Response to tibial and sacral nerve modulation in overactive bladder: Is there any correlation?

OBJECTIVES: To assess the correlation between the response to transcutaneous tibial nerve stimulation (TTNS) and subsequent response to sacral nerve modulation (SNM) to treat overactive bladder (OAB). MATERIALS AND METHODS: All patients who consecutively received TTNS followed by a two-stage SNM between January 2016 and June 2022 to treat OAB in two university hospital centers were included. The response to each therapy was evaluated with success defined by a 50% or greater improvement in one or more bothersome urinary symptoms from baseline. The primary endpoint was the statistical relationship between the response to TTNS and the response to SNM, assessed by logistic regression. Secondary endpoints were the statistical relationship between the response to TTNS and the response to SNM when controlling for gender, age (<57 years vs. >57 years), presence of an underlying neurological disease, and presence of DO, adding the factor and interaction to the previous regression model. RESULTS: Among the 92 patients enrolled in the study, 68 of them were women (73.9%), and the median age was 57.0 [41.0-69.0] years. The success was reported in 22 patients (23.9%) under TTNS and 66 patients (71.7%) during the SNM test phase. There was no statistical correlation between response to TTNS and response to SNM in the overall population (confidence interval: 95% [0.48-4.47], p = 0.51). Similarly, there was no statistical correlation when controlling for age <57 years or ≥57 years, with p = 1.0 and p = 0.69, respectively. No statistical study could be conducted for the other subpopulations due to small sample sizes. CONCLUSION: The response to TTNS does not predict the response to SNM in the treatment of OAB. TTNS and SNM should be considered as separate therapies, and the decision-making process for OAB treatment should take this into account.

Continuous positive airway pressure compliance in patients with mild cognitive impairment.

PURPOSE: Sleep apnoea (SA) is associated with accelerated cognitive decline in patients with mild cognitive impairment (MCI). Treatment of SA by continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) may slow this decline if patients comply with the treatment. The aim of this study was to assess the rate of CPAP compliance in this population. METHODS: In this single-centre retrospective study conducted in a tertiary care institution, patients with a diagnosis of MCI and SA initiating CPAP between January 2015 and August 2021 were included. Data from the initial sleep recording, the 3-month follow-up and compliance with at least 12 months of CPAP were analysed. Compliance was defined as an average CPAP use of at least 4 h per night. RESULTS: 55 patients were included (49% women, age 70.7 ± 8.9 years, body mass index 28.9 ± 6.5 kg/m2). Aetiology of MCI was vascular (45.5%), psychiatric (12.7%) and related to Alzheimer's disease (7.3%), with 47.3% of amnesic disorders and 45.5% of dysexecutive disorders. The MiniMentalState score was 26.7 ± 3.1. SA was mostly obstructive (81.8%) with a mean apnoea-hypopnoea index of 41.1 ± 16.4/h. At 3 months, 38 patients were compliant (69%) with a CPAP median use of 5.9 h per night and 83% of nights. Self-reported tolerance was better in compliant patients (75.7% vs 38.5% p = 0.017). Thirty-four patients remained compliant at 12 months (62%). CONCLUSION: Our results suggest a high rate of CPAP compliance in patients suffering from MCI. Compliance was related to the device tolerance, emphasizing the need to closely monitor and improve this factor.

Pain assessment in women with or without endometriosis during the IVF process: a prospective study.

RESEARCH QUESTION: How does the typology and effect of pain vary between infertile patients with or without endometriosis during the different stages of the IVF process? DESIGN: A prospective, monocentric, observational cohort study was conducted at Lille University Hospital between November 2019 and June 2021. The study was proposed to all patients starting an IVF cycle. Pain assessment questionnaires using validated scales (about type of pain, without specific location), were completed by patients at key points during IVF: before starting treatment, at the end of stimulation and on the day of oocyte retrieval. RESULTS: A total of 278 patients were analysed: 73 patients with endometriosis and 205 without. At the start of the IVF process, patients with endometriosis had higher pain scores than disease-free women (mean numerical scale score 3.47 versus 1.12 [P < 0.0001]) and 17.81% of patients with endometriosis had neuropathic pain. For mental disorders before starting treatment, 22% of patients with endometriosis had suspected or confirmed depression, and 33% had anxiety compared with 8% and 20% in patients without endometriosis, respectively. During IVF, for patients without endometriosis, pain increased significantly between the baseline, the end of stimulation and on the day of retrieval (P ≤ 0.05). In patients with endometriosis, however, pain did not significantly vary during these times. CONCLUSION: Endometriosis is associated with higher pain scores, but no increase in pain was observed during IVF for these patients. It seems essential to screen and characterize pain phenotypes in all patients before starting treatment and during stimulation to improve pain management.

Impact of Defibrotide in the Prevention of Acute Graft-Versus-Host Disease Following Allogeneic Hematopoietic Cell Transplantation.

BACKGROUND: Defibrotide is indicated for patients who develop severe sinusoidal obstructive syndrome following allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation (allo-HCT). Preclinical data suggested that defibrotide carries a prophylactic effect against acute graft-versus-host disease (aGVHD). OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study was to investigate the effect of defibrotide on the incidence and severity of aGVHD. METHODS: This single-center retrospective study included all consecutive transplanted patients between January 2014 and December 2018. A propensity score based on 10 predefined confounders was used to estimate the effect of defibrotide on aGVHD via inverse probability of treatment weighting (IPTW). RESULTS: Of the 482 included patients, 64 received defibrotide (defibrotide group) and 418 did not (control group). Regarding main patient characteristics and transplantation modalities, the two groups were comparable, except for a predominance of men in the defibrotide group. The median age was 55 years (interquartile range [IQR]: 40-62). Patients received allo-HCT from HLA-matched related donor (28.6%), HLA-matched unrelated donor (50.8%), haplo-identical donor (13.4%), or mismatched unrelated donor (7.0%). Stem cell source was either bone marrow (49.6%) or peripheral blood (50.4%). After using IPTW, exposure to defibrotide was not significantly associated with occurrence of aGVHD (HR = 0.97; 95% CI 0.62-1.52; P = .9) or occurrence of severe aGVHD (HR = 1.89, 95% CI: 0.98-3.66; P = .058). CONCLUSION AND RELEVANCE: Defibrotide does not seem to have a protective effect on aGVHD in patients undergoing allo-HCT. Based on what has been reported to date and on these results, defibrotide should not be considered for the prevention of aGVHD outside clinical trials.

Negative Prebiopsy Magnetic Resonance Imaging and Risk of Significant Prostate Cancer: Baseline and Long-Term Followup Results.

PURPOSE: Prostate biopsy should be discussed with the patient in cases of negative magnetic resonance imaging and low clinical suspicion of prostate cancer.Our primary objective was to describe the risk of clinically significant prostate cancer in a negative magnetic resonance imaging biopsy naïve population at baseline and during long-term followup. The secondary objective was to evaluate clinical factors and prostate specific antigen as predictors of clinically significant prostate cancer at baseline. MATERIALS AND METHODS: All 503 consecutive patients who were biopsy naïve referred from 2007 to 2017 for biopsy with negative magnetic resonance imaging (PI-RADS™ 1-2) who had systematic 12-core biopsies at baseline were included. Clinical factors were digital rectal examination, prostate cancer family history and prostate specific antigen. In case of suspicious digital rectal examination or prostate specific antigen kinetics during followup, magnetic resonance imaging and biopsy were performed. Clinically significant prostate cancer was defined as either Gleason Grade 1 with cancer core length greater than 5 mm or 3 or more positive systematic 12-core biopsies in addition to Gleason Grade 2 or greater (clinically significant prostate cancer-1) or any Gleason Grade 2 or greater (clinically significant prostate cancer-2). Nonclinically significant prostate cancer was defined as either Gleason Grade 1 with cancer core length 5 mm or less and fewer than 3 positive systematic 12-core biopsies (nonclinically significant prostate cancer-1) or any Gleason Grade 1 (nonclinically significant prostate cancer-2). Definition of high risk clinically significant prostate cancer was Gleason Grade 3 or greater. Univariate and multivariate models were fitted to identify predictors of clinically significant prostate cancer risk. RESULTS: At baseline, biopsy showed clinically significant prostate cancer-1 in 9% (45), clinically significant prostate cancer-2 in 6% (29) and nonclinically significant prostate cancer in 22% (111). At median followup of 4 years (IQR 1.6-7.1), 31% (95% CI 27-36) of 415 untreated patients had a second magnetic resonance imaging and 24% (95% CI 20-28) a second biopsy that showed clinically significant prostate cancer-1 in 5% (21/415, 95% CI 3-7), clinically significant prostate cancer-2 in 2% (7/415, 95% CI 1-3) and nonclinically significant prostate cancer in 8%. Overall incidence was 13% (66/503, 95% CI 7-21) for clinically significant prostate cancer-1, 7% (36/503, 95% CI 5-9%) for clinically significant prostate cancer-2 and 2% (12/503, 95% CI 1.1-3.7) for high risk prostate cancer. Predictors of clinically significant prostate cancer risk were prostate specific antigen density 0.15 ng/ml/ml or greater (OR 2.43, 1.19-4.21), clinical stage T2a or greater (OR 3.32, 1.69-6.53) and prostate cancer family history (OR 2.38, 1.10-6.16). Performing biopsy in patients with negative magnetic resonance imaging and prostate specific antigen density 0.15 ng/ml/ml or greater or abnormal digital rectal examination or prostate cancer family history would have decreased from 9% to 2.4% the risk of missing clinically significant prostate cancer-1 at baseline while avoiding biopsy in 56% of cases. CONCLUSIONS: The risk of clinically significant prostate cancer in a negative magnetic resonance imaging biopsy naïve population was 6% to 9% at baseline and 7% to 13% at long-term followup depending on clinically significant prostate cancer definitions.

Food-induced anaphylaxis in infancy compared to preschool age: A retrospective analysis.

OBJECTIVE: Little is known regarding food anaphylaxis in infancy. We aimed to describe specificities of food anaphylaxis in infants (≤12 months) as compared to preschool children (1-6 years). METHODS: We conducted a retrospective study of all food anaphylaxis cases recorded by the Allergy Vigilance Network from 2002 to 2018, in preschool children focusing on infants. RESULTS: Of 1951 food anaphylaxis reactions, 61 (3%) occurred in infants and 386 (20%) in preschool children. Two infants had two anaphylaxis reactions; thus, we analyzed data among 59 infants (male: 51%; mean age: 6 months [SD: 2.9]); 31% had a history of atopic dermatitis, 11% of previous food allergy. The main food allergens were cow's milk (59%), hen's egg (20%), wheat (7%) and peanut (3%) in infants as compared with peanut (27%) and cashew (23%) in preschool children. Anaphylaxis occurred in 28/61 (46%) cases at the first cow's milk intake after breastfeeding discontinuation. Clinical manifestations were mainly mucocutaneous (79%), gastrointestinal (49%), respiratory (48%) and cardiovascular (21%); 25% of infants received adrenaline. Hives, hypotension and neurologic symptoms were more likely to be reported in infants than in preschool children (P = .02; P = .004; P = .002, respectively). Antihistamines and corticosteroids were more often prescribed in preschool children than in infants (P = .005; P = .025, respectively). CONCLUSION: Our study found that in infants presenting with their first food allergy, in a setting with a high rate of infant formula use, the most predominant trigger was cow's milk. As compared to older preschool children, hives, hypotonia and hypotension were more likely to be reported in infants. We believe that this represents a distinct food anaphylaxis phenotype that can further support developing the clinical anaphylaxis criteria in infants.

Aortic morphology post type A acute aortic syndrome: Prognosis significance and association with 24-hour blood pressure-monitoring parameters.

BACKGROUND: After an emergent surgery for type A acute aortic syndrome, medical management is based on optimal blood pressure (BP) control. We assessed the prognostic significance of BP monitoring and its relationship with aortic morphology following type A acute aortic syndrome. METHODS: The data of 120 patients who underwent BP monitoring after a type A acute aortic syndrome from January 2005 to June 2016 were retrospectively collected. The first CT angiogram performed after surgery was used for the morphological analysis. RESULTS: The population included 79 males, with an overall mean age of 60 ± 12 years. Seven patients (5.8%) died during a median follow-up of 5.5 years. The median delay between BP monitoring and discharge was 3 (1-5) months. The mean 24-hour BP of the cohort was 127/73 mm Hg ± 10/17. During follow-up, different parameters of BP monitoring were not associated with the risk of aortic events. However, the diameter of the false lumen of the descending thoracic aorta was the best predictor associated with the risk of new aortic events during follow-up, particularly for the threshold of 28 mm or more (P < .001; Hazard ratio 4.7[2.7-8.2]). The diameter of the false lumen was associated with night-time systolic BP (P = .025; r = .2), 24-hour pulse pressure (P = .002; r = .28), and night-time pulse pressure (P = .008; r = .24). CONCLUSION: The risk of new aortic events following type A acute aortic syndrome is associated with the size of the residual false lumen, but not directly with BP parameters. Night-time BP parameters are associated with the size of the residual false lumen.

Anaphylaxis admissions in pediatric intensive care units: Follow-up and risk of recurrence.

BACKGROUND: Data about the risk of anaphylaxis recurrence in children are lacking. We assessed anaphylaxis recurrence and medical follow-up in a cohort of children previously hospitalized in a French pediatric intensive care unit (PICU) for anaphylaxis. METHODS: We conducted a telephone survey of 166 children (≤18 years) hospitalized from 2003 to 2013. RESULTS: In all, 106 (64%) completed the survey (boys, 59%; mean age [SD]: 15.3 years [5.5]). The main index triggers were drugs (45%) and foods (37%). The mean duration follow-up was of 7.7 years (SD: 2.4). Thirty-eight (36%) children experienced 399 new allergic reactions during a follow-up period of 282 patient-years (incidence rate: 1.4/100 patients/y; 95% CI: 0.64-2.04). Twelve children experienced 19 anaphylaxis reactions including five requiring PICU admission (anaphylaxis recurrence rate: 0.20/100 patients/y; 95% CI non-calculable). Food was the trigger for 79% of recurrent reactions and drugs for 8%. The food trigger was previously known in 83%, the same as the index trigger in 69%. Overall, 1.5% of the recurrent reactions were treated with adrenaline injection and 8% an emergency hospital admission. Patients with recurrence had more likely a history of food allergy (P < 10-4 ), asthma (P < 0.005), atopic dermatitis (P < 0.05) than those without. 31% of the 50 children with food allergy did not see an allergist, 23% had no adrenaline auto-injector, and 26% lacked a school individual healthcare plan. CONCLUSIONS: Following a PICU admission for anaphylaxis, recurrence is high in children with food allergy compared with drug allergy. Allergic comorbidities increase the risk. Medical follow-up has to be improved for these at-risk children.

Maternal red blood cell alloimmunization requiring intrauterine transfusion: a comparative study on management and outcome depending on the type of antibody.

BACKGROUND: The antibody primarily responsible for fetal anemia may influence treatment and prognosis. The primary objective was to compare ante- and postnatal management and the outcomes of maternal red blood cell (RBC) alloimmunizations according to the antibody involved. The secondary objective was to compare anti-D alloimmunizations according to associated number of antibodies. STUDY DESIGN AND METHODS: A single-center study from 1999 to 2015 including maternal RBC alloimmunizations requiring intrauterine transfusion (IUT) was conducted. Patients were classified according to the antibody involved: anti-D, other Rh (anti-c and anti-E), and anti-K1. Obstetric data, IUT characteristics, and neonatal outcome were compared. A specific study on the anti-D, when isolated or associated, was then conducted. RESULTS: There were 106 pregnancies included, with 77.4% having anti-D, 9.4% having another anti-Rh (Rh group), and 13.2% having anti-K1. No significant difference between the anti-D and Rh groups was found for management and prognosis. The hemoglobin level in the first IUT was higher in the anti-D group than in the Kell group (6.8 vs. 4.7 g/dL, p = 0.008). Newborns in the anti-D group had significantly higher bilirubin levels and phototherapy duration than those in the Kell group. The mean estimated daily decrease in hemoglobin and that between the first two IUTs were lower with an isolated anti-D, compared with anti-D associated with two antibodies (p = 0.04). CONCLUSION: Anti-K1 alloimmunizations seem to cause more severe fetal anemia than anti-D alloimmunizations. Moreover, a decrease in hemoglobin appears to be more rapid when anti-D is associated with other antibodies.

Prospective assessment of follicular growth and the oocyte cohort after ovarian stimulation for fertility preservation in 90 cancer patients versus 180 matched controls.

A lower number of metaphase II oocytes eligible for vitrification after controlled stimulation in cancer patients has recently been reported, suggesting that cancer may impair the dynamics and quality of follicular growth. In this prospective, non-interventional study, the pattern of follicular growth and oocyte cohort after ovarian stimulation in cancer patients was analysed. Ninety cancer patients, recruited before starting chemotherapy, were compared with 180 time- and age-matched healthy controls undergoing intracytoplasmic sperm injection. Primary outcome was total number of metaphase II oocytes and metaphase II /total oocytes rate. Basal anti-Müllerian hormone levels (P < 0.05) and antral follicle count (P < 0.0001) were significantly lower in cancer patients. Recombinant FSH total dose was significantly higher in the cancer group (P < 0.0001). No differences were found in duration of stimulation, mean number of mature follicles on day of ovulation induction and total oocyte number after retrieval; the number of metaphase II oocytes retrieved (6.2 ± 4.7 versus 8.8 ± 4.2; P < 0.0001) and number of metaphase II oocytes-total oocytes ratio were significantly lower in cancer patients (56% versus 78%, P < 0.0001). Fewer metaphase II oocytes were eligible for vitrification and lower maturation rate in the cancer group.

Under-corrected knees do not fail more than aligned knees at 8 years in fixed severe valgus total knee replacement.

PURPOSES: A fixed severe valgus knee is a surgical challenge. A safe post-operative Hip-Knee-Ankle angle (HKA) range of 180° ± 4 was recommended, but recent studies mentioned equal results from outliers of this range. Nevertheless, no distinction was made between varus and valgus knees, as well as over-corrected or under-corrected knees. Did post-operative nonaligned total knee replacements (TKR) from fixed severe valgus knees behave differently from the properly aligned population? Did over-corrected knees behave differently from under-corrected knees? METHODS: Through a multi-center retrospective cohort study, we provided 557 knees of at least 10° of minimal pre-operative valgus; in this population 75 presented a post-operative Hip-Knee-Ankle angle (HKA) outside of the 180° ± 4 range; 23 of them had at least 5° of varus; 52 of them had at least 5° of valgus. Median pre-operative HKA of the entire cohort was 194° (range 190-198). Median follow-up was 8 years (range 5-11); Knee Society Score (KSS) results, HKA, Femoral and Tibial Mechanical Angles (FMA, TMA) and complication rates were obtained. The outlier group (HKA ≤ 175 or ≥ 185) was compared to the control group (HKA 180 ± 4); over-corrected (HKA ≤ 175) and under-corrected (HKA ≥ 185) sub-groups were individually tested against the control group. RESULTS: The outlier group had a lower Final Knee Score than the aligned group (p = 0.023). In the over-corrected sub-group, median post-operative FMA was 88° (SD 4°) and median TMA was 87° (SD 4°). The complication rate was higher (p = 0.019). Knee (p = 0.018), Function (p = 0.034) and Final Knee Scores (p = 0.03) were statistically lower than in the control group. In the under-corrected sub-group, mean post-operative FMA was 93° (SD 2°) and mean TMA was 91° (SD 2°). The complication rate was lower (p = 0.019) and there was no difference with the control group concerning KSS. CONCLUSIONS: In case of pre-operative fixed severe valgus knee, one should avoid over-correcting HKA angle and especially the TMA. Over-correction of a severe preoperative valgus in a post-operative varus was prejudicial for TKA survival. Keeping a severe valgus knee in low valgus to avoid using a more constrained implant and/or ligament releases will not decrease the 5-10 year implant survival and functional scores. LEVEL OF EVIDENCE: Level IV-Case series.

How the greater tuberosity affects clinical outcomes after reverse shoulder arthroplasty for proximal humeral fractures.

BACKGROUND: Our purpose was to evaluate the clinical and radiologic outcomes of reverse shoulder arthroplasty for proximal humeral fractures in a large cohort of elderly patients and compare the results in the case of tuberosity excision, failed fixation, or anatomic healing. METHODS: In this retrospective multicenter study, 420 patients underwent review and radiography with a minimum follow-up period of 12 months. The patients were divided into 3 groups according to the status of the greater tuberosity (GT) on the last anteroposterior radiographs: anatomic GT healing (group A, n = 169); GT resorption, malunion, or nonunion (group B, n = 131); and GT excision (group C, n = 120). Complications were recorded; shoulder function, active mobility, and subjective results were assessed. RESULTS: At a mean follow-up of 28 months, the mean Simple Shoulder Value in group A (75%) outperformed the results found in groups B (69%, P < .001) and C (56%, P < .001). Overall, the mean adjusted Constant-Murley score was significantly higher in group A (93% ± 22%) than in group B (82% ± 22%) and group C (80% ± 24%) (P < .001), but there was no difference between groups B and C (P = .88). Anterior active elevation and external rotation were significantly better in group A than in groups B and C (P < .001). The instability rate was significantly higher in group C (n = 15 [12.5%], P < .001) than in group A (n = 2) or group B (n = 3). CONCLUSION: In elderly patients who have undergone a reverse shoulder arthroplasty for acute proximal humeral fractures, anatomic tuberosity healing improves objective and subjective outcomes. GT excision is associated with the worst functional results and increases the risk of postoperative shoulder instability.

Encoding and immediate retrieval tasks in patients with epilepsy: A functional MRI study of verbal and visual memory.

PURPOSE: Medial lobe temporal structures and more specifically the hippocampus play a decisive role in episodic memory. Most of the memory functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) studies evaluate the encoding phase; the retrieval phase being performed outside the MRI. We aimed to determine the ability to reveal greater hippocampal fMRI activations during retrieval phase. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Thirty-five epileptic patients underwent a two-step memory fMRI. During encoding phase, subjects were requested to identify the feminine or masculine gender of faces and words presented, in order to encourage stimulus encoding. One hour after, during retrieval phase, subjects had to recognize the word and face. We used an event-related design to identify hippocampal activations. RESULTS: There was no significant difference between patients with left temporal lobe epilepsy, patients with right temporal lobe epilepsy and patients with extratemporal lobe epilepsy on verbal and visual learning task. For words, patients demonstrated significantly more bilateral hippocampal activation for retrieval task than encoding task and when the tasks were associated than during encoding alone. Significant difference was seen between face-encoding alone and face retrieval alone. CONCLUSIONS: This study demonstrates the essential contribution of the retrieval task during a fMRI memory task but the number of patients with hippocampal activations was greater when the two tasks were taken into account.

Do the Reasons for Ceramic-on-ceramic Revisions Differ From Other Bearings in Total Hip Arthroplasty?

BACKGROUND: Despite widespread use of ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) in total hip arthroplasty (THA) during the past 10 years, little is known about why revisions are performed in hips with this bearing or the time elapsed before revision. QUESTIONS/PURPOSES: The purposes of this study were: (1) Do the reasons for first revision differ between CoC bearings and other bearing couples? (2) Does the time to revision differ between CoC and other bearing couples? (3) Are there unique reasons for revisions of CoC bearings? METHODS: All members of the Société Française de Chirurgie Orthopédique et Traumatologique (SoFCOT) who performed ≥ 30 revisions per year were invited to participate in this multicenter, prospective, observational study. Our data represent 12% of the revision procedures performed in France. A total of 2107 first revisions of THA (from January 2010 to December 2011) were done in 2107 patients (1201 females [57%] and 906 males [43%]; median age, 73 years; age range, 17-104 years) at the time of surgery after a median of 11 years (range, 0 day-42 years) after the primary THA. There were 238 of 2107 (11%) CoC, 148 of 2107 (7%) metal-on-metal (MoM), and 1721 of 2017 (82%) metal-on-polyethylene (MoP) bearings. RESULTS: The reasons for reoperation differed according to the bearing component: (1) for the MoP reference bearing (odds ratio [OR]; 95% confidence interval), cup loosening occurred in 698 of 1721 hips (41%), periprosthetic fracture in 220 of 1721 hips (13%), and osteolysis in 213 of 1721 hips (12%); (2) for CoC, cup loosening occurred in 41 of 238 hips (17%) (OR, 0.31 [0.22-0.43; p < 0.001), infection in 39 of 238 hips (16%) (OR, 1.63 [1.12-2.37]; p = 0.01), and dislocation in 23 of 238 hips (10%) (OR, 0.9 [0.57-1.42]; p = 0.9); (3) for MoM, cup loosening occurred in 28 of 148 hips (19%) (OR, 0.34 [0.22-0.52]; p < 0.001), adverse reaction to metallic debris in 26 of 148 hips (18%) (OR, 18.12 [9.84-33.4]; p < 0.001), and infection in 16 of 148 hips (11%) (OR, 1 [0.59-1.73]; p = 0.9). In comparison with MoP, osteolysis was rarely the reason for revision in CoC (four of 238 hips [2%]; OR, 0.12 [0.05-0.33]; p < 0.001), but this bearing was frequently revised because of iliopsoas irritation (18 of 238 hips [8%]; OR, 4.9 [2.7-9]; p < 0.001). The time elapsed before revision differed between bearings: median of 3 years (range, 3 days to 28 years) for CoC and 4 years (range, 14 days to 37 years) for MoM versus a median 13 years (range, 0 day to 42 years) for MoP (p < 0.001). Thirty-seven of the 238 revisions (16%) were directly related to ceramic use (ceramic breakage [n = 23], squeaking [n = 6], impingement [n = 7], incorrect ceramic insert insertion [n = 1]). No factors were identified that contributed to breakage of the 12 bulk ceramic components (eight heads, four inserts, four of 12 Delta ceramic). No factors were associated with squeaking, iliopsoas irritation, or impingement, but component orientation was not assessed. CONCLUSIONS: The reasons and time to first revision differed between CoC and other bearings. CoC THAs are revised earlier and are sensitive to mechanical problems such as impingement, squeaking, and ceramic rupture that did not disappear with introduction of Delta ceramics and large-diameter (≥ 36 mm) bearings. CoC was rarely revised for osteolysis, but a high rate of iliopsoas irritation requires further investigation. LEVEL OF EVIDENCE: Level III, therapeutic study.

Overexpression of chemokine receptor CXCR2 and ligand CXCL7 in liver metastases from colon cancer is correlated to shorter disease-free and overall survival.

Our aim was to analyze the potential role of chemokine receptors CXCR2 and CXCR4 signalling pathways in liver metastatic colorectal cancer (CRC) relapse. CXCR2, CXCR4, and their chemokine ligands were evaluated in liver metastases of colorectal cancer in order to study their correlation with overall and disease-free survival of patients having received, or not received, a neoadjuvant chemotherapy regimen. Quantitative RT-PCR and CXCR2 immunohistochemical staining were carried out using CRC liver metastasis samples. Expression levels of CXCR2, CXCR4, and their ligands were statistically analyzed according to treatment with neoadjuvant chemotherapy and patients' outcome. CXCR2 and CXCL7 overexpression are correlated to shorter overall and disease-free survival. By multivariate analysis, CXCR2 and CXCL7 expressions are independent factors of overall and disease-free survival. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy increases significantly the expression of CXCR2: treated group 1.89 (0.02-50.92) vs 0.55 (0.07-3.22), P = 0.016. CXCL7 was overexpressed close to significance, 0.40 (0.00-7.85) vs 0.15 (0.01-7.88), P = 0.12. We show the involvement of CXCL7/CXCR2 signalling pathways as a predictive factor of poor outcome in metastatic CRC. 5-Fluorouracil-based chemotherapy regimens increase the expression of these genes in liver metastasis, providing one explanation for aggressiveness of relapsed drug-resistant tumors. Selective blockage of CXCR2/CXCL7 signalling pathways could provide new potential therapeutic opportunities.

Diagnostic Yield of Venous Thrombosis and Pulmonary Embolism by Combined CT Venography and Pulmonary Angiography in Patients with Cryptogenic Stroke and Patent Foramen Ovale.

BACKGROUND: Paradoxical embolism via a patent foramen ovale (PFO) has been suggested as a potential stroke mechanism. Combined CT venography and pulmonary angiography (CVPA) is a simple, validated and accurate technique to diagnose deep venous thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE). We sought to assess the prevalence of DVT or PE among patients with PFO and cryptogenic stroke (CS) by CVPA. METHODS: Patients were identified retrospectively from a clinical registry of consecutive patients with stroke admitted to our Stroke Unit. The following criteria were required for inclusion in this study: CS, PFO identified by transthoracic echography using contrast medium and CVPA performed during the hospitalization following stroke. RESULTS: A total of 114 patients with PFO underwent a CVPA within 7 days (interquartile range 4-9) from stroke symptom onset. On cerebral imaging, 11% had multiple infarcts. CVPA documented deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in 10 patients (8.8%) and PE in 5 patients (4.4%), that is, a total of 12 patients with prevalence of 10.5% (95% CI 5.5-17.7). Patients with PE-DVT had higher D-dimers and C reactive protein level than patients without PE-DVT (p < 0.05). CONCLUSION: CVPA may be used by the stroke team in the work-up of suspected paradoxical embolism among cryptogenic ischemic stroke patients with PFO.

[Can we predict intrauterine balloon tamponade failure according to the mode of delivery?] / Peut-on prévenir l'échec du ballon de tamponnement intra-utérin selon la voie d'accouchement ?

OBJECTIVE: The intrauterine balloon tamponade (IUBT) is one of the major tool to manage the postpartum hemorrhage (PPH). Previous studies identified factors predicting IUBT failure regardless the mode of delivery. Our aim was to determine if IUBT predictive failure can be determined regarding the mode of delivery. MATERIALS AND METHODS: This was a retrospective cohort study among women who had IUBT secondary to severe PPH after vaginal or cesarean delivery from 2012 until 2021 at Lille (France). We compared 2 groups: success or failure of the IUBT, which was defined as the need of additional invasive procedures (uterine embolization or surgical procedure). RESULTS: We included 238 women, 83 who underwent cesarean and 155 vaginal delivery. The overall success of the IUBT was 78% (80% for vaginal delivery and 75% for cesarean delivery). In the vaginal delivery group with failed IUBT, coagulopathies were significantly more frequent (84.2 vs. 33.3% P=<0.001) with higher estimated blood loss at the use of the IUBT (1865.8 vs. 1580.8mL, P=0.015) compared with the vaginal delivery group with success of IUBT. In the cesarean delivery group, none factor was significant between the two groups. CONCLUSION: It is possible to identify predictors of IUBT failure in case of vaginal delivery. In contrast, in case of cesarean delivery, there is no apparent predictive facto. It could be interesting to validate our findings in a multicentric study.

[Impact of donor parity on oocyte donation outcomes]. / Impact de la parité des donneuses sur les résultats du don d'ovocytes.

OBJECTIVES: Since 2015, in France, men and women who have never procreated are allowed to donate their gametes. This has led to an increase in the number of female oocyte donors, whereas there are many couples waiting for gametes that have a long waiting time. The aim of this study is to compare the results of donation with oocytes from nulliparous and non-nulliparous donors. METHODS: Monocentric retrospective observational study (Lille University Hospital) between January 1st, 2016 and December 31st, 2019. Phenotypic characteristics and clinical and biological outcomes of oocytes donations were compared according to donor parity (nulliparous versus primiparous or multiparous). RESULTS: One hundred and eighty-five donors (66 nulliparous and 119 non-nulliparous) were included in the study, allowing 284 ICSI cycles to be performed in recipient couples. On average, 11.5 oocytes were obtained per donation cycle, of which 7.8 were mature. In total, 4.6 mature oocytes were obtained per attempt and per recipient couple. Nulliparous donors are younger than non-nulliparous ones. An early pregnancy was obtained in 55.6% of the nulliparous donors and in 50.8% of the non-nulliparous donors (P=0.55). A progressive pregnancy was obtained in 49.2% of the nulliparous women and in 42.1% of the non-nulliparous women (P=0.36). There was therefore no difference in terms of early pregnancy and ongoing pregnancy whether the donation came from a nulliparous or non-nulliparous woman. CONCLUSION: Donor parity does not seem to have an impact on the success of oocyte donation attempts.

An Evaluation of the Implementation of the European Calcified Tissue Society Recommendations on the Prevention and Treatment of Osteoporosis Secondary to Bariatric Surgery.

The purpose of this study was to evaluate the implementation of the European Calcified Tissue Society (ECTS) 2022 recommendations on the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis secondary to bariatric surgery. The ECTS 2022 recommendations were applied in a retrospective cohort of postmenopausal women and men aged 50 years and older who were undergoing or had already undergone bariatric surgery. Osteoporosis medication was indicated if any of the following criteria were met: (i) history of recent (within 2 years) fragility fracture after the age of 40 years, (ii) BMD T score ≤ -2 at any of the sites of measurement, and (iii) FRAX® ≥ 20% for major osteoporotic fractures and/or ≥3% for hip fractures. Of the 170 patients (144 women, mean age 59 (55 to 63) years) included between February 2019 and March 2022, 33 were eligible for osteoporosis medication based on the ECTS 2022 recommendations, i.e., a prevalence of 19.6% [CI95%: 13.9%; 26.5%]. Most patients met the BMD T score ≤ -2 criterion (n = 25/170, 14.7% [CI95%: 9.7%; 20.9%]) and/or the history of recent fragility fracture criterion (n = 12/170, 7.1% [CI95%: 3.7%; 12.0%]). In this study, a fifth of our population was found to be eligible for osteoporosis medication after the application of the ECTS 2022 recommendations.