Factors increasing the risk for a severe reaction in anaphylaxis: An analysis of data from The European Anaphylaxis Registry.

BACKGROUND: Preventive measures to decrease the frequency and intensity of anaphylactic events are essential to provide optimal care for allergic patients. Aggravating factors may trigger or increase the severity of anaphylaxis and therefore need to be recognized and avoided. OBJECTIVE: To identify and prioritize factors associated with an increased risk of developing severe anaphylaxis. METHODS: Data from the Anaphylaxis Registry (122 centers in 11 European countries) were used in logistic regression models considering existing severity grading systems, elicitors, and symptoms to identify the relative risk of factors on the severity of anaphylaxis. RESULTS: We identified higher age and concomitant mastocytosis (OR: 3.1, CI: 2.6-3.7) as the most important predictors for an increased risk of severe anaphylaxis. Vigorous physical exercise (OR: 1.5, CI: 1.3-1.7), male sex (OR: 1.2, CI: 1.1-1.3), and psychological burden (OR: 1.4, CI: 1.2-1.6) were more often associated with severe reactions. Additionally, intake of beta-blockers (OR: 1.9, CI: 1.5-2.2) and ACE-I (OR: 1.28, CI: 1.05, 1.51) in temporal proximity to allergen exposition was identified as an important factor in logistic regression analysis. CONCLUSION: Our data suggest it may be possible to identify patients who require intensified preventive measures due to their relatively higher risk for severe anaphylaxis by considering endogenous and exogenous factors.

Peanut-allergic patients in the MIRABEL survey: characteristics, allergists' dietary advice and lessons from real life.

BACKGROUND: The MIRABEL survey is an observational study on peanut allergy in France, Belgium and Luxemburg. The objectives are to provide data on a large population, to analyse the consumer behaviour, to study the presence of peanut traces in pre-packed foods with/without precautionary allergen labelling (PAL), and to combine these data to quantify allergic risk and produce a cost/benefit analysis. This paper reports a real-life observatory of 785 patients (< 16y: 86%): medical characteristics, eliciting doses (ED) in real life and in oral food challenges (OFC), factors associated with severe reactions, allergist dietary advice and patients' anxiety regarding their allergy. METHODS: Age and symptoms at diagnosis, route of exposure, comorbidities, allergy tests, ED (OFC/real life; mg peanut protein), dietary advice about PAL, and anxiety score were recorded. RESULTS: Median age was 3 years; 85% were declared allergic. Severe/potentially severe reactions were reported in 30% of the allergic patients: serious systemic reaction (15%), laryngeal angioedema (8%), shock (4%) and acute asthma (3%); 66% had atopic dermatitis, 58% asthma. Median ara h 2 sIgE level was 11.5 kUA/L. Of the 278 OFCs, 225 were positive (median ED: 67.3 mg). Real-life ED was < 100 mg in 44.3%. Severe reactions were significantly more frequent in teenagers and adults (P = 0.004), asthmatic patients (P = 0.033), and patients who reacted to inhalation (P < 0.001). No significant association was found for OFC ED or ara h 2 sIgE. Factors associated with strict avoidance advice including PAL were OFC ED < 100 mg (P < 0.001), but not severe reaction history (P = 0.051) or asthma (P = 0.34). Anxiety was significantly associated with strict avoidance (P < 0.001). CONCLUSION AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE: Severe/potentially severe reactions, allergic comorbidities, and low EDs in real life are frequent in peanut-allergic patients. Asthma, teenage/adulthood and reaction to inhalation are associated with severe symptoms. PAL and criteria guiding dietary advice need to be improved.

Anaphylaxis to diclofenac: nine cases reported to the Allergy Vigilance Network in France.

Nine cases of diclofenac hypersensitivity recorded by the Allergy Vigilance Network in France from 2002 to 2012 were studied. Data from history, symptoms, skin tests, basophil activation tests, and oral challenge (OC) were recorded. Grade 3 severe anaphylactic reactions occurred in seven cases of nine. IgE-dependent anaphylaxis was confirmed in six cases: positive intradermal tests (n = 4), a syndromic reaction during skin tests (n = 1), and one case with grade 1 reaction and negative skin tests had an anaphylactic shock to the OC. A nonimmune reaction was suspected in one case. An IgE-dependent mechanism may be the predominant cause of adverse reactions to diclofenac. Allergy skin tests must be carried out sequentially at the recommended concentrations. BATs may be helpful because they can support the diagnosis of anaphylaxis. Given the risks of a direct challenge to diclofenac, OC to aspirin should be performed first to exclude a nonimmunologic hypersensitivity to NSAIDs. Tests for specific IgEs to most frequently used NSAIDs such as diclofenac and ibuprofen are urgently needed.

Severe drug-induced anaphylaxis: analysis of 333 cases recorded by the Allergy Vigilance Network from 2002 to 2010.

BACKGROUND: A few series of well-documented cases of severe drug-induced anaphylaxis (SDA) are available. METHODS: Cases collected by the Allergy Vigilance Network from 2002 to 2010 were analyzed for clinical signs, causative drugs, and efficacy of a stepwise approach to diagnosis, using skin tests, laboratory tests, and oral challenges. RESULTS: Three hundred and thirty-three cases concerned 300 adults (90.1%) and 33 children (9.9%): 206 females (61.9%) and 127 males (38.1%). Mean age was 42.7 ± 18 years. Anaphylactic shock (76.6%), severe systemic reactions (10.5%), acute laryngeal edema (9%), severe bronchospasm (2.1%), and six fatal cases (1.8%) were recorded. There were 270 cases (81.1%) of ambulatory anaphylaxis. Sixty-three cases (18.9%) occurred during anesthesia. Hospitalization was required in 94.8% of cases. 23.7% of patients were admitted to an intensive care unit. Epinephrine was used in 57.9% of cases. Eighty-four drugs were incriminated: antibiotics (49.6%), muscle relaxants, latex and anesthetics (15%), nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (10.2%), acetaminophen (3.9%), iodinated or magnetic resonance imaging contrast media (4.2%), immunotherapy and vaccines (3.9%), and other drugs (13%). Among antibiotics, amoxicillin (97 cases), other penicillins (four cases), cephalosporins (41 cases), quinolones (15 cases), and pristinamycin (seven cases) were the most common. The diagnosis of drug hypersensitivity was obtained by skin tests in 72.9%, laboratory tests only in 2.4% of cases, and oral challenges (OCs) only in 3.9% of cases. CONCLUSIONS: Three hundred and thirty-three case reports provided data on drugs involved in severe anaphylaxis. The efficacy of skin tests and poor use of laboratory tests are underlined. Further progress may depend on OCs.

Prevalence of sensitisation to oilseed rape and maize pollens in France: a multi-center study carried out by the Allergo-Vigilance Network.

BACKGROUND: Oilseed rape and maize crops represent a large part of agriculture fields in European countries. OBJECTIVE: To establish the actual prevalence of sensitization to oilseed rape and maize pollen, and to determine if this is correlated to the amount of exposure as well as to the patient's history of atopy or asymptomatic atopy. METHODS: The study was conducted by 69 allergists belonging to the Allergo-Vigilance Network, in collaboration with the French Agency for Safety of food, and compiles the results of skin prick-tests using oilseed rape and maize pollens and seeds, as well as common aeroallergens. The patients were classified into 3 groups: nonatopic, asymptomatic atopy, and actual atopic diseases. RESULTS: Among the 5372 subjects studied (2515 children, 2857 adults), 62.3% had an atopic disease, 10.2% had an asymptomatic atopy, and 27.5% were non-atopic. The level of sensitization was higher in the subjects with atopic disease, as compared to those with asymptomatic atopy: oilseed rape pollen: 11.8% vs 8%, maize pollen, 26% vs 19%, oilseed rape seeds, 7.7% vs 6.9%, corn seeds: 8.3% vs 4.8% (p < 0.001). The rate of sensitization was significantly increased in those living in high crop density regions. The association of an atopic disease with a high rate of exposure yielded a higher rate of sensitization of 13.8% and 21.3% for rapeseed pollen, and 22.9% and 30.7% for maize pollen in both children and adults, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: The incidence of sensitisation to rapeseed and maize pollen is positively correlated to the level of exposure. This prevalence is higher in patients with actual atopic disease as compared to those with asymptomatic atopy. The frequency of sensitization confirms the allergenicity of these plants destined for food supply and demonstrates the importance of monitoring for respiratory allergies to these pollens, not only in workers exposed to these types of crops, but also in atopic patients living in regions that contain a high density of rapeseed and maize fields. Cross-reactivities between pollens and seeds could potentially elicit cross-reacting food allergies.

A novel immunoassay using recombinant allergens simplifies peanut allergy diagnosis.

BACKGROUND: Double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge (DBPCFC) is currently considered the gold standard for peanut allergy diagnosis. However, this procedure that requires the hospitalization of patients, mostly children, in specialized centers for oral exposure to allergens may cause severe reactions requiring emergency measures. Thus, a simpler and safer diagnosis procedure is needed. The aim of this study was to evaluate the diagnostic performance of a new set of in vitro blood tests for peanut allergy. METHODS: The levels of IgE directed towards peanut extract and recombinant peanut allergens Ara h 1, Ara h 2, Ara h 3, Ara h 6, Ara h 7, and Ara h 8 were measured in 3 groups of patients enrolled at 2 independent centers: patients with proven peanut allergy (n=166); pollen-sensitized subjects without peanut allergy (n=61), and control subjects without allergic disease (n=10). RESULTS: Seventy-nine percent of the pollen-sensitized patients showed IgE binding to peanut, despite their tolerance to peanut. In contrast, combining the results of specific IgE to peanut extract and to recombinant Ara h 2 and Ara h 6 yielded a peanut allergy diagnosis with a 98% sensitivity and an 85% specificity at a positivity threshold of 0.10 kU/l. Use of a threshold of 0.23 kU/l for recombinant Ara h 2 increased specificity (96%) at the cost of sensitivity (93%). CONCLUSION: A simple blood test can be used to diagnose peanut allergy with a high level of precision. However, DBPCFC will remain useful for the few cases where immunological and clinical observations yield conflicting results.

2008 SOR guidelines for the prevention and treatment of thrombosis associated with central venous catheters in patients with cancer: report from the working group.

BACKGROUND: In view of the lack of recommendations on central venous catheter (CVC)-associated thrombosis in cancer patients, we established guidelines according to the well-standardized Standards, Options and Recommendations methodology. MATERIAL AND METHODS: A literature review (1990-2007) on CVC-associated thrombosis was carried out. The guidelines were developed on the basis of the corresponding levels of evidence derived from analysis of the 36 of 175 publications selected. They were then peer reviewed by 65 independent experts. RESULTS: For the prevention of CVC-associated thrombosis, the distal tip of the CVC should be placed at the junction between the superior cava vein and right atrium; anticoagulants are not recommended. Treatment of CVC-associated thrombosis should be based on the prolonged use of low-molecular weight heparins. Maintenance of the catheter is justified if it is mandatory, functional, in the right position, and not infected, with a favorable clinical evolution under close monitoring; anticoagulant treatment should then be continued as long as the catheter is present. CONCLUSIONS: Several rigorous studies do not support the use of anticoagulants for the prevention of CVC-associated thrombosis. Treatment of CVC-associated thrombosis relies on the same principles as those applied in the treatment of established thrombosis in cancer patients.

A murine model of cow's milk protein-induced allergic reaction: use for safety assessment of hidden milk allergens.

BACKGROUND: Masked allergens in processed food products can lead to severe allergic reactions following unintentional ingestion. We sought to develop a murine model for the detection of hidden cow's milk proteins (CMP). This study aimed to induce cow's milk allergy in mice, to characterize the anaphylaxis induced by CMP in this model, and to validate its reliability using three margarines manufactured with (A) or without (B, C) milk, sharing the same production line. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Three-week-old BALB/c mice were sensitized intragastrically with CMP plus cholera toxin and boosted 6 times at weekly intervals. CMP-sensitization status was monitored by skin tests, and measurement of CMP-specific IgE and IgG1 levels. On day 44, the minimal threshold of clinical reactivity to CMP in terms of anaphylaxis was determined by performing a dose response of intraperitoneal CMP challenge. Under the same conditions, anaphylaxis was evaluated in CMP-sensitized mice after challenge with protein extracts of margarines A, B or C. RESULTS: Sensitization to CMP was demonstrated by positive skin tests and increased CMP-specific IgE and IgG1. The minimal clinical reactivity threshold corresponding to 0.1 mg CMP elicited detectable anaphylaxis evidenced by clinical symptoms, a decrease in breathing frequency, and increased plasma histamine upon challenge. Similarly, challenges with margarine A containing CMP demonstrated anaphylaxis, whereas those with B or C did not elicit any detectable allergic reaction. CONCLUSION: This study shows that our murine model of CMP-induced anaphylaxis is useful for investigating the allergenic activity and the assessment of margarines with respect to milk.

Structural analysis of the Spiroplasma virus, SpV4: implications for evolutionary variation to obtain host diversity among the Microviridae.

BACKGROUND: Spiroplasma virus, SpV4, is a small, non-enveloped virus that infects the helical mollicute Spiroplasma melliferum. SpV4 exhibits several similarities to the Chlamydia phage, Chp1, and the Coliphages alpha 3, phi K, G4 and phi X174. All of these viruses are members of the Microviridae. These viruses have isometric capsids with T = 1 icosahedral symmetry, cause lytic infections and are the only icosahedral phages that contain single-stranded circular DNA genomes. The aim of this comparative study on these phages was to understand the role of their capsid proteins during host receptor recognition. RESULTS: The three-dimensional structure of SpV4 was determined to 27 A resolution from images of frozen-hydrated particles. Cryo-electron microscopy (cryo-EM) revealed 20, approximately 54 A long, 'mushroom-like' protrusions on the surface of the capsid. Each protrusion comprises a trimeric structure that extends radially along the threefold icosahedral axes of the capsid. A 71 amino acid portion of VP1 (the SpV4 capsid protein) was shown, by structural alignment with the atomic structure of the F capsid protein of phi X174, to represent an insertion sequence between the E and F strands of the eight-stranded antiparallel beta-barrel. Secondary structure prediction of this insertion sequence provided the basis for a probable structural motif, consisting of a six-stranded antiparallel beta sheet connected by small turns. Three such motifs form the rigid stable trimeric structures (mushroom-like protrusions) at the threefold axes, with hydrophobic depressions at their distal surface. CONCLUSIONS: Sequence alignment and structural analysis indicate that distinct genera of the Microviridae might have evolved from a common primordial ancestor, with capsid surface variations, such as the SpV4 protrusions, resulting from gene fusion events that have enabled diverse host ranges. The hydrophobic nature of the cavity at the distal surface of the SpV4 protrusions suggests that this region may function as the receptor-recognition site during host infection.

Food-dependent exercise-induced anaphylaxis--update and current data.

Exercise-induced anaphylaxis (EIA) is defined as the onset of allergic symptoms during, or immediately after, exercise, the clinical signs being various degrees of urticaria, angioedema, respiratory and gastrointestinal signs and even anaphylactic shock. Food-dependent exercise-induced anaphylaxis (FDEIA) introduces food in the syndrome and is revealed by a chronological sequence in which food intake, followed by exercise, induces symptoms after a varying period. When the food intake and the exercise are independent of each other, there are no symptoms. FDEIA is not very frequent. Identifying the culprit food allergen depends on the patient's eating habits. Crustaceans and wheat flour are the two commonest but others foods can be implicated. The patho-physiology of FDEIA has not been clearly established but it appears to result from degranulation of mast cells. As with food allergy, FDEIA diagnosis is based on interview, skin and biological tests and challenge. For the clinical signs of allergy, antihistamines, corticosteroids and epinephrine may be administered. Prophylaxis aims to prevent a recurrence; the patient should be given an emergency kit to deal with any recurrent episode. After the food allergen has been identified, it should be avoided for at least 4 to 5 hours before any exercise.

Spinal intramedullary glioblastoma with intracranial seeding. Report of a case.

Approximately one year after partial removal of an intramedullary glioblastoma at T12, a patient was admitted to Wadsworth Veterans Administration Hospital with signs and symptoms of an intracranial tumor. We describe the unusual occurrence of intracranial seeding from spinal glioblastoma and review this rare condition and the possible mechanism involved.

The vacuolar membrane of plant cells: a newcomer in the field of biological membranes.

The vacuole of plant cells is a large compartment whose functions (storage, regulation of cytoplasmic homeostasis) have been studied mainly using indirect methods. The recent development of procedures to isolate this organelle enables direct investigation of its properties and of those of its surrounding membrane, the tonoplast. Several problems are encountered when studying the tonoplast: the small quantities of membrane material recovered, the contamination by other membranes, and the lack of an unambiguous marker. This accounts for the scarcity of analytical data concerning this structure. The investigation of transport systems at the tonoplast was stimulated by the existence of a high pH gradient across this membrane and the accumulation of various solutes inside the vacuole (sucrose, organic acids, etc.). Up to now, the most studied system is the proton-pumping ATPase. Its main characteristics are presented, together with a few data on other transport systems.

Subdural empyema--importance of early diagnosis.

Because subdural empyema (SDE) is an unusual central nervous system infection, recognition is not always prompt. Consequently delays can allow a serious but curable infection to become irreparably damaging or even fatal. This condition, particularly in the early stages, is relatively easy to treat. Personal experience with six patients during the past 3 years promoted us to review the data from UCLA and its affiliated hospitals. Among the 23 cases of SDE reviewed, the predisposing factor in 16 was sinusitis, mastoiditis, or otitis media. The clinical presentation, encompassing a systemic febrile illness, headache, and neurological deficit, was monotonously uniform. The high incidence of paranasal sinus involvement in the adult, middle ear infections in infants, and seizures in 15 patients comprised further clinical clues suggesting the diagnosis. Although usually diagnosed as an intracranial inflammatory process, an initial failure to suspect a purulent collection in the subdural compartment was typical. Although the findings of definitive diagnostic studies (computed tomography or angiography) are strikingly positive in advanced cases, in the earlier stages of this disorder they may be subtly abnormal. Because the mortality and morbidity rates, in some measure, depend on the stage at which the process is arrested, the real challenge lies in making a prompt diagnosis. The most favorable results are associated with early, decisive surgical treatment.

A simple, inexpensive technique for accurate mass localization by computerized tomography: technical note.

A simple wire template is placed on the patient's head during computerized tomography scanning, and the results of the scan are later reproduced on the scalp prior to surgery. Measurements of the distance between the wires and the relationship of the mass provide the key to accurate localization of the mass on the scalp surface.

Intracranial hemorrhage associated with anticoagulation therapy.

Nine patients with intracranial hemorrhage associated with long-term anticoagulation therapy were evaluated at the Wadsworth Veterans Administration Hospital over a 30-month period. The relationships of the hemorrhage to other variables, both in this series and in the review of the literature, are analyzed. The most common site of the intracranial hemorrhage was the subdural space. No direct correlation between the presence of arterial hypertension or prothrombin activity and intracranial hemorrhage existed. The outcome was favorable in six of the patients, four of whom had a subdural hematoma.

Superficial temporal arteriovenous fistula.

A case of post-traumatic arteriovenous fistula involving the superficial temporal artery is reported. The traumatic episode antedated the clinical manifestation and diagnosis by 28 months. The salient feature of the physical examination was the presence of a pulsatile mass with detectable bruit. This lesion, which was confirmed by angiography and computerized tomography, was treated by direct excision.