molecule expression, cell cycle and cytokine secretion were assessed by flow cytometry. The number of astrocytoma cells increased proportional to the amount of antigen used and the percentage of cells in G2/M phase was higher when compared to control cultures. Antigen exposure increased expression of MHC class II, but not MHC class I in comparison to cultures incubated without antigen. Astrocytoma cell secretion of IL-6 and IL-8 was unaffected by antigen exposure. These results suggest the participation of a trypomastigote-derived mediator that induces astrocytoma cell proliferation without an inflammatory response; which may contribute to the pathogenesis of neurologic Chagas disease.

[Translated article] Analysis of the results and adverse factors of arthroscopic repair of degenerative subscapular lesions.

OBJECTIVE: To carry out a review of degenerative subscapularis ruptures (SSC) after their arthroscopic repair and to evaluate whether the results are comparable in terms of pain and function to those of younger patients with traumatic ruptures. METHODS: The data of 80 SSC tears of the 660 rotator cuff tears operated on by the same team of surgeons from June 2008 to June 2018 were retrospectively reviewed. The clinical data of the surgical indications were collected: age, gender, laterality, intervention delay, associated pathologies, location of pain, value of the Visual Analogue Scale (VAS) and the Constant-Murley test (CMT); surgical data were also collected: type and size of lesion, associated biceps injury and associated surgical procedure, coracoid stenosis and associated surgical procedure, number and type of anchors used. A statistical study was performed with multiple linear regression test, parametric tests (Student's t or ANOVA) and non-parametric tests. RESULTS: Of 80 patients, 36 were women (45%) and 44, men (55%); mean age 61 years (range 47-81); mean delay of surgery 3.5 months (range 1-6); right shoulder affected in 46 cases (57.5%), left in 34 (42.5%); 22 (27.5%) were isolated lesions, 58 (72.5%) were associated with supraspinatus rupture (SE). The mean improvement was 5.0 points in terms of the VAS and 39.9 points on average in the CMT. New breakage rate, 1.25%. Adverse factors: size of the tear, delay in intervention, women. Patients with type I-B rupture have a better overall result in the CMT than types I-A and III. The longer the delay, the worse results are observed, both for the VAS and the CMT. Women present worse and statistically significant results both in the VAS (p 0.00) and in the CMT (p 0.01). CONCLUSIONS: Excellent and good results have been obtained in this group of patients, but there are adverse factors such as the size of the tear, the duration of the symptoms and the association of other pathologies, especially in women.

Analysis of the results and adverse factors of arthroscopic repair of degenerative subscapular lesions. / Análisis de los resultados y los factores adversos de la reparación artroscópica de las lesiones del subescapular de origen degenerativo.

OBJECTIVE: To carry out a review of degenerative subscapularis ruptures (SSC) after their arthroscopic repair and to evaluate whether the results are comparable in terms of pain and function to those of younger patients with traumatic ruptures. METHODS: The data of 80 SSC tears of the 660 rotator cuff tears operated on by the same team of surgeons from June 2008 to June 2018 were retrospectively reviewed. The clinical data of the surgical indications were collected: age, gender, laterality, intervention delay, associated pathologies, location of pain, value of the Visual Analogue Scale (VAS) and the Constant-Murley test (CMT); surgical data were also collected: type and size of lesion, associated biceps injury and associated surgical procedure, coracoid stenosis and associated surgical procedure, number and type of anchors used. A statistical study was performed with multiple linear regression test, parametric tests (Student's t or ANOVA) and non-parametric tests. RESULTS: Of 80 patients, 36 were women (45%) and 44, men (55%); mean age 61years (range 47 to 81); mean delay of surgery 3.5months (range 1 to 6); right shoulder affected in 46 cases (57.5%), left in 34 (42.5%); 22 (27.5%) were isolated lesions, 58 (72.5%) were associated with supraspinatus rupture (SE). The mean improvement was 5.0 points in terms of the VAS and 39.9 points on average in the CMT. New breakage rate, 1.25%. Adverse factors: size of the tear, delay in intervention, women. Patients with type I-B rupture have a better overall result in the CMT than types I-A and III. The longer the delay, the worse results are observed, both for the VAS and the CMT. Women present worse and statistically significant results both in the VAS (P=.00) and in the CMT (P=.01). CONCLUSIONS: Excellent and good results have been obtained in this group of patients, but there are adverse factors such as the size of the tear, the duration of the symptoms and the association of other pathologies, especially in women.

When to use a prophylactic mesh after stoma closure: a case-control study.

PURPOSE: The closure of a stoma is frequently associated with an acceptable morbidity and mortality. One of the most frequent complications is incisional hernia at the stoma site, which occurs in 20%-40% of cases, higher than incisions in other parts of the abdomen. The objective of this study was to identify the risk factors associated with the presentation of incisional hernia after stoma closure, this in order to select patients who are candidates for prophylactic mesh placement during closure. METHODS: An unpaired case-control study was conducted. This study involved 164 patients who underwent a stoma closure between January 2014 and December 2019. Associated factors for the development of incisional hernia at the site of the stoma after closure were identified, for which it was performed a logistic regression analysis. RESULTS: 41 cases and 123 controls were analyzed, with a mean follow-up of 35.21 ± 18.42 months, the mean age for performing the stoma closure was 65.28 ± 14.07 years, the most frequent cause for performing the stoma was malignant disease (65.85%). Risk factor for the development of incisional hernia at the stoma site after its closure was identified as a history of parastomal hernia (OR 5.90, CI95% 1.97-17.68). CONCLUSIONS: The use of prophylactic mesh at stoma closure should be considered in patients with a history of parastomal hernia since these patients present a significantly higher risk of developing a hernia.

Combination Blockade of the IL6R/STAT-3 Axis with TIGIT and Its Impact on the Functional Activity of NK Cells against Prostate Cancer Cells.

Methods: We analyzed the secretion of cytokines, chemokines, and growth factors in 22Rv1, LNCaP, and DU145 cells. In these cells, we also evaluated the expression of NK ligands, IL6R, STAT-3, and phosporylated STAT-3. In NK-92 cells, we evaluated the effects of Stattic (Stt) and tocilizumab (Tcz) on NK receptors. In addition, we assessed if the disruption of the IL6R/STAT-3 pathway and blockade of TIGIT potentiated the cytotoxicity of NK-92 cells versus DU145 cells. Results: DU145 abundantly secretes M-CSF, VEGF, IL-6, CXCL8, and TGF-ß. Furthermore, the expression of CD155 was found to increase in accordance with aggressiveness and metastatic status in the prostate cancer cells. Stt and Tcz induce a decrease in STAT-3 phosphorylation in the DU145 cells and, in turn, induce an increase of NKp46 and a decrease of TIGIT expression in NK-92 cells. Finally, the disruption of the IL6R/STAT-3 axis in prostate cancer cells and the blocking of TIGIT on NK-92 were observed to increase the cytotoxicity of NK-92 cells against DU145 cells through an increase in sFasL, granzyme A, granzyme B, and granulysin. Conclusions: Our results reveal that the combined use of inhibitors directed against the IL6R/STAT-3 axis and TIGIT enhances the functional activity of NK cells against castration-resistant prostate cancer cells.

Use of polyvinylidene fluoride (PVDF) meshes for ventral hernia repair in emergency surgery.

PURPOSE: The implantation of non-absorbable meshes is the gold standard technique for ventral hernia (VH) repairs. However, emergency surgeries are often related to contaminated/infected fields, where the implantation of prosthetic materials may not be recommendable. Our aim was to evaluate the results of polyvinylidene fluoride (PVDF) meshes used for contaminated and/or complicated VH repairs in the acute setting. METHODS: We conducted a retrospective analysis of patients with VH who underwent emergency surgery involving PVDF meshes, in a tertiary hospital (from November 2013 to September 2019). We analyzed postoperative complications and 1-year recurrence rates. We evaluated the relationships between contamination grade, mesh placement, infectious complications, and recurrences. RESULTS: We gathered data on 123 patients; their mean age was 62.3 years, their mean BMI was 31.1 kg/m2, and their mean CeDAR index was 51.6. 96.4% of patients had a grade 2-3 ventral hernia according to the Rosen index. The mean defect width was 8 cm (IQR 2-18). 93 cases (75.6%) were described as contaminated or dirty surgeries. A PVDF mesh was placed using an IPOM technique in 56.3% of cases, and via interposition location in 39.9%. The one-month recurrence rate was 5.7% and recurrence after one year was 19.1%. The overall mortality rate was 27.6%. Risk of recurrence was related to patients with a Rosen score over 2 (p < 0.001), as well as with postoperative SSI (p = 0.045). Higher recurrence rates were not related to PVDF mesh placement. CONCLUSION: The use of PVDF meshes for emergency VH repairs in contaminated surgeries seems safe and useful, with reasonable recurrence rates, and acceptable infectious complication rates, similar to those published in the literature.

Capsaicin attenuates immunosuppression induced by chronic stress in BALB/C mice.

Although acute stress generally exerts positive effects on the immune system, chronic stress typically causes immunosuppression via the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. In this study, the effects of capsaicin (1.28 mg/kg intraperitoneally [i.p.] for 7 days) on immune parameters were evaluated under conditions of chronic stress. Capsaicin treatment significantly increased the immune response as evaluated by the delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) reaction to dinitrofluorobenzene (DNFB) and splenocyte proliferation assays- It also is able to rescue the splenocytes of the apoptosis induced by stress. The capsaicin treatment increased the production of Th1 cytokines and decreased the production of Th2 cytokines and TGF-ß1 in the plasma and culture supernatants of immunosuppressed mice, which is associated with the modulation of Th2 induced by stress cells. Moreover, the production of corticosterone significantly decreased in capsaicin-treated animals as compared to control groups. The capsaicin treatment further attenuated the immunosuppression induced by the corticosterone treatment (40 mg/kg i.p. for 7 days), albeit less potently, as exhibited in the DTH response. Intriguingly, the capsaicin treatment decreased the induction of IL-10, IL-4, and TGF-ß1 through high doses of corticosterone, indicating direct cellular immunomodulation. These results show, that capsaicin is able to modulate chronic stress-induced immunosuppression, mediating corticosterone released inhibition, but also, that capsaicin significantly modulates the pharmacological action of corticosterone in vivo.

Frequency of specific CD8+ T cells for a promiscuous epitope derived from Trypanosoma cruzi KMP-11 protein in chagasic patients.

The K1 peptide is a CD8(+)T cell HLA-A*0201-restricted epitope derived from the Trypanosoma cruzi KMP-11 protein. We have previously shown that this peptide induces IFN-gamma secretion by CD8(+)T cells. The aim of this study was to characterize the frequency of K1-specific CD8(+)T cells in chagasic patients. Nineteen HLA-A2(+)individuals were selected from 50 T. cruzi infected patients using flow cytometry and SSP-PCR assays. Twelve HLA-A*0201(+)noninfected donors were included as controls. Peripheral blood mononuclear cells were stained with HLA-A2-K1 tetramer, showing that 15 of 19 infected patients have K1-specific CD8(+)T cells (0.09-0.34% frequency) without differences in disease stages or severity. Of note, five of these responders were A*0205, A*0222, A*0226, A*0259 and A*0287 after molecular typing. Thus, a phenotypic and functional comparison of K1-specific CD8(+)T cells from non-HLA-A*0201 and HLA-A*0201(+)infected patients was performed. The results showed that both non-HLA-A*0201 and HLA-A*0201(+)individuals have a predominant effector memory CD8(+)T cell phenotype (CCR7-, CD62L-). Moreover, CD8(+)T cells from non-HLA-A*0201 and HLA-A*0201(+)individuals expressed IL-2, IFN-gamma and perforin without any differences. These findings support that K1 peptide is a promiscuous epitope presented by HLA-A2 supertype molecules and is highly recognized by chagasic patients.

Specific pattern of flea antigen recognition by IgG subclass and IgE during the progression of papular urticaria caused by flea bite.

BACKGROUND: Papular urticaria caused by flea bite presents clinical symptoms of a hypersensitivity reaction accompanied by skin lesions. However, the pattern of recognition by different antibody isotypes during the progression of the disease is unknown. This study evaluated variations in immunoglobulin E and immunoglobulin G subclass antibody responses to flea antigens during the progression of papular urticaria caused by flea bite METHODS: Twenty-five patients clinically diagnosed with papular urticaria due to flea bite were included. Ten healthy children were included as controls. Recognition of antigens from complete flea body extract by patients and healthy controls was determined using immunoblot assays. RESULTS: The results revealed that patients with 2-5 years of papular urticaria evidenced more IgE bands than those with shorter or longer durations of symptoms. In contrast, healthy children showed a predominance of immunoglobulin G1 and immunoglobulin G3. The majority of the recognised antigens were low molecular weight proteins (<90 kDa). Proteins with molecular weights between 16-20, 21-25, and 31-35 kDa showed different patterns of recognition between patients and healthy children. CONCLUSION: The predominant specific antibody isotypes vary according to the time elapsed since the onset of symptoms in papular urticaria caused by flea bite.

Mutations in rpoB and katG genes in Mycobacterium isolates from the Southeast of Mexico.

The most frequent mutations associated with rifampin and isoniazid resistance in Mycobacterium are the substitutions at codons 531 and 315 in the rpoB and katG genes, respectively. Hence, the aim of this study was to characterize these mutations in Mycobacterium isolates from patients suspected to be infected with drug-resistant (DR) pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) in Veracruz, Mexico. Drug susceptibility testing of 25 clinical isolates revealed that five were susceptible while 20 (80%) were DR (15% of the annual prevalence for Veracruz). Of the DR isolates, 15 (75%) were resistant to rifampin, 17 (85%) to isoniazid and 15 (75%) were resistant to both drugs (MDR). Sequencing analysis performed in the isolates showed that 14 (93%) had mutations in the rpoB gene; seven of these (47%) exhibited a mutation at 531 (S-->L). Ten (58%) of the 20 resistant isolates showed mutations in katG; nine (52%) of these 10 exhibited a mutation at 315 (S-->T). In conclusion, the DR profile of the isolates suggests a significant number of different DR-TB strains with a low frequency of mutation at codons 531 and 315 in rpoB and katG, respectively. This result leads us to consider different regions of the same genes, as well as other genes for further analysis, which is important if a genetic-based diagnosis of DR-TB is to be developed for this region.

[Effect of an intensive nutritional treatment in nutritional status of head and neck cancer patients in stages III and IV]. / Evaluación del impacto de un tratamiento nutricional intensivo sobre el estado nutricional de pacientes con cáncer de cabeza y cuello en estadio III y IV.

OBJECTIVE: Malnutrition and accelerated weight loss are frequent secondary diagnosis in patients with cancer. Head and neck cancer (H & N Cancer) affects nutritional status because of the tumor type and localization. The aim of the study was to assess the effect of an intensive nutritional treatment (INT) on nutritional status of H & N cancer patients, stages III and IV and to compare that with a historical control whose nutritional treatment was conventional (CT). METHODS: All patients were nutritionally assessed before oncological treatment started (anthropometrical, biochemical, and dietetically). A nutritional feeding plan according to their nutritional personal need was calculated. In case it was impossible to cover all the nutritional requirements orally, a feeding tube was placed. Nutritional follow up was performed each 21 days, during their oncological treatment in four occasions. The results obtained were compared with those obtained from the patients who received the CT that consisted only in nutritional counseling by the attending physician; the statistical test used was Mann Whitney U test. RESULTS: The INT was associated with maintenance of the nutritional status along their oncological treatment. The statistical significant parameters were: weight 55 to 47 kg in the CT group vs 59 a 58 kg in the INT group (p < 0.0001), and hemoglobin: from 13 to 11 g/dl in the CT group vs 14 to 13 g/dl in the INT group (p < 0.002) as the most important ones. In the rest of the data we can observe a clear tendency of increasing the nutrition parameters in patients the INT group, while in the CT group, they showed a persistent decrease. CONCLUSION: We concluded that patients who received the INT as part of their oncological treatment deteriorated less their nutritional status than those who received a CT.

Regulation of immunophenotype modulation of monocytes-macrophages from M1 into M2 by prostate cancer cell-culture supernatant via transcription factor STAT3.

BACKGROUND: Transcription factor STAT3 has a prominent innate immunity effect on cancer progression. We determined the regulation of STAT3 in the immunophenotype modulation of macrophages from M1 into M2 induced by the cell-culture supernatant of the Prostate-Cancer line PC3. METHODS: Monocytes-macrophages from healthy donors were cultured in the supernatant of PC3 cells, membrane proteins, and intracytoplasmic and phosphorylated STAT3 were measured using flow cytometry, while cytokines and growth factors were studied using luminescence. Cytotoxicity and nitric oxide were evaluated via colorimetric assays. RESULTS: The supernatant of PC3 prostate-tumor cells effectively induced macrophages toward an M2 profile, and the expression of phosphorylated STAT3 in the monocytes-macrophages notably increased, and mainly related to IL-10. In the group of monocytes-macrophages treated with a STAT3 inhibitor, the macrophages were induced toward an M1 phenotype. CONCLUSIONS: In this study, we showed that the secretion profile of PC3 prostate-cancer cells induces a change in macrophage phenotype from M1 into M2, and that the phenomenon is related to phosphorylation of transcription factor STAT3 and IL-10.

Immunological and structural characterization of an epitope from the Trypanosoma cruzi KMP-11 protein.

The K1 peptide is an HLA-A*0201-restricted cytotoxic epitope derived from the Trypanosoma cruzi KMP-11 protein, this being the etiological agent of Chagas' disease. This work describes the K1 peptide's secondary structure and its recognition by sera from chagasic patients. Circular dichroism and NMR spectroscopy analysis revealed that the K1 peptide adopts an alpha-helical conformation. Fifty-six percent of individuals had anti-K1 and 86% anti-KMP-11 antibodies by ELISA in the chronic Chagas' group and 28 and 68% in the indeterminate Chagas' group, respectively. By contrast, no reactivity was observed in sera from healthy individuals and tuberculosis patients. Antibody response subclass specificity to the K1 peptide was IgG1 and IgG3. Taken together these results support the idea that the K1 peptide acts as a B-cell-inducer epitope during Chagas' disease.

[Retinopathy of prematurity and oxidative stress]. / Retinopatía del prematuro y estrés oxidativo.

INTRODUCTION: There is some evidence that retinopathy of prematurity is due to excessive oxidative stress on the developing retina caused by high free radical production or reduced ability to eliminate these radicals. OBJECTIVE: To determine the relationship between high levels of oxidative stress and retinopathy of prematurity. MATERIAL AND METHODS: A prospective cohort study was designed. Fifty premature infants of less than 33 weeks' gestational age were included. Serum lipoperoxide levels were determined as a measure of oxidative stress. Samples were taken once a week for 1 month, starting from the first week of life. The results of all four samples were compared between infants who developed any degree of retinopathy of prematurity and those without it. Ophthalmological examinations were performed after the fourth week of life. RESULTS: The incidence of retinopathy of prematurity was 22 % (11/50). The mean values of all the samples showed a significant difference between infants who developed retinopathy of prematurity (5.44 +/- 1.30 nmol/ml) and those who did not (2.94 +/- 0.89 nmol/ml, p = 0.0001). The relative risk of developing retinopathy of prematurity with high serum lipoperoxide levels was 5.15, 5.63, 4.15 and 12.70 for each of the weekly samples. CONCLUSIONS: There is an association between high serum lipoperoxide levels, as a measure of oxidative stress, and the incidence of retinopathy of prematurity.

Enhanced activity of mouse peritoneal cells after aclacinomycin administration.

We have investigated the activation of mouse peritoneal macrophages by injection of aclacinomycin (ACM). Macrophages from ACM-treated mice have an increased phagocytic activity as measured by Candida ingestion. The microbicidal activity indirectly evaluated by chemiluminescence and superoxide determination in response to stimulation with zymosan and 4 beta-phorbol-12-myristate-13 alpha-acetate is also greater in the cells from treated mice. Direct measurement of the cytostatic function, and of in vitro and in vivo cytotoxicity shows comparable significant increases against L1210 or P815 target cells. The enhanced antitumoral activity could not be attributed to the residual presence of ACM in the peritoneal cells since no drug was detected by high-performance liquid chromatography and since their freeze-thaw lysates incubated with P815 cells did not modify the growth of tumor cells as measured by [3H]-thymidine incorporation. We also checked that the presence of ACM did not influence the intensity of the chemiluminescence. In all tests performed, only i.p. ACM administration could stimulate the peritoneal cells. Since the doses of ACM inducing an increase in macrophage activity are effective on the survival of tumor-bearing mice, the participation of this mechanism in tumor control might be suggested.

Enhanced activity of murine peritoneal cells after aclacinomycin injection: characteristics of the enhanced respiratory burst.

After the i.p. injection into normal mice, of 4 mg/kg of aclacinomycin (ACM), a dose which prolongs the survival of tumor-bearing mice, the zymosan-elicited chemoluminescence (CL) of the peritoneal cells (PC) is greater than that of control cells. The volume in which the drug is administered plays an important role in the intensity of the response. ACM also stimulated the CL of PC from tumor-bearing mice. It is known that CL can also be elicited by soluble stimuli such as 4 beta-phorbol-12-myristate-13 alpha-acetate or Ca2+ ionophore A 23187, which, however, act in different ways. The response of ACM cells to these stimuli is also greater than in control cells. The enhanced CL of ACM-treated cells can be inhibited by incubating in vitro the zymosan-triggered PC with superoxide dismutase (300 units/ml) and catalase (2750 units/ml), but not with ethanol (20 microM) or potassium cyanide (100 microM). This indicates the participation of O2- and H2O2 in the CL of ACM-treated cells, whereas mitochondrial respiration does not appear to be involved. Furthermore, the following facts suggest the participation of arachidonic acid metabolism in the control of CL: (a) the in vitro addition of nordihydroguaiaretic acid (7 x 10(-6) M) and indomethacin (10(-3) M) inhibits the CL, while indomethacin (10(-6) M) has the opposite effect; (b) the PC from normal or ACM-treated mice when stimulated with zymosan secrete high amounts of prostaglandin (PG); (c) treated cells secrete the same amounts of PGE2 and 6-keto-PGF1 alpha but the secretion of PGF2 alpha and particularly of thromboxane B2 is greater in treated cells than in control cells and indomethacin (10(-6) M) strongly inhibits PG secretion in all groups; (d) in vitro addition of PGE2 at a concentration of 10(-6) M has an inhibitory effect on the CL emission of control and of treated cells, but it does not have this effect at lower concentrations (10(-8) M). These data suggest that the lipoxygenase pathway of arachidonic acid metabolism may be involved in the triggering of CL of ACM-treated cells, as well as that of normal cells, whereas products of the cyclooxygenase pathway may act as feedback inhibitors.

Enhanced activity of peritoneal cells after aclacinomycin injection: effect of pretreatment with superoxide dismutase on aclacinomycin-induced cytological alterations and antitumoral activity.

Peritoneal macrophages from mice injected with aclacinomycin (ACM) (4 mg/kg, i.p.) showed increased functional activity, as assessed by increased antitumoral activity in vitro and in vivo and zymosan-triggered chemoluminescence. They also showed ultrastructural signs of activation (increased number of cytoplasmic organelles), and atypical alterations (giant vacuoles and giant lysosomes containing heterogenous myelinoid bodies, lipofuscine-like substance, cytoplasmic debris, and a fine granular material). As these atypical alterations could be due to the generation of superoxide following ACM injection, superoxide dismutase (SOD) was injected 1 h prior to ACM administration. Neither the morphological characteristics of activation, nor the enhanced metabolic and antitumoral activities induced by ACM were affected by SOD pretreatment, but the atypical alterations were inhibited in a dose-dependent manner. Heat-inactivated SOD did not prevent their appearance. The atypical alterations were not found in peritoneal macrophages from talc or lipopolysaccharide-injected mice, but they were present in Adriamycin-treated mice and were also prevented by SOD pretreatment, indicating that the alterations are due to anthracycline treatment. Finally, [125I]SOD was phagocytized by peritoneal macrophages in vitro and in vivo and not by L1210 tumoral cells, explaining why the atypical alterations induced by ACM were no longer seen after SOD pretreatment. The unchanged direct oncostatic activity of ACM following SOD pretreatment suggests that this combination may have some wider perhaps clinical, potential.