Omalizumab for the Treatment of Multiple Food Allergies.

BACKGROUND: Food allergies are common and are associated with substantial morbidity; the only approved treatment is oral immunotherapy for peanut allergy. METHODS: In this trial, we assessed whether omalizumab, a monoclonal anti-IgE antibody, would be effective and safe as monotherapy in patients with multiple food allergies. Persons 1 to 55 years of age who were allergic to peanuts and at least two other trial-specified foods (cashew, milk, egg, walnut, wheat, and hazelnut) were screened. Inclusion required a reaction to a food challenge of 100 mg or less of peanut protein and 300 mg or less of the two other foods. Participants were randomly assigned, in a 2:1 ratio, to receive omalizumab or placebo administered subcutaneously (with the dose based on weight and IgE levels) every 2 to 4 weeks for 16 to 20 weeks, after which the challenges were repeated. The primary end point was ingestion of peanut protein in a single dose of 600 mg or more without dose-limiting symptoms. The three key secondary end points were the consumption of cashew, of milk, and of egg in single doses of at least 1000 mg each without dose-limiting symptoms. The first 60 participants (59 of whom were children or adolescents) who completed this first stage were enrolled in a 24-week open-label extension. RESULTS: Of the 462 persons who were screened, 180 underwent randomization. The analysis population consisted of the 177 children and adolescents (1 to 17 years of age). A total of 79 of the 118 participants (67%) receiving omalizumab met the primary end-point criteria, as compared with 4 of the 59 participants (7%) receiving placebo (P<0.001). Results for the key secondary end points were consistent with those of the primary end point (cashew, 41% vs. 3%; milk, 66% vs. 10%; egg, 67% vs. 0%; P<0.001 for all comparisons). Safety end points did not differ between the groups, aside from more injection-site reactions in the omalizumab group. CONCLUSIONS: In persons as young as 1 year of age with multiple food allergies, omalizumab treatment for 16 weeks was superior to placebo in increasing the reaction threshold for peanut and other common food allergens. (Funded by the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases and others; ClinicalTrials.gov number, NCT03881696.).

A randomized double-blinded trial to assess recurrence of systemic allergic reactions following COVID-19 mRNA vaccination.

BACKGROUND: Systemic allergic reactions (sARs) following coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) mRNA vaccines were initially reported at a higher rate than after traditional vaccines. OBJECTIVE: We aimed to evaluate the safety of revaccination in these individuals and to interrogate mechanisms underlying these reactions. METHODS: In this randomized, double-blinded, phase 2 trial, participants aged 16 to 69 years who previously reported a convincing sAR to their first dose of COVID-19 mRNA vaccine were randomly assigned to receive a second dose of BNT162b2 (Comirnaty) vaccine and placebo on consecutive days in a blinded, 1:1 crossover fashion at the National Institutes of Health. An open-label BNT162b2 booster was offered 5 months later if the second dose did not result in severe sAR. None of the participants received the mRNA-1273 (Spikevax) vaccine during the study. The primary end point was recurrence of sAR following second dose and booster vaccination; exploratory end points included biomarker measurements. RESULTS: Of 111 screened participants, 18 were randomly assigned to receive study interventions. Eight received BNT162b2 second dose followed by placebo; 8 received placebo followed by BNT162b2 second dose; 2 withdrew before receiving any study intervention. All 16 participants received the booster dose. Following second dose and booster vaccination, sARs recurred in 2 participants (12.5%; 95% CI, 1.6 to 38.3). No sAR occurred after placebo. An anaphylaxis mimic, immunization stress-related response (ISRR), occurred more commonly than sARs following both vaccine and placebo and was associated with higher predose anxiety scores, paresthesias, and distinct vital sign and biomarker changes. CONCLUSIONS: Our findings support revaccination of individuals who report sARs to COVID-19 mRNA vaccines. Distinct clinical and laboratory features may distinguish sARs from ISRRs.

Key factors that influence quality of life in patients with IgE-mediated food allergy vary by age.

BACKGROUND: While food allergy (FA) can be fatal, the greatest public health impact of FA arguably lies in its detrimental effect on quality of life (FAQOL). Understanding the factors that contribute to FAQOL at different ages is essential to develop personalized interventions that will improve FAQOL. OBJECTIVE: To determine the most influential factors that impact FAQOL across ages in well-phenotyped participants with confirmed FA. METHODS: One hundred and twenty-five individuals aged 2-28 years with IgE-mediated FA completed validated age-specific FAQOL questionnaires. The relationship between demographic/clinical variables and scores were analyzed to identify key predictors of FAQOL. RESULTS: Poor FAQOL was associated with increasing age, strict avoidance practices, reactions to trace exposures, and more severe reactions as assessed by epinephrine use, anaphylaxis, and/or treatment in the emergency department; FAQOL improved with time from the event. FAQOL was worse in subjects avoiding >2 versus ≤2 foods and in those avoiding milk, egg, soy, sesame, or wheat. Number of foods avoided had greatest impact on children ages 2-7 years, while total number of allergic reactions strongly impacted FAQOL in teens and adults; FAQOL of subjects ages 8-12 years appeared less affected by these variables compared to other age groups. A decision tree analysis identified key predictors of overall FAQOL (age, number of food avoidances, and time since epinephrine use) that can be used to guide intervention strategies to improve FAQOL. CONCLUSION: We directly compared FAQOL in extensively phenotyped children, teenagers, and adults with confirmed IgE-mediated FA. Age; timing, number, and severity of reactions; type and number of FA; and food avoidance practices influence FAQOL and should guide intervention strategies.

Defining the window of opportunity and target populations to prevent peanut allergy.

BACKGROUND: Peanut allergy affects 1% to 2% of European children. Early introduction of peanut into the diet reduces allergy in high-risk infants. OBJECTIVE: We aimed to determine the optimal target populations and timing of introduction of peanut products to prevent peanut allergy in the general population. METHODS: Data from the Enquiring About Tolerance (EAT; n = 1303; normal risk; 3-year follow-up; ISRCTN14254740) and Learning Early About Peanut Allergy study (LEAP; n = 640; high risk; 5-year follow-up; NCT00329784) randomized controlled trials plus the Peanut Allergy Sensitization (PAS; n = 194; low and very high risk; 5-year follow-up) observational study were used to model the intervention in a general population. Peanut allergy was defined by blinded peanut challenge or diagnostic skin prick test result. RESULTS: Targeting only the highest-risk infants with severe eczema reduced the population disease burden by only 4.6%. Greatest reductions in peanut allergy were seen when the intervention was targeted only to the larger but lower-risk groups. A 77% reduction in peanut allergy was estimated when peanut was introduced to the diet of all infants, at 4 months with eczema, and at 6 months without eczema. The estimated reduction in peanut allergy diminished with every month of delayed introduction. If introduction was delayed to 12 months, peanut allergy was only reduced by 33%. CONCLUSIONS: The preventive benefit of early introduction of peanut products into the diet decreases as age at introduction increases. In countries where peanut allergy is a public health concern, health care professionals should help parents introduce peanut products into their infants' diet at 4 to 6 months of life.

Defining baseline variability of serum tryptase levels improves accuracy in identifying anaphylaxis.

BACKGROUND: Acute increases of ≥20% + 2 ng/mL (20 + 2 rule) over basal serum tryptase (BST) is the recommended threshold supporting a clinical diagnosis of anaphylaxis. Prospective studies have demonstrated high sensitivity for this algorithm after parenteral exposure, but specificity has not been evaluated. OBJECTIVE: We sought to define a serum tryptase change that distinguishes baseline variability from anaphylaxis on the basis of intraindividual variation in BST. METHODS: Ninety-three total subjects with atopy (n = 62) or hereditary α-tryptasemia (HαT) (n = 31) and ≥2 BST measurements were identified. Sequential BST variability measurements were modeled and threshold ratios that optimized sensitivity and/or specificity determined. Models were tested in 22 individuals with physician-diagnosed anaphylaxis and validated in independent cohorts of individuals with HαT (n = 33), indolent systemic mastocytosis (ISM) (n = 52), and ISM + HαT (n = 12). Mature tryptase levels were measured in HαT (n = 19) and ISM (n = 20). An online application was developed for clinical use. RESULTS: As a result of BST variability, 9.7% (9/93) of primary cohort patients, and 18% (6/33) of HαT, 30% (16/53) of ISM, and 25% (3/12) of ISM + HαT patients from validation cohorts met the 20 + 2 rule despite absent immediate hypersensitivity symptoms; mature tryptase was noncontributory among individuals with HαT or ISM at baseline. A ratio of acute tryptase/BST exceeding 1.685 provided the optimized diagnostic rule for jointly maximizing sensitivity and specificity. Statistically significant improvement in specificity relative to the 20 + 2 rule was observed among individuals with elevated BST caused by HαT and ISM. CONCLUSIONS: Using an acute tryptase/BST ratio of 1.685 improves specificity of measured changes among individuals with HαT and ISM while maintaining high sensitivity for confirmation of anaphylaxis.

Predictors of low bone density and fracture risk in Loeys-Dietz syndrome.

PURPOSE: Loeys-Dietz syndrome (LDS) is a connective tissue disorder affecting multiple organ systems, including bone. METHODS: We defined the bone phenotype and clinical predictors of low bone density and fracture risk in 77 patients with LDS type 1 to type 5. RESULTS: Patients with LDS had dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) Z-scores significantly < 0, and 50% of children and 9% of adults had Z-scores < -2. Sixty percent of patients had ≥1 fracture, and 24% of patients with spinal x-rays scans showed spinal compression fractures. Lower body mass index, asthma, male sex and eosinophilic gastrointestinal disease were correlated with lower DXA Z-scores. The count of 5 LDS-associated skeletal features (scoliosis, pes planus, arachnodactyly, spondylolisthesis, and camptodactyly) in patients with LDS was correlated with DXA Z-score. Adults with ≥1 skeletal features had DXA Z-scores significantly < 0, and children with >2 features had DXA Z-score significantly < -2. Bone turnover markers suggest accelerated bone resorption. Data from 5 patients treated with bisphosphonates suggest a beneficial effect. CONCLUSION: All LDS types are associated with reduced bone density and increased risk of fracture, which may be due to increased bone resorption. Clinical features can predict a subgroup of patients at highest risk of low bone density and fracture risk.

A randomized double-blind, placebo-controlled study of omalizumab for idiopathic anaphylaxis.

BACKGROUND: Idiopathic anaphylaxis (IA) is a diagnosis of exclusion, thus taking away the option of therapeutic management focused on eliminating the inciting agent. Epinephrine and antihistamines followed by systemic corticosteroids are the mainstays of therapy for acute events. There is no prophylactic therapy that reliably prevents anaphylaxis. OBJECTIVE: We sought to determine the efficacy of omalizumab in the management of patients with frequent episodes of IA in a double-blind, placebo-controlled trial. METHODS: We prospectively enrolled 19 patients with frequent IA (≥6 episodes/y) who then underwent a medical evaluation that included a serum tryptase determination, mutational analysis for KIT D816V, and bone marrow evaluation to rule out a clonal mast cell disorder. Computer-generated random numbers were provided by the study pharmacist. The primary end point was anaphylactic events in the 6 months after baseline. Sixteen patients completed the primary trial. RESULTS: No statistically significant difference was demonstrated between the placebo and treated groups. There was a trend for efficacy in the treatment group, particularly after 60 days. Overall, the safety profile was favorable without long-term side effects. CONCLUSIONS: Omalizumab was safely administered to a difficult-to-treat patient population with IA. The efficacy results trended modestly in favor of the treatment group, but no statistically significant differences were detected.

A critical role for STAT3 transcription factor signaling in the development and maintenance of human T cell memory.

STAT3 transcription factor signaling in specific T helper cell differentiation has been well described, although the broader roles for STAT3 in lymphocyte memory are less clear. Patients with autosomal-dominant hyper-IgE syndrome (AD-HIES) carry dominant-negative STAT3 mutations and are susceptible to a variety of bacterial and fungal infections. We found that AD-HIES patients have a cell-intrinsic defect in the number of central memory CD4(+) and CD8(+) T cells compared to healthy controls. Naive T cells from AD-HIES patients had lower expression of memory-related transcription factors BCL6 and SOCS3, a primary proliferation defect, and they failed to acquire central memory-like surface phenotypes in vitro. AD-HIES patients showed a decreased ability to control varicella zoster virus (VZV) and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) latency, and T cell memory to both of these viruses was compromised. These data point to a specific role for STAT3 in human central memory T cell formation and in control of certain chronic viruses.

A primer on strong vs weak control of familywise error rate.

Multiple comparison adjustments have a long history, yet confusion remains about which procedures control type 1 error rate in a strong sense and how to show this. Part of the confusion stems from a powerful technique called the closed testing principle, whose statement is deceptively simple, but is sometimes misinterpreted. This primer presents a straightforward way to think about multiplicity adjustment.

Mind the gaps: Clinical trial concepts to address unanswered questions in aeroallergen immunotherapy-An NIAID/AHRQ Workshop.

The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality and the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases organized a workshop to develop trial concepts that could improve the use and effectiveness of aeroallergen immunotherapy (AAIT). Expert groups were formed to accomplish the following tasks: (1) propose a study design to compare the effectiveness and safety of subcutaneous versus sublingual AAIT; (2) propose a study design to compare the effectiveness and safety of AAIT by using 1 or a few allergens versus all or most allergens to which a patient is sensitized; (3) propose a study design to determine whether AAIT can alter the progression of childhood allergic airways disease; and (4) propose a study design to determine the optimal dose and duration of AAIT to achieve maximal effectiveness with acceptable safety. Study designs were presented by the workgroups, extensively discussed at the workshop, and revised for this report. The proposed trials would be of long duration and require large highly characterized patient populations. Scientific caveats and feasibility matters are discussed. These concepts are intended to help the development of clinical trials that can address some of the major questions related to the practice of AAIT for the management and prevention of allergic airways disease.