Evaluation of physical and mental health status of orphan children living in orphanages in Sonitpur district of Assam: a cross-sectional study.

BACKGROUND: Orphan children living in orphanages are often neglected. These children's physical and mental health status is essential as they are highly prone to malnourishment and psychosocial distress. We aim to evaluate the orphan children's physical and psychosocial status living in orphanages. METHODS: This study adopted a cross-sectional research design conducted with the children living in the orphanages using a pretested, predesigned schedule. A total of 83 children (aged 5 to 19 years) living in three different orphanages in the Sonitpur District of Assam were randomly selected for the study. Body Mass Index (BMI) for age and height were then determined using WHO standards. Thinness was defined as BMI for age below -2 SD (Standard Deviation) and thinness as height for age below -2 SD. The behavioural and mental status of children aged 10-19 years were evaluated using the Strengths and Difficulties Questionnaire (SDQ-21) with a cut-off value of SDQ score > 15 as the presence of emotional and behavioural distress. RESULTS: Almost 50% of orphans were in the age group of 10-14 years, 62.7% were females, and 42.2% had a primary level of education. 52.5% of orphans exhibited severe thinness for < -3 SD. Observed severe thinness more among the 5-9 years and 10-14 years (p-value < 0.05) group and among the male orphans (p-value < 0.05). Of 65 children aged 10-19, 18.5% had behavioural and mental distress. Emotional (32.3%) and poor conduct problems (23%) were observed significantly among male adolescents. CONCLUSIONS: Orphaned children, particularly those living in orphanages, are at risk of malnutrition and experience behavioural and psychosocial problems. Frequent assessments of their physical and mental health are advocated for early detection, prevention, and timely intervention.

Enamel Surface Damage following Debonding of Ceramic Brackets: A Hospital-Based Study.

METHODS: The current study includes 80 extracted premolars of human from the patient visiting for orthodontic treatment of Coorg Institute of Dental Sciences, Karnataka, India. The brackets were debonded using four different methods. The enamel surface damage after the procedure was assessed with the Enamel Surface Index (ESI); similarly, the Adhesive Remnant Index (ARI) score was used to determine the adhesive residual deposit. Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) was used to visualize better microporosities and micromechanical retention of adhesive remnants on the enamel surface. The normality of the data was tested using the Kolmogorov-Smirnov test. Depending upon the normality test result, the one-way ANOVA test or Kruskal-Wallis test was used to test the mean ESI and mean ARI differences among different debonding methods along with the appropriate post hoc tests. The necessary ethical clearance was obtained from the Ethics Committee of the institute. RESULTS: The ultrasonic scaler (US) technique led to more significant enamel surface damage, with 13 (65%) samples in the ESI scores III and IV against the satisfactory surface in 2 (10%) samples with the ligature cutter (LC) technique (ESI-I) reflecting LC as a better technique. The ESI scores (III and IV) for debonding plier (DP) and thermal method (TM) reflected a higher value in 12 (60%) and 10 (50%) samples and caused more damage to the enamel surface as compared to the LC technique. The ARI score was highest (ARI-1 = 40%) with the LC technique, followed by the US (ARI-1 = 20%), TM (ARI-1 = 15%), and DP (ARI-1 = 5%) methods. We have observed a significant association (p value <0.05) of the ARI score among four different debonding ways in terms of each tooth's residual adhesive after the bracket removal. CONCLUSION: The result establishes the LC technique as a more acceptable one as it causes minimal harm to the debonded surface. The adhesive left on the debonded area is also minimum as compared to the other three methods tested. Therefore, it can be suggested as an ideal method.

Clinico-Epidemiological Profile of Vitiligo Among Patients Attending a Tertiary Care Centre of North-East India.

Objectives Vitiligo is a widespread cutaneous disorder. The present study aims to evaluate the epidemiologic profile of vitiligo and investigate its different clinical forms, disease activity, hereditary associations, triggering factors, and probable association with other diseases. Methods This prospective observational study was conducted over one year, from 2019 to 2020, and included 120 cases demonstrating definite clinical evidence of vitiligo. All selected patients underwent a detailed medical history interview. Specific enquiries were made regarding precipitating factors, clinical features of the disease, histories of other autoimmune diseases, and family histories. Thorough clinical, laboratory, and cutaneous examinations were performed on all patients. Descriptive statistical methods and diagrams were used to summarise the data. Results The age at presentation (31 patients, 25.8%) and the onset of the disease (32 patients, 26.6%) was predominantly in the second decade of life. The condition was usually progressive, with vitiligo vulgaris being the most prevalent type (56 cases, 46.7%). Disease onset (37 individuals, 30.8%) and the prevalence of lesions were higher in the lower leg. Body surface area involvement was ≤1% in 72 (60.0%) patients. Itching and trauma were the typical initiating factors. Leukotrichia in 38 (31.7%) cases, Koebner's phenomena in 23 (19.1%) cases, and a positive family history in 26 (21.7%) cases were observed. Thyroid dysfunction, hypertension, and various skin conditions are associated with the disease. Conclusion Vitiligo is more common in the young population. The condition is often progressive, with vitiligo vulgaris being the most common type. Itching and trauma are frequent initiating factors. Monitoring patients for associated diseases may be crucial for diagnosis and treatment outcomes.

Haematological Profile in Patients With Acute Falciparum Malaria: A Hospital-Based Study.

Introduction Malaria is the most common parasitic disease affecting humans. Haematological alterations in malaria are expected, and these changes play a significant role in fatal complications. The present study aims to assess the clinical and haematological profile in patients with acute falciparum malaria and the significance of various haematological and coagulation alterations with the clinical severity of malaria. Methods The prospective cross-sectional study included 68 acute falciparum malaria cases. Thick and thin blood film microscopy and a rapid diagnostic kit were used to diagnose malaria. The cases were subjected to various haematological and biochemical investigations. Bone marrow aspiration samples were also collected. Using appropriate statistical methods, the findings were compared between severe and uncomplicated malaria cases. A p-value below 0.05 was considered significant. Results The participants' ages ranged from 14 to 78. Most participants (n = 51, 75%) were male and belonged to the lower income group (33, 48.5%). Significant variations in mean parasite count between severe and uncomplicated malaria cases (p-value < 0.01) were observed. The severe and uncomplicated groups showed significant differences in haemoglobin (gm/dL), haematocrit, red blood cell count, reticulocyte, serum iron, and ESR levels (p-value < 0.05). The severe malaria group had considerably reduced mean platelet counts (p-value < 0.01). Only five instances (7.3%) had an appropriate erythropoietic response after day 28. Erythroid hyperplasia with dyserythropoietic alterations was most common in patients with severe anaemia and low-grade parasitaemia. Conclusion Acute falciparum malaria is often associated with haematological alterations. Anaemia and thrombocytopenia were the most expected alterations associated with disease prognosis and mortality.

Evaluation of IL-4 and IL-13 Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms and Their Association With Childhood Asthma and Its Severity: A Hospital-Based Case-Control Study.

BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES: Asthma is a common, chronic, atopic respiratory disease that is on the rise among children and adults worldwide. Various environmental, genetic, and biological interactions contribute to the surge in susceptibility to this disease. Interleukin (IL) genes, particularly IL-4 and IL-13, have been linked to asthma pathogenesis. The present study aims to investigate the genetic aberrations, specifically single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) of IL-4 and IL-13, and their association with childhood asthma and its severity. METHODS: An unmatched hospital-based case-control study was conducted in a tertiary care hospital in Assam, India. The sample size was calculated to be 120 (60 cases and 60 controls) using the Epi Info software version 7.2 (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Atlanta, GA, USA), assuming a confidence interval of 95%, a power of the study at 80%, a ratio of control to cases as 1, a proportion of controls with exposure at 22%, and a proportion of cases with exposure at 46%. A total of 53 clinically diagnosed cases of childhood asthma in the age range of three to 12 years and 39 healthy controls free from respiratory diseases and having no history of asthma and/or allergy of the same age group attending a tertiary care hospital were included in the study. Children who never had asthma or allergies and who did not suffer from any upper or lower respiratory infections for the previous four weeks were considered controls. Prior informed consent and ethical clearance were obtained. Very seriously ill cases and controls were excluded from the study. The genetic investigation used polymerase chain reaction (PCR), followed by restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP), to discover SNPs in the IL-4 and IL-13 genes. Sequencing analysis was done for the cases with +2044 G>A of the IL-13 gene in relation to the severity of the disease. The difference in the proportions of specific SNPs between cases and controls was analyzed using the χ2 test (a p-value of <0.05 was considered significant). RESULTS: Both the rs2070874 and rs2243250 polymorphisms of IL-4 showed no statistically significant associations. The mutation of the IL-13 gene in 1111C>T was higher among cases than controls. Both genotypic and allelic distributions of the +2044G>A polymorphism of the IL-13 gene revealed a significant association (p<0.05) with the severity of the disease. CONCLUSION: Genetic aberrations in SNPs of IL-4 and IL-13 are prevalent among the pediatric patients of the study region. The SNP +2044G>A of IL-13 is instrumental in disease manifestation and severity among the pediatric population of the study region.

The Pattern of Bacterial Infections Among Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media Cases at a Tertiary Care Centre in North-East India.

BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES: Chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) is a chronic inflammation of the mucoperiosteal lining of the middle ear cleft, presenting with recurrent ear discharge through a tympanic membrane perforation. The present study aims to assess the spectrum of bacterial infection among CSOM cases and detect the isolated organism's antibiotic sensitivity pattern. METHODS: The prospective hospital-based observational study was conducted from June 2021 to June 2022 and included 94 CSOM cases. An aural swab of the ear discharge was collected from each patient under aseptic precautions. The swab was utilized for Gram's staining and the aerobic bacterial pathogen culture. The organisms isolated were tested for antibiotic sensitivity using the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion method. RESULTS: The most affected age group was the second decade of life (27.7%, n=26), with a male-to-female ratio of 1.35:1. The mean duration of ear discharge was 24.0±14.7 months, mostly mucoid ear discharge (39.4%, n=37). Among gram-positive bacteria, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus was isolated in 16 (17.0%) cases. Pseudomonas aeruginosa was the most isolated gram-negative bacteria strain in 26 (27.7%) cases. Cotrimoxazole (67.7%, n=21) had the highest sensitivity towards gram-positive bacteria isolates. Amongst gram-negative bacteria, amikacin and ciprofloxacin were the most sensitive, with 78.0% (n=39) susceptibility. CONCLUSION: Evaluating the spectrum of infecting organisms of CSOM and their antibiotic sensitivity may help initiate prompt treatment with the appropriate antibiotic regimen, thereby preventing future complications.

Ultrasonographical Evaluation of Placenta Previa in Scarred and Unscarred Uterus in a Tertiary Care Centre.

Objectives Placenta previa is characterised as the placenta implant in the lower uterine segment, wholly or partially covering the internal os. Uterine scars from surgical operations are a potential factor of placenta previa. The present study aims to estimate the role of ultrasound in determining the incidence of placenta previa in the scarred and unscarred uterus. Also, it aims to evaluate the types of placenta previa in the scarred and unscarred uterus. Methods This hospital-based, prospective, observational study was performed from September 2021 to August 2022 among patients referred to the Department of Radiology, Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed Medical College and Hospital (FAAMCH), Barpeta, Assam. Written informed consent was obtained from the subjects. Transabdominal and transvaginal ultrasonography methods were used to assess placenta previa. The data analysis was performed using Statistical Package for the Social Sciences (SPSS) version 21 (IBM Corp., Armonk, NY) considering a p-value < 0.05 as significant. Results Out of the 517 subjects with bleeding per vagina, 41 (7.9%) were diagnosed with placenta previa by ultrasonography. The mean maternal age was 27.80 ± 5.36 years, and the most prevalent age group was 20-24 years (31.71%). The majority (70.73%) of cases had scarred uterus. The most prevalent placental position was fundo-body anterior. Complete placenta previa was present in 26% of the total cases in the present study. Conclusion The incidence of placenta previa in the scarred uterus was higher than that of the unscarred uterus. The high prevalence of placenta previa in women with scarred uterus necessitates improved monitoring and management to avoid disastrous outcomes.

Oral Cancer Hazards Related to Tobacco Use and a Transtheoretical Model Assessment of Preparedness of Individuals With Oral Potentially Malignant Disorders to Quit Tobacco Use.

Objectives There is a lack of knowledge on oral cancer and oral potentially malignant disorders (OPMDs) among the local communities of Northeast India. Since the habit of tobacco is linked to the culture and oral cancer is a widespread epidemic here, it is pertinent to assess the knowledge about risk factors and readiness to quit the habit among the study population. Methods The present research was done in the Tobacco Cessation Centre (TCC), Department of Public Health Dentistry (PHD) of Regional Dental College (RDC), Guwahati, Assam, from Jan 2023 to June 2023. This cross-sectional research was done among 200 patients aged 15-65 years. We have utilised the transtheoretical model (TTM) for assessing behaviour change. Oral inspection using a mouth mirror and explorer with adequate illumination was used to visualise the lesions. Data was collected through a self-administered questionnaire. Chi-square and odds ratio (OR) tests were used to see the association among the variables. The data was analysed with Microsoft Excel (Microsoft Corporation, Redmond, Washington) and IBM SPSS Statistics for Windows, Version 23 (Released 2015; IBM Corp., Armonk, New York, United States). A p-value less than 0.5 is considered to be statistically significant. Results Of the 200 participants, 64(32%) had some oral lesions linked to tobacco use. A significant correlation was observed between the oral lesions and TTM stages (OR=2.81, p<0.05). Among the participants, most were aware only of tobacco (68%) and quid chewing (58%) practices as risk reasons for developing oral cancer. Conclusion The study participants' awareness of OPMDs, their health risks, and clinical signs and symptoms could be higher. A significant relationship was seen between OPMDs and TTM behavioural stages.

Clinical and Immunological Profiles of HIV/AIDS Patients With First-Line Antiretroviral Treatment Failure Attending a Tertiary Care Hospital.

Objectives Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) has decreased morbidity and mortality among HIV/AIDS-infected patients; however, many patients experience treatment failure. The present study aims to evaluate HIV-infected patients' clinical and immunological profiles with first-line antiretroviral treatment (ART) failure (immunological and clinical) at tertiary care hospitals in Northeast India and explore related treatment failure factors. Methods The hospital-based observational study was conducted among HIV-infected patients with first-line ART failure attending a tertiary care hospital from July 1, 2019, to June 30, 2020. The type of first-line ART failure was defined as a clinical, immunological, or virological failure as decided by the State AIDS Clinical Expert Panel (SACEP) meeting. Data were analyzed with Windows MS Excel (Microsoft Corporation, Redmond, Washington) and Statistical Package for the Social Sciences (SPSS) version 21 (IBM Corp., Armonk, NY). Results Among the 90 HIV-infected patients experiencing first-line ART treatment failure, the majority, 38 (42.2%), were in the age group of 30-40 years, 64 (71.1%) were males, and 70 (77.8%) were of average weight. Tuberculosis was the most typical opportunistic infection, affecting 11 (12.2%) patients. Most patients (38.9%) were initially presented at clinical stage 3. Maximum failures were experienced by patients with baseline CD4 ranging from 100-200 cells/mm3, with 38 (42.2%) patients, and by patients on efavirenz (64.5%) and tenofovir-based regimens (56.6%). Failures occurred more for 24-30 months and were common among patients with adherence below 90%. Conclusion Treatment failure was more common among young male patients and those with normal body mass index (BMI). Low baseline CD4 count and poor adherence were influential in the occurrence of treatment failure. First-line ART failure was higher in tenofovir- and efavirenz-based regimens.

Sexual Dimorphism in Teeth Dimension and Arch Perimeter of Individuals of Four Ethnic Groups of Northeastern India.

Objectives There is a disparity between males and females when it comes to size and appearance. In forensic and anthropological investigations, it is crucial to identify an unknown individual's gender, and it is possible to discern individual differences based on differences in dental features among populations. For identifying individuals, tooth dimensions are an effective, simple, and low-cost means of determining sex. Based on dental casts, this study aims to assess sexual dimorphism among four ethnic tribes of Northeast India using the mesiodistal (MD) dimension of canines and arch perimeter (AP) of the upper and lower jaws. Methods In each of the four ethnic groups studied, 50 males and 50 females with dental casts were measured in millimetres for the MD dimension of canines and AP of the upper and lower jaws. SPSS version 20 (IBM Corp., Armonk, NY) was used to analyze the data based on Student's t-test, considering a p-value of <0.05 as significant. Results Males had significantly larger MD dimensions of canines in the maxillary and mandibular jaws (p-value<0.05). The AP of both maxilla and mandible are higher in males than females in all four ethnic groups. However, the difference between the two genders for the AP of the maxilla is statistically significant only in Meitei and Singpho groups (p-value<0.05). In the case of the mandibular jaw, the AP was significantly lower in females in all four ethnic groups (p-value<0.05). Conclusion Significant sexual dimorphism exists among the individuals in the four ethnic group populations. The MD dimension and AP are essential to establish sexual dimorphism among populations. The MD dimension of the maxillary and mandibular canine and AP showed significant sexual dimorphism in the present study among all four ethnic groups.

Efficacy of Smear Layer Removal of Human Teeth Root Canals Using Herbal and Chemical Irrigants: An In Vitro Study.

Objectives Over many years, many intracanal irrigants have removed smear layers during routine root canal therapy. The efficacies of conventional endodontic chemical irrigants are documented, but limited research is available on herbal irrigants' role in the endodontic therapy irrigation protocol. This study aimed to evaluate endodontic irrigants' smear layer removal efficacy, namely, 3% sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl), 17% ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), green tea extract, and Triphala extract, using scanning electron microscopy (SEM) analysis. Methods Fifty freshly extracted human permanent maxillary and mandibular single-rooted teeth were collected from the Oral Surgery Department of Regional Dental College (RDC), Guwahati, India. The samples were divided into five groups with 10 teeth each: Group A: sterile distilled water (negative control), Group B: 3% NaOCl, Group C: 17% EDTA, Group D: green tea, and Group E: Triphala (citric acid). Each tooth was then longitudinally split and prepared for SEM inspection under 1000X magnification. The comparison of smear layer removal scores between the groups was done by the Kruskal-Wallis test and Mann-Whitney test, with the significance level set at p<0.01. Results The comparison of the overall mean smear scores and those at different root portions shows that Group C has the lowest mean score, followed by Group E. The pairwise comparison shows that the difference in the mean smear scores between Group C and the other four groups is statistically significant (p-value<0.05). Moreover, the difference in the overall, coronal, middle, and apical mean smear scores between Group A and Group E was highly significant (p-value<0.001). Conclusions The highest smear layer removal efficacy was observed in the samples treated with 17% EDTA. Moreover, the clearing efficacy of Triphala is significantly better than that of distilled water in smear layer removal.

Knowledge, Attitude, Practice and Preparedness toward COVID-19 Pandemic among Healthcare Workers in Designated COVID Hospitals of a North-Eastern State of India.

The knowledge, attitude, and practice (KAP) of healthcare workers (HCW) toward the COVID-19 pandemic influence their preparedness to accept the preventative measures. This study investigates KAP toward COVID-19 among the HCWs working in two designated COVID hospitals. It was a cross-sectional study. The overall KAP scores were calculated, and the difference in mean scores among various demographic and other variables was tested using t-test and one-way ANOVA. The participants were knowledgeable about transmission modes and disease symptoms and were aware of the preventive measures like hand sanitisations for 96% and 91% for wearing masks. Among the knowledgeable group, 87% were aware of the control measures of COVID-19 infection like isolation and treatment of the infected; quarantine of their close contacts; and 92% had the acquaintance about the avoidance of public transport and crowded places as a safety measure. The HCWs also showed a positive attitude toward keeping distance and staying at home (81.13% strongly agreed) and regularly washing hands (agreed 91%). The mean knowledge, attitude, and practice scores of the study participants were 19.67(±1.85), 27.95(1.81) and 4.61(0.51), respectively. Nurses were found to have significantly better knowledge, attitude, and practice toward COVID-19 than laboratory technicians and pharmacists. HCWs having higher education levels were also found to have better knowledge about COVID-19. The majority of the HCWs who participated in the study also strongly agreed that the referred hospitals are well prepared for infection prevention and control (IPC). Better knowledge, attitude and practices toward COVID-19 may considerably decrease the risk of getting the disease.

Comparative Evaluation of Colour Stability and Surface Roughness of Nanohybrid Composite Resins in Mouth Rinse and Colouring Beverages.

Objectives An ideal restorative material should be capable of supplanting the biological, functional, and aesthetic qualities of a healthy tooth structure. There has always been a search for optimal and aesthetically pleasing restorative materials. This study aims to evaluate the surface roughness and colour stability of three nanohybrid composite resins post-exposure to mouth rinse and colouring beverages. Methods One hundred and twenty specimens of dimension 10 mm x 8 mm x 1 mm were randomly allocated into three equal-sized groups and fabricated using three different nanohybrid composites (Group A: Filtek Z250 XT, Group B: Tetric N-Ceram, and Group C: Solare Sculpt). Sixty samples, comprising 20 from each group, were examined for colour stability and 60 for surface roughness after exposure to chlorhexidine and coffee. Baseline and post-exposure readings of the surface roughness and colour absorbance of the specimens were obtained by atomic force microscopy and spectrophotometer, respectively. A one-way analysis of variance (ANOVA) test followed by a post hoc Tukey's test and an independent t-test were used for data analysis, considering a p-value<0.05 as significant. Results Irrespective of the composite, the surface roughness and colour change were substantially higher in the samples exposed to coffee (p-value<0.01). Filtek Z 250XT showed significantly minor changes in colour and surface roughness, followed by Solare Sculpt and Tetric N-Ceram (p-value<0.05). Conclusion Coffee caused more surface roughness and colour changes compared to chlorhexidine. Filtek 250 XT showed minor changes in colour and surface roughness on exposure to both solutions.

The intricate association of COVID-19 pandemic with ecological issues.

This critical narrative review is intended to emphasize the comprehensive ecological issues related to the evolution of the novel coronavirus, the environmental factors associated with the disease progress, and the impact the pandemic is having on the environment. Approximately 60% of the emerging infectious disease of the last century (including deadly viruses like HIV, Ebola, Influenza, coronavirus strains like SARS, MERS) are linked to zoonotic spillover. Therefore, to escape the emergence of newer cross-species infections, proper precautionary measures should be taken. Every country has specific rules to deal with the biomedical waste produced in hospitals. But the COVID-19 pandemic has posed a unique global challenge due to the overwhelming amount of biomedical waste generated from dedicated COVID hospitals, diagnostic facilities, quarantine centers, and home quarantine facilities. Moreover, inappropriate disposal of masks by the general public may contaminate the environment turning it into a potential health hazard. Therefore, strict adherence to Biomedical Waste Management Guidelines for proper disposal of masks and other medical waste by all concerned is a must. Lockdown has brought about tremendous improvement in conditions of the world's atmosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere. Dramatic improvement in air quality index, decrease in water, and noise pollution are some of the positive aspects of lockdown. However, these effects are temporary. But these teach an important lesson to the world to take some permanent measures to bring down greenhouse gases and other toxic emissions. Some harmful effects of lockdown are illegal deforestation, wildlife trafficking, encroachment of reserved areas etc.

To Compare the Intravenous Bolus Dose of Propofol With an Equipotent Dose of Intravenous Thiopentone for the Facilitation of Laryngeal Mask Airway Insertion.

Objectives Insertion of laryngeal mask airway has been facilitated by using a variety of induction agents and their combinations with minimal side effects. The current prospective study is a randomized, double-blind study conducted using induction agents, namely, propofol and its equipotent dose of thiopentone, for laryngeal mask airway insertion, and to compare their side effects in patients undergoing minor surgeries requiring general anaesthesia. Methods This prospective study was carried out at the Anaesthesiology and Critical Care Department of Gauhati Medical College and Hospital (GMCH), Assam, India. The randomized, double-blinded study comprised 80 patients aged 18 to 60 years undergoing minor surgeries (≤45 minutes) under general anaesthesia fitting into the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status I and II and Mallampati score (MPS) 1 and 2. The participants were randomly divided into two groups in a 1:1 ratio. Group A (n = 40) received propofol (2.5 mg/kg), while group B (n = 40) received thiopentone (5 mg/kg) injections for induction of anaesthesia. Pre-medication with midazolam (0.04 mg/kg) injection and fentanyl (1.5 mcg/kg) injection was provided to patients in both groups. Post-laryngeal mask airway insertion, parameters like conditions for insertion, time taken for laryngeal mask airway insertion, overall response, and haemodynamic parameters were recorded. The data analysis was executed using equivalence tests considering a two-sided p < 0.05 as significant. Results Group A had a higher and statistically significant ease of insertion (p = 0.029). The mean insertion time was notably different between the two groups (p < 0.001). The difference in the overall response to insertion showed no statistical significance in the two groups. Statistically, a significant difference was found in falls in heart rate and various blood pressure levels between the groups (p < 0.001). Conclusion Propofol at a rate of 2.5 mg/kg was found to be superior to thiopentone at a rate of 5 mg/kg as far as suppression of upper airway reflexes in laryngeal mask airway insertion.

Relationship Between the Eruption of Third Molar Teeth and the Growing Status of the Assamese Inhabitants of a North-Eastern State of India.

Objectives Even though permanent teeth eruption time may vary, the tooth eruption stage represents a critical developmental milestone, which may help in the monitoring of the child's growing status towards adolescence. This paper aims to evaluate the relationship between the third molar eruption (TME) and investigate any possible association with the body mass index (BMI), which is used to monitor the growth of children and adolescents. Methods We included 1060 student participants aged 14 to 26 years from selected educational institutions in Assam for this study. We performed a conventional clinical dental examination to determine the stages of TME. Moreover, to calculate the individual height and weight, we have carried out a thorough physical examination to assess the BMI and rule out any visible congenital developmental anomalies. Result The overall mean age of the status of no eruption (NE), incomplete eruption (IE), and complete eruption (CE) categories of the third molar in the current research were 17.39±2.273, 18.67±2.282 and 20.33±2.566 years, respectively, and the difference in mean age was statistically significant (p-value <0.05). Among the 1060 participants assessed, 163 (15.38%) were underweight, 625 (58.97%) belonged to the average category, 207 (19.52%) were at risk of being overweight, and 65 (6.13%) were obese. The CE in both average and overweight categories was 109 (17.4%) and 37 (17.9%). Similarly, the NE status of the third molar in the underweight and obese category was 120 (73.6%) and 39 (60.0%), respectively. These differences in the frequency of TME in different BMI categories were found statistically significant (p-value <0.05). Conclusion The result shows a substantial relationship between the mean age of eruption of third molar teeth and BMI among children and adolescents in 14 years to 26 years in the Assamese population. Further, the mean age can be used in forensic age determination.

Risk Factors of Childhood Asthma Among Patients Attending a Tertiary Care Centre in North-East India.

Introduction: Asthma is a chronic lung illness marked by a reversible airway blockage. Both genetic and environmental factors influence higher asthma rates. The present study aims to assess the various socio-demographic and environmental factors influencing the causation of childhood asthma among patients attending the Paediatric Department of Gauhati Medical College and Hospital (GMCH), Assam. Materials and Methods: A total of 150 clinically diagnosed asthma patients of 3-12 years as cases and patients of the same age group free from respiratory diseases with no history of asthma in a 1:1 ratio as controls were selected. A predesigned and pretested proforma was used to collect data, and written informed consent was obtained from all the legal guardians of the participants. Data were analyzed by chi-square test and binary logistic regression using SPSS V20, considering a p-value <0.05 significant. Results: Urban and male children were found to be at higher risk of developing asthma. Children belonging to the urban locality (OR= 4.53; 95% CI: 1.57-13.09; p<0.05), damp environment (OR= 5.21; 95% CI: 1.23-22.10; p<0.05), lower socioeconomic status (OR= 3.48; 95% CI: 1.34-9.01; p<0.05), presence of pets (OR= 6.77; 95% CI: 1.76-25.99; p<0.05), family history of atopy/ allergy (OR= 43.29; 95% CI: 5.80-323.15 p<0.05), smoking/passive smoking (OR=23.54; 95% CI: 1.41-394.21 p<0.05) and mixed feeding (OR= 4.47; 95% CI: 1.46-13.63 p<0.05) were the significant risk factors of childhood asthma. Conclusion: Children are vulnerable to environmental-induced asthma. Awareness and preventive measures are necessary to control and reduce the burden of childhood asthma.

Feasibility of Indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) alone as a screening method for antinuclear antibody in connective diseases in India's sub-Himalayan region.

Background: For the management of connective tissue disorders (CTDs), antinuclear antibody (ANA) testing is essential, both from diagnostic and prognostic points of view. Usually, patterns obtained by ANA-IIF testing correlates to specific autoantibodies as obtained from the test for ENA (by LIA/ELISA, etc.). But to apply these data from western studies, we may need validation in the local population like our subjects in sub-Himalayan (Garhwal region) area where CTDs are common. Also, suppose ANA-IFA pattern's correlation is reliably known in our population, it can minimize the cost of managing CTDs by limiting ENA testing, which is 10 times costlier than ANA-IIF. Hence, this study was undertaken to know the specific autoantibody targets (ENA by LIA) against ANA-IIF patterns in our local population. Materials and Methods: In this retrospective cross-sectional work, serum samples of CTDs were tested for ANA by IIF (Euroimmune AG) and ENA by LIA (Euroline ANA-3G) continuously for 36 months. The manufacturer's kit insert was followed, and results were analyzed applying appropriate statistical methods. Results: Major ANA-IIF patterns were found to be associated with specific autoantibodies, for example, Nuclear homogenous with dsDNA, nucleosomes, histones; speckled pattern with nRNP/Sm, Sm, SSA/Ro-52, SSB; nucleolar pattern with Scl-70, Pm-Scl 100 and centromere pattern with CENP-B. Anticytoplasmic (ACA) are found to be linked with some ANA negative (by IIF) samples, emphasizing the need for careful observation for ACA especially where ANA is not found. Conclusions: In most subjects, specific ENA targets correlated well with ANA-IIF patterns, implying effective cost minimization in CTD management. Similar future prospective studies (with clinical data) can provide a database and reference for our population.

Variability and Patterning in Permanent Tooth Dimensions among Four Ethnic Groups from the North-eastern States of India.

Methods: The study was a comparative cross-sectional study among four different ethnic groups of North-east India among the age group of 20-30 years. Dimensions of the maxillary and mandibular teeth were measured with a digital Vernier calliper using the dental casts of 50 male and 50 female subjects from each of the four ethnic groups under study. The data were statistically analyzed using a Student's t-test and one-way analysis of variance. Statistical significance was set at p < 0.05. Results: The tooth dimensions of all four ethnic groups were significantly lower than the standard values except for the MD dimension of the maxillary second molars of the Singpho group (9.13 mm vs. 9.0 mm); mandibular central incisors of the Meitei group (5.01 mm vs. 5.0 mm); and mandibular lateral incisors of the Meitei, Ao, and Singpho groups (>standard value of 5.5 mm) and BL dimension of the mandibular first premolars of the Meitei and Ao groups (>standard value of 7.5 mm); mandibular second premolars of the Meitei and Singpho groups (>standard value of 8.0 mm); and mandibular second molars of the Ao group (10.04 mm vs. 10.0 mm). In some instances, the comparative analysis revealed group variations in different tooth dimensions among the four ethnic groups (p < 0.05). Conclusion: Variations were observed in the tooth dimensions among the four ethnic groups and within the same population. Unlike other parts of India, the North-eastern population belongs to a distinct ethnic race of indigenous people of East Asia, Southeast Asia, and the Arctic region of North America. Hence, population-specific data for India's North-eastern region are necessary for forensic odontology, dental anthropology, routine dental practice, and effective treatment planning.

Interference of Antinuclear Antibody (ANA) in Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay (IIFA)-Based Perinuclear Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibody (pANCA) Interpretation.

Background: Indirect immunofluorescence assay (IIFA) based on antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) testing is a commonly employed test for diagnosing autoimmune vasculitis. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) can give rise to a false interpretation of perinuclear-ANCA (pANCA) in ethanol-fixed granulocyte substrates. Analytical interference could frequently occur in setups where ethanol-fixed substrates are used alone. Here, we intend to investigate this ANA interference in pANCA interpretation. Methods: In this retrospective study, we studied anti-MPO-negative but ANA-positive and pANCA (IIFA based) samples. We also correlated immunoblot results (where data were available) and checked the association between grades of blot positivity (an indicator of the concentration of ANA) and frequency of pANCA interpretation. Data were analyzed by appropriate statistical techniques (Chi-square and kappa statistics). Results: About 19.2% of ANA blot (ENA-blot) positive samples displayed a pANCA positive pattern in the ethanol-fixed substrate, while this positivity in ENA-blot negatives was 6.5%. In positive ANA-IIFA samples, about 14.7% yielded pANCA patterns (on ethanol fixed substrates). Out of this, nuclear homogenous pattern yielding samples gave the highest frequency pANCA, that is, in 31.5% followed by speckled (11.1%), DFS (10.3%), and centromere (6.7%).The association of the nuclear homogenous pattern was statistically significant. Conclusions: ANA-positive results may interfere with the interpretation of pANCA as observed in ANA-IIFA and ENA-blot positive samples. ANA-IIFA patterns like nuclear homogenous may strongly associate this pANCA interpretation. This can help laboratories perform ANCA testing more effectively, ruling out ANA interference in ANCA screening.