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1.
Lancet Microbe ; 4(4): e228-e235, 2023 04.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-36907197

ABSTRACT

BACKGROUND: Vibriocidal antibodies are currently the best characterised correlate of protection against cholera and are used to gauge immunogenicity in vaccine trials. Although other circulating antibody responses have been associated with a decreased risk of infection, the correlates of protection against cholera have not been comprehensively compared. We aimed to analyse antibody-mediated correlates of protection from both V cholerae infection and cholera-related diarrhoea. METHODS: We conducted a systems serology study that analysed 58 serum antibody biomarkers as correlates of protection against V cholerae O1 infection or diarrhoea. We used serum samples from two cohorts: household contacts of people with confirmed cholera in Dhaka, Bangladesh, and cholera-naive volunteers who were recruited at three centres in the USA, vaccinated with a single dose of CVD 103-HgR live oral cholera vaccine, and then challenged with V cholerae O1 El Tor Inaba strain N16961. We measured antigen-specific immunoglobulin responses against antigens using a customised Luminex assay and used conditional random forest models to examine which baseline biomarkers were most important for classifying individuals who went on to develop infection versus those who remained uninfected or asymptomatic. V cholerae infection was defined as having a positive stool culture result on days 2-7 or day 30 after enrolment of the household's index cholera case and, in the vaccine challenge cohort, was the development of symptomatic diarrhoea (defined as two or more loose stools of ≥200 mL each, or a single loose stool of ≥300 mL over a 48-h period). FINDINGS: In the household contact cohort (261 participants from 180 households), 20 (34%) of the 58 studied biomarkers were associated with protection against V cholerae infection. We identified serum antibody-dependent complement deposition targeting the O1 antigen as the most predictive correlate of protection from infection in the household contacts, whereas vibriocidal antibody titres ranked lower. A five-biomarker model predicted protection from V cholerae infection with a cross-validated area under the curve (cvAUC) of 79% (95% CI 73-85). This model also predicted protection against diarrhoea in unvaccinated volunteers challenged with V cholerae O1 after vaccination (n=67; area under the curve [AUC] 77%, 95% CI 64-90). Although a different five-biomarker model best predicted protection from the development of cholera diarrhoea in the challenged vaccinees (cvAUC 78%, 95% CI 66-91), this model did poorly at predicting protection against infection in the household contacts (AUC 60%, 52-67). INTERPRETATION: Several biomarkers predict protection better than vibriocidal titres. A model based on protection against infection among household contacts was predictive of protection against both infection and diarrhoeal illness in challenged vaccinees, suggesting that models based on observed conditions in a cholera-endemic population might be more likely to identify broadly applicable correlates of protection than models trained on single experimental settings. FUNDING: National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases and National Institute of Child Health and Human Development, National Institutes of Health.


Subject(s)
Cholera , Vibrio cholerae , Child , Humans , Cholera/epidemiology , Cholera/prevention & control , Antibodies, Bacterial , Bangladesh/epidemiology , Diarrhea/epidemiology
2.
J Infect Dis ; 224(12 Suppl 2): S732-S737, 2021 12 20.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-34668561

ABSTRACT

A correlate of protection (CoP) is a measured adaptive immune response to vaccination or infection that is associated with protection against disease. However, the degree to which a CoP can serve as a surrogate end point for vaccine efficacy should depend on the robustness of this association. While cholera toxin is a dominant target of the human antibody response to Vibrio cholerae infection, antitoxin responses are not associated with long-term immunity, and are not effective CoPs for cholera. Instead, protection appears to be mediated by functional antibodies that target the O-polysaccharide coated V. cholerae outer membrane. Vibriocidal antibodies, which are complement-dependent bactericidal antibodies, remain the most accepted CoP for cholera and are used as surrogate end points in some vaccine studies. However, the association between vibriocidal antibody titers and immunity is not absolute, and they are unlikely to reflect a mechanistic correlate of protection against cholera.


Subject(s)
Adaptive Immunity , Cholera Vaccines , Cholera/prevention & control , Vaccine Efficacy , Vibrio cholerae/immunology , Antibodies, Bacterial/immunology , Cholera Toxin/immunology , Cholera Vaccines/adverse effects , Cholera Vaccines/immunology , Humans , Vibrio cholerae O1/immunology
3.
Vaccine ; 39(32): 4516-4523, 2021 07 22.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-34217572

ABSTRACT

Two-dose killed oral cholera vaccines (OCV) are currently being used widely to control cholera. The standard dose-interval for OCV is 2 weeks; however, during emergency use of the vaccine, it may be more appropriate to use the available doses to quickly give a single dose to more people and give a delayed second dose when more vaccine becomes available. This study is an open label, randomized, phase 2 clinical trial of the vibriocidal response induced by OCV, comparing the responses when the second dose was given either 2 weeks (standard dose interval) or 6 months (extended dose interval) after the first dose. Vaccine was administered to healthy participants > 1 year of age living in the Lukanga Swamps area of Zambia. Three age cohorts (<5 years, 5-14 years, and ≥ 15 years) were randomized to the either dose-interval. The primary outcome was the vibriocidal GMT 14 days after the second dose. 156 of 172 subjects enrolled in the study were included in this analysis. The Inaba vibriocidal titers were not significantly different 14 days post dose two for a standard dose-interval GMT: 45.6 (32-64.9), as compared to the GMT 47.6 (32.6-69.3), for the extended dose-interval, (p = 0.87). However, the Ogawa vibriocidal GMTs were significantly higher 14 days post dose two for the extended-dose interval at 87.6 (58.9-130.4) compared to the standard dose-interval group at 49.7 (34.1-72.3), p = 0.04. Vibriocidal seroconversion rates (a > 4-fold rise in vibriocidal titer) were not significantly different between dose-interval groups. This study demonstrated that vibriocidal titers 14 days after a second dose when given at an extended\ dose interval were similar to the standard dose-interval. The findings suggest that a flexible dosing schedule may be considered when epidemiologically appropriate. The trial was registered at Clinical Trials.gov (NCT03373669).


Subject(s)
Cholera Vaccines , Cholera , Administration, Oral , Antibodies, Bacterial , Child, Preschool , Cholera/prevention & control , Humans , Zambia
4.
mSphere ; 6(2)2021 04 28.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-33910997

ABSTRACT

Cholera remains a major public health problem in resource-limited countries. Vaccination is an important strategy to prevent cholera, but currently available vaccines provide only 3 to 5 years of protection. Understanding immune responses to cholera antigens in naturally infected individuals may elucidate which of these are key to longer-term protection seen following infection. We recently identified Vibrio cholerae O1 sialidase, a neuraminidase that facilitates binding of cholera toxin to intestinal epithelial cells, as immunogenic following infection in two recent high-throughput screens. Here, we present systemic, mucosal, and memory immune responses to sialidase in cholera index cases and evaluated whether systemic responses to sialidase correlated with protection using a cohort of household contacts. Overall, we found age-related differences in antisialidase immune response following cholera. Adults developed significant plasma anti-sialidase IgA, IgG, and IgM responses following infection, whereas older children (≥5 years) developed both IgG and IgM responses, and younger children only developed IgM responses. Neither older children nor younger children had a rise in IgA responses over the convalescent phase of infection (day 7/day 30). On evaluation of mucosal responses and memory B-cell responses to sialidase, we found adults developed IgA antibody-secreting cell (ASC) and memory B-cell responses. Finally, in household contacts, the presence of serum anti-sialidase IgA, IgG, and IgM antibodies at enrollment was associated with a decrease in the risk of subsequent infection. These data show cholera patients develop age-related immune responses against sialidase and suggest that immune responses that target sialidase may contribute to protective immunity against cholera.IMPORTANCE Cholera infection can result in severe dehydration that may lead to death within a short period of time if not treated immediately. Vaccination is an important strategy to prevent the disease. Oral cholera vaccines provide 3 to 5 years of protection, with 60% protective efficacy, while natural infection provides longer-term protection than vaccination. Understanding the immune responses after natural infection is important to better understand immune responses to antigens that mediate longer-term protection. Sialidase is a neuraminidase that facilitates binding of cholera toxin to intestinal epithelial cells. We show here that patients with cholera develop systemic, mucosal, and memory B-cell immune responses to the sialidase antigen of Vibrio cholerae O1 and that plasma responses targeting this antigen correlate with protection.


Subject(s)
Antibodies, Bacterial/blood , Cholera/immunology , Cholera/prevention & control , Immunologic Memory , Neuraminidase/immunology , Vibrio cholerae O1/enzymology , Vibrio cholerae O1/immunology , Adolescent , Adult , Age Factors , Antibody-Producing Cells/immunology , B-Lymphocytes/immunology , Child , Child, Preschool , Female , Humans , Immunoglobulin A/analysis , Immunoglobulin G/blood , Immunoglobulin M/blood , Male , Middle Aged , Young Adult
5.
Sci Immunol ; 5(52)2020 10 08.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-33033172

ABSTRACT

We measured plasma and/or serum antibody responses to the receptor-binding domain (RBD) of the spike (S) protein of SARS-CoV-2 in 343 North American patients infected with SARS-CoV-2 (of which 93% required hospitalization) up to 122 days after symptom onset and compared them to responses in 1548 individuals whose blood samples were obtained prior to the pandemic. After setting seropositivity thresholds for perfect specificity (100%), we estimated sensitivities of 95% for IgG, 90% for IgA, and 81% for IgM for detecting infected individuals between 15 and 28 days after symptom onset. While the median time to seroconversion was nearly 12 days across all three isotypes tested, IgA and IgM antibodies against RBD were short-lived with median times to seroreversion of 71 and 49 days after symptom onset. In contrast, anti-RBD IgG responses decayed slowly through 90 days with only 3 seropositive individuals seroreverting within this time period. IgG antibodies to SARS-CoV-2 RBD were strongly correlated with anti-S neutralizing antibody titers, which demonstrated little to no decrease over 75 days since symptom onset. We observed no cross-reactivity of the SARS-CoV-2 RBD-targeted antibodies with other widely circulating coronaviruses (HKU1, 229 E, OC43, NL63). These data suggest that RBD-targeted antibodies are excellent markers of previous and recent infection, that differential isotype measurements can help distinguish between recent and older infections, and that IgG responses persist over the first few months after infection and are highly correlated with neutralizing antibodies.


Subject(s)
Antibodies, Viral/immunology , Betacoronavirus/immunology , Coronavirus Infections/epidemiology , Pneumonia, Viral/epidemiology , Protein Domains/immunology , Spike Glycoprotein, Coronavirus/immunology , Adult , Aged , Antibodies, Neutralizing/immunology , Antibodies, Viral/blood , Betacoronavirus/genetics , Biomarkers/blood , COVID-19 , Cohort Studies , Coronavirus Infections/virology , Cross Reactions , Dried Blood Spot Testing , Female , Humans , Immunoglobulin A/blood , Immunoglobulin A/immunology , Immunoglobulin G/blood , Immunoglobulin G/immunology , Immunoglobulin M/blood , Immunoglobulin M/immunology , Male , Middle Aged , Pandemics , Pneumonia, Viral/virology , SARS-CoV-2 , Spike Glycoprotein, Coronavirus/chemistry
6.
medRxiv ; 2020 Jul 20.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-32743600

ABSTRACT

BACKGROUND: Characterizing the humoral immune response to SARS-CoV-2 and developing accurate serologic assays are needed for diagnostic purposes and estimating population-level seroprevalence. METHODS: We measured the kinetics of early antibody responses to the receptor-binding domain (RBD) of the spike (S) protein of SARS-CoV-2 in a cohort of 259 symptomatic North American patients infected with SARS-CoV-2 (up to 75 days after symptom onset) compared to antibody levels in 1548 individuals whose blood samples were obtained prior to the pandemic. RESULTS: Between 14-28 days from onset of symptoms, IgG, IgA, or IgM antibody responses to RBD were all accurate in identifying recently infected individuals, with 100% specificity and a sensitivity of 97%, 91%, and 81% respectively. Although the estimated median time to becoming seropositive was similar across isotypes, IgA and IgM antibodies against RBD were short-lived with most individuals estimated to become seronegative again by 51 and 47 days after symptom onset, respectively. IgG antibodies against RBD lasted longer and persisted through 75 days post-symptoms. IgG antibodies to SARS-CoV-2 RBD were highly correlated with neutralizing antibodies targeting the S protein. No cross-reactivity of the SARS-CoV-2 RBD-targeted antibodies was observed with several known circulating coronaviruses, HKU1, OC 229 E, OC43, and NL63. CONCLUSIONS: Among symptomatic SARS-CoV-2 cases, RBD-targeted antibodies can be indicative of previous and recent infection. IgG antibodies are correlated with neutralizing antibodies and are possibly a correlate of protective immunity.

8.
J Mol Diagn ; 22(2): 159-178, 2020 02.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-31837434

ABSTRACT

A next-generation sequencing method was developed that can distinguish single-stranded modifications from low-frequency somatic mutations present on both strands of DNA in formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded colorectal cancer samples. We applied this method for analytical validation of the Praxis Extended RAS Panel, a US Food and Drug Administration-approved companion diagnostic for panitumumab, on the Illumina MiSeqDx platform. With the use of the TruSeq amplicon workflow, both strands of DNA from the starting material were interrogated independently. Mutations were reported only if found on both strands; artifacts usually present on only one strand would not be reported. A total of 56 mutations were targeted within the KRAS and NRAS genes. A minimum read depth of 1800× per amplicon is required per sample but averaged >30,000× at maximum multiplexing levels. Analytical validation studies were performed to determine the simultaneous detection of mutations on both strands, reproducibility, assay detection level, precision of the assay across various factors, and the impact of interfering substances. In conclusion, this assay can clearly distinguish single-stranded artifacts from low-frequency mutations. Furthermore, the assay is accurate, precise, and reproducible, can achieve consistent detection of a mutation at 5% mutation frequency, exhibits minimal impact from tested interfering substances, and can simultaneously detect 56 mutations in a single run using 10 samples plus controls.


Subject(s)
Colorectal Neoplasms/diagnosis , Colorectal Neoplasms/genetics , DNA Mutational Analysis/methods , DNA Mutational Analysis/standards , DNA/genetics , High-Throughput Nucleotide Sequencing/methods , High-Throughput Nucleotide Sequencing/standards , Alleles , Gene Frequency , Gene Library , Genes, ras , Genotype , Humans , Molecular Diagnostic Techniques/methods , Molecular Diagnostic Techniques/standards , Mutation , Reproducibility of Results , Sensitivity and Specificity , United States , United States Food and Drug Administration , Workflow
9.
Pathology ; 51(5): 474-480, 2019 Aug.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-31230819

ABSTRACT

Gastroesophageal adenocarcinoma is a common and highly lethal malignancy. Cancer stem cells (CSCs) have a key role in the development and progression of metastatic disease. While expression of CSC markers CD44, CD133 and aldehyde dehydrogenase 1 (ALDH1) in locoregional gastroesophageal cancer is known to be associated with poorer clinical outcomes, the significance of CSC marker expression in distal metastatic disease is unknown. We investigated the clinicopathological and prognostic associations of the CSC markers, CD44, CD133, and ALDH1, on metastatic deposits from gastroesophageal adenocarcinomas, and evaluated the association of CSC expression with urokinase-type plasminogen activator receptor (uPAR) expression. Of the 36 patients included in the study, 16 (44%) were positive for CD44, 13 (36%) were positive for CD133, and 26 (72%) were positive for ALDH1. CD44 expression was significantly associated with poorer overall survival (OS) in univariate [hazard ratio (HR) 2.9, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.3-6.9, p=0.008] and multivariate analyses (HR 2.5, 95%CI 1.1-6.2, p=0.04). ALDH1 expression was significantly associated with poorer OS in univariate (HR 2.4, 95% CI 1.01-5.7, p=0.04) analysis but was not significant in multivariate analysis. Both CD44 and ALDH1 expression were significantly associated with uPAR expression. We found no association between CD133 expression and OS. CD44 expression on metastatic disease from gastroesophageal adenocarcinomas is an independent prognostic marker associated with poorer OS. These results expand current evidence to support the role of CSCs as biomarkers in metastatic gastroesophageal cancer.


Subject(s)
Adenocarcinoma/secondary , Biomarkers, Tumor/analysis , Esophageal Neoplasms/pathology , Neoplastic Stem Cells/pathology , Stomach Neoplasms/pathology , Adult , Aged , Esophagogastric Junction/pathology , Female , Humans , Male , Middle Aged , Neoplasm Metastasis/pathology , Prognosis
11.
Clin Teach ; 16(3): 290, 2019 06.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-30746852
12.
Eur J Cancer Prev ; 28(2): 87-95, 2019 03.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-29595751

ABSTRACT

Cervical cancer (CC) is the 13th most frequent cancer among women in Norway, but the third most common among women aged 25-49 years. The national screening program sends information letters to promote screening participation. We aimed to evaluate how women's stated intention to participate in screening and pursue treatment changed with the provision of additional information on harms associated with screening, and to assess women's preferences on the timing and source of such information. We administered a web-based questionnaire to a panel of Norwegian women aged 25-69 years and randomized into three groups on the basis of when in the screening process additional information was introduced: (i) invited for routine screening, (ii) recommended an additional test following detection of cellular abnormalities, and (iii) recommended precancer treatment. A fourth (control) group did not receive any additional information. Results show that among 1060 respondents, additional information did not significantly alter women's stated intentions to screen. However, it created decision uncertainty on when treatment was recommended (8.76-9.09 vs. 9.40; 10-point Likert scale; P=0.004). Over 80% of women favored receiving information on harms and 59% preferred that information come from a qualified public health authority. Nearly 90% of women in all groups overestimated women's lifetime risk of CC. In conclusion, additional information on harms did not alter Norwegian women's stated intention to screen for CC; yet, it resulted in greater decision uncertainty to undergo precancer treatment. Incorporating information on harms into invitation letters is warranted as it would increase women's ability to make informed choices.


Subject(s)
Decision Making , Early Detection of Cancer/psychology , Health Knowledge, Attitudes, Practice , Intention , Uterine Cervical Neoplasms/diagnosis , Uterine Cervical Neoplasms/psychology , Adult , Aged , Female , Follow-Up Studies , Humans , Middle Aged , Norway/epidemiology , Patient Acceptance of Health Care , Prognosis , Surveys and Questionnaires , Uterine Cervical Neoplasms/epidemiology
13.
Bioinformatics ; 35(9): 1579-1581, 2019 05 01.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-30304370

ABSTRACT

MOTIVATION: Next-generation sequencing technology is transitioning quickly from research labs to clinical settings. The diagnosis and treatment selection for many acquired and autosomal conditions necessitate a method for accurately detecting somatic and germline variants. RESULTS: We have developed Pisces, a rapid, versatile and accurate small-variant calling suite designed for somatic and germline amplicon sequencing applications. Accuracy is achieved by four distinct modules, each incorporating a number of novel algorithmic strategies. AVAILABILITY AND IMPLEMENTATION: Pisces is distributed under an open source license and can be downloaded from https://github.com/Illumina/Pisces. Pisces is available on the BaseSpace™ SequenceHub. It is distributed on Illumina sequencing platforms such as the MiSeq™ and is included in the Praxis™ Extended RAS Panel test which was recently approved by the FDA. SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: Supplementary data are available at Bioinformatics online.


Subject(s)
High-Throughput Nucleotide Sequencing , Software , Germ Cells
14.
J Cancer Res Clin Oncol ; 144(10): 2001-2010, 2018 Oct.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-30019318

ABSTRACT

PURPOSE: To validate a next-generation sequencing (NGS)-based companion diagnostic using the MiSeqDx® sequencing instrument to simultaneously detect 56 RAS mutations in DNA extracted from formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded metastatic colorectal cancer (mCRC) tumor samples from the PRIME study. The test's ability to identify patients with mCRC likely to benefit from panitumumab treatment was assessed. METHODS: Samples from PRIME, which compared first-line panitumumab + FOLFOX4 with FOLFOX4, were processed according to predefined criteria using a multiplex assay that included input DNA qualification, library preparation, sequencing, and the bioinformatics reporting pipeline. NGS mutational analysis of KRAS and NRAS exons 2, 3, and 4 was performed and compared with Sanger sequencing. RESULTS: In 441 samples, positive percent agreement of the Extended RAS Panel with Sanger sequencing was 98.7% and negative percent agreement was 97.6%. For clinical validation (n = 528), progression-free survival (PFS) and overall survival (OS) were compared between patients with RAS mutations (RAS Positive) and those without (RAS Negative). Panitumumab + FOLFOX4 improved PFS in RAS Negative patients (P = 0.02). Quantitative interaction testing indicated the treatment effect (measured by the hazard ratio of panitumumab + FOLFOX4 versus FOLFOX4) differed for RAS Negative versus RAS Positive for PFS (P = 0.0038) and OS (P = 0.0323). CONCLUSIONS: NGS allows for broad, rapid, highly specific analyses of genomic regions. These results support use of the Extended RAS Panel as a companion diagnostic for selecting patients for panitumumab, and utilization is consistent with recent clinical guidelines regarding mCRC RAS testing. Overall, approximately 13% more patients were detected with the Extended RAS Panel versus KRAS exon 2 alone. CLINICAL TRIAL REGISTRY IDENTIFIER: NCT00364013 (ClinicalTrials.gov).


Subject(s)
Antineoplastic Combined Chemotherapy Protocols/therapeutic use , Biomarkers, Tumor/genetics , Colorectal Neoplasms/genetics , High-Throughput Nucleotide Sequencing/methods , Liver Neoplasms/genetics , Mutation , ras Proteins/genetics , Colorectal Neoplasms/pathology , Colorectal Neoplasms/therapy , Humans , Liver Neoplasms/secondary , Liver Neoplasms/therapy , Prognosis
17.
PLoS Negl Trop Dis ; 12(1): e0006196, 2018 01.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-29377882

ABSTRACT

BACKGROUND: Vibrio cholerae causes over 2 million cases of cholera and 90,000 deaths each year. Serosurveillance can be a useful tool for estimating the intensity of cholera transmission and prioritizing populations for cholera control interventions. Current methods involving venous blood draws and downstream specimen storage and transport methods pose logistical challenges in most settings where cholera strikes. To overcome these challenges, we developed methods for determining cholera-specific immune responses from dried blood spots (DBS). METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: As conventional vibriocidal assay methods were unsuitable for DBS eluates from filter paper, we adopted a drop-plate culture method. We show that DBS collected from volunteers in South Sudan, and stored for prolonged periods in field conditions, retained functional vibriocidal antibodies, the titers of which correlated with paired serum titers determined by conventional spectrophotometric methods (r = 0.94, p = 0.00012). We also showed that eluates from DBS Serum Separator cards could be used with conventional spectrophotometric vibriocidal methods, and that they correlated with paired serum at a wide range of titers (r = 0.96, p<0.0001). Similarly, we used ELISA methods to show that V. cholerae O-specific polysaccharide antibody responses from DBS eluates correlated with results from paired serum for IgG (r = 0.85, p = 0.00006), IgM (r = 0.79, p = 0.00049) and IgA (r = 0.73, p = 0.0019), highlighting its potential for use in determination of isotype-specific responses. Storage of DBS cards at a range of temperatures did not change antibody responses. CONCLUSION: In conclusion, we have developed and demonstrated a proof-of-concept for assays utilizing DBS for assessing cholera-specific immune responses.


Subject(s)
Antibodies, Bacterial/blood , Cholera/diagnosis , Desiccation , Serologic Tests/methods , Specimen Handling/methods , Vibrio cholerae/immunology , Humans , Proof of Concept Study , Sudan
18.
Am J Trop Med Hyg ; 98(2): 595-597, 2018 02.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-29210349

ABSTRACT

Displaced persons living in camps are at an increased risk of diarrheal diseases. Subclinical carriage of pathogens may contribute to the spread of disease, especially for microbes that require a low infectious dose. Multiplex real-time polymerase chain reaction was performed to detect a panel of 20 bacterial, viral, and protozoal targets, and we report a high prevalence of enteropathogen carriage, including Shigella spp. or enteroinvasive Escherichia coli in 14%, among a sample of 88 asymptomatic individuals in an internally displaced persons camp in South Sudan. Further studies are needed to determine the contribution of such carriage to the spread of disease.


Subject(s)
Refugees/statistics & numerical data , Adolescent , Adult , Child , Child, Preschool , Dysentery, Bacillary/epidemiology , Escherichia coli/pathogenicity , Escherichia coli Infections/epidemiology , Feces/microbiology , Female , Humans , Infant , Male , Prevalence , Refugee Camps/statistics & numerical data , Shigella/pathogenicity , South Sudan/epidemiology
19.
Reprod Biol Endocrinol ; 15(1): 86, 2017 Oct 24.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-29065928

ABSTRACT

BACKGROUND: Proper expression of key reproductive hormones from gonadotrope cells of the pituitary is required for pubertal onset and reproduction. To further our understanding of the molecular events taking place during embryonic development, leading to expression of the glycoproteins luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), we characterized chromatin structure changes, imparted mainly by histone modifications, in model gonadotrope cell lines. METHODS: We evaluated chromatin status and gene expression profiles by chromatin immunoprecipitation assays, DNase sensitivity assay, and RNA sequencing in three developmentally staged gonadotrope cell lines, αT1-1 (progenitor, expressing Cga), αT3-1 (immature, expressing Cga and Gnrhr), and LßT2 (mature, expressing Cga, Gnrhr, Lhb, and Fshb), to assess changes in chromatin status and transcription factor access of gonadotrope-specific genes. RESULTS: We found the common mRNA α-subunit of LH and FSH, called Cga, to have an open chromatin conformation in all three cell lines. In contrast, chromatin status of Gnrhr is open only in αT3-1 and LßT2 cells. Lhb begins to open in LßT2 cells and was further opened by activin treatment. Histone H3 modifications associated with active chromatin were high on Gnrhr in αT3-1 and LßT2, and Lhb in LßT2 cells, while H3 modifications associated with repressed chromatin were low on Gnrhr, Lhb, and Fshb in LßT2 cells. Finally, chromatin status correlates with the progressive access of LHX3 to Cga and Gnrhr, followed by PITX1 binding to the Lhb promoter. CONCLUSION: Our data show the gonadotrope-specific genes Cga, Gnrhr, Lhb, and Fshb are not only controlled by developmental transcription factors, but also by epigenetic mechanisms that include the modulation of chromatin structure, and histone modifications.


Subject(s)
Chromatin/metabolism , Gonadotrophs/metabolism , Gonadotropins/genetics , Promoter Regions, Genetic , Transcription Factors/metabolism , Animals , Cell Line , Epigenesis, Genetic , Gene Expression Regulation, Developmental , Gonadotropins/metabolism , Mice , NIH 3T3 Cells , Protein Binding , Transcription, Genetic
20.
J Leukoc Biol ; 102(5): 1261-1269, 2017 11.
Article in English | MEDLINE | ID: mdl-28807929

ABSTRACT

Mucosal-associated invariant T (MAIT) cells are an innate-like T cell subset, restricted by the nonclassic MHC class I-related protein MR1 and enriched at mucosal sites. Human studies have shown an association between MAIT cells and pathogen-specific antibody responses. In this study, we investigate the effect of human MAIT cells on B cells ex vivo. We found that supernatants from microbe- or cytokine-stimulated MAIT cells, when added to purified autologous B cells, increase frequencies of plasmablasts and promote IgA, IgG, and IgM production. We found effects to be mostly MR1-dependent and that the increases in plasmablasts are likely a result of increased differentiation from memory B cells. Furthermore, microbe-activated MAIT cell supernatant contains multiple cytokines known to stimulate B cells, including IL-6, -10, and -21. This study thus provides the first direct evidence of a newly identified role of MAIT cells in providing help to B cells.


Subject(s)
B-Lymphocytes/immunology , Cell Communication/immunology , Gene Expression Regulation/immunology , Histocompatibility Antigens Class I/immunology , Immunity, Mucosal , Minor Histocompatibility Antigens/immunology , Mucosal-Associated Invariant T Cells/immunology , B-Lymphocytes/cytology , Cell Separation , Coculture Techniques , Escherichia coli/chemistry , Escherichia coli/drug effects , Escherichia coli/immunology , Formaldehyde/chemistry , Formaldehyde/toxicity , Gene Expression , Histocompatibility Antigens Class I/genetics , Humans , Immunoglobulin A/biosynthesis , Immunoglobulin G/biosynthesis , Immunoglobulin M/biosynthesis , Immunologic Memory , Interferon-gamma/genetics , Interferon-gamma/immunology , Interleukin-10/genetics , Interleukin-10/immunology , Interleukin-6/genetics , Interleukin-6/immunology , Interleukins/genetics , Interleukins/immunology , Lymphocyte Activation , Minor Histocompatibility Antigens/genetics , Mucosal-Associated Invariant T Cells/cytology , Polymers/chemistry , Polymers/toxicity , Primary Cell Culture , Signal Transduction , Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha/genetics , Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha/immunology
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