Potential value of a rapid syndromic multiplex PCR for the diagnosis of native and prosthetic joint infections: a real-world evidence study.

Introduction: The BIOFIRE Joint Infection (JI) Panel is a diagnostic tool that uses multiplex-PCR testing to detect microorganisms in synovial fluid specimens from patients suspected of having septic arthritis (SA) on native joints or prosthetic joint infections (PJIs). Methods: A study was conducted across 34 clinical sites in 19 European and Middle Eastern countries from March 2021 to June 2022 to assess the effectiveness of the BIOFIRE JI Panel. Results: A total of 1527 samples were collected from patients suspected of SA or PJI, with an overall agreement of 88.4 % and 85 % respectively between the JI Panel and synovial fluid cultures (SFCs). The JI Panel detected more positive samples and microorganisms than SFC, with a notable difference on Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus species, Enterococcus faecalis, Kingella kingae, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and anaerobic bacteria. The study found that the BIOFIRE JI Panel has a high utility in the real-world clinical setting for suspected SA and PJI, providing diagnostic results in approximately 1 h. The user experience was positive, implying a potential benefit of rapidity of results' turnover in optimising patient management strategies. Conclusion: The study suggests that the BIOFIRE JI Panel could potentially optimise patient management and antimicrobial therapy, thus highlighting its importance in the clinical setting.

Analytical performance evaluation of the Elecsys Epstein-Barr virus immunoassay panel.

We evaluated the analytical performance of the Elecsys® Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) immunoassay panel for the in vitro detection of EBV immunoglobulin M (IgM), EBV viral capsid antigen immunoglobulin G (VCA IgG), and EBV nuclear antigen immunoglobulin G (EBNA IgG). Relative sensitivity/specificity were assessed using 1,734 human blood samples (1,068 residual samples from routine EBV testing; 467 presumed acute infection; 199 presumed seronegative) tested with the Elecsys EBV and 2 comparator panels (ARCHITECT EBV; Liaison EBV). EBV infection status was defined by majority approach. The three panels demonstrated comparable relative sensitivities/specificities, ranging between values (%) of 98.3-99.5 / 96.9-97.4 (EBV IgM); 96.3-98.4 / 98.4-98.7 (EBV VCA IgG); and 98.1-99.5 / 99.1-99.5 (EBV EBNA IgG). The Elecsys EBV IgM assay demonstrated superior analytical specificity in samples containing potential interferents. Utilizing the Elecsys EBV panel for the EBNA-first approach showed 97.5% overall agreement versus the majority approach in samples with clear EBV status.

Pitfalls of rubella serology while on the brink of elimination: evaluation of national data, Belgium, 2017.

BackgroundIn Belgium, rubella serology is frequently requested in women of childbearing age, despite high vaccination coverage and a near-absence of congenital rubella cases. Different test kits are available and should be standardised by an international standard preparation.AimTo analyse and compare rubella serology practices in Belgian laboratories.MethodsAs part of the mandatory External Quality Assessment programme for rubella serology in Belgium, the national public health institute, Sciensano, sent a voluntary questionnaire concerning anti-rubella IgM/IgG analyses in women aged 15 to 45 years in 2017 to 130 laboratories.ResultsThe questionnaire response rate was 83.8% (109/130). The majority of 169,494 IgG analyses were performed on Roche (55%), Abbott (17%) and Diasorin (13%) analysers. Not all laboratories used the proposed international cut-off of 10 IU/mL. Assumed median seroprevalence ranged from 76.3% with Liaison (Diasorin) to 96.3% with Modular (Roche). Despite very low rubella incidence in Belgium, 93 laboratories performed 85,957 IgM analyses, with 748 positive and 394 grey zone results. The National Reference Centre for Measles, Mumps and Rubella virus and the National Reference Centre for Congenital infections did not confirm any positive rubella cases in 2017.ConclusionThis retrospective analysis shows that rubella serology results may differ considerably according to the assay used. It is therefore important to use the same test when comparing results or performing follow-up testing. The number of anti-rubella IgM analyses was very high. Incorrect use of IgM for screening women of childbearing age can lead to unwarranted anxiety and overuse of confirmation tests.

Interference of anti-streptavidin antibodies in immunoassays: a very rare phenomenon or a more common finding?

Background Anti-streptavidin antibodies (ASA) may cause analytical interference on certain immunoassay platforms. Streptavidin is purified from the non-pathogenic Streptomyces avidinii soil bacterium. In contrast to interference with biotin, ASA interference is supposed to be much rarer. In-depth studies on this topic are lacking. Therefore, we carried out an analysis toward the prevalence and the possible underlying cause of this interference. Methods Anti-streptavidin (AS)-immunoglobulin G (IgG) and AS-IgM concentrations were determined on multiple samples from two patients with ASA interference and on 500 random samples. On a subset of 100 samples, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) was measured on a Cobas analyzer before and after performing a neutralization protocol which removes ASA. The relationship between the ratio of TSH after neutralization/TSH before neutralization and the ASA concentration was evaluated. Subsequently, an extract of S. avidinii colonies was analyzed using sodium dodecyl sulfate-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE) and immunoblotting. Results A positive correlation between AS-IgM concentrations and TSH ratio was obtained. Eight samples out of 500 exceeded the calculated AS-IgM cut-off value. In comparison to the AS-IgM concentrations in the population, titers from the two described cases clearly stood out. The isolated cases represent the end of a broader spectrum as there is a continuum of AS-IgM reactivity in the general population. We could not observe any differences in the immunoblot patterns between the cases and controls, which may indicate the general presence of ASA in the population. Conclusions Interference due to ASA is more prevalent than initially thought and is caused by IgM antibodies.

Evaluation of the VIDAS hepatitis E IgM test in a nonendemic region.

Hepatitis E virus (HEV) causes worldwide more than 20 million new hepatitis cases yearly. These infections can take on fulminant forms or cause severe extrahepatic manifestations, and integration into hepatitis differential diagnosis is recommended. In developed countries, genotypes 3 and 4 are most common, mainly through zoonotic transmission. HEV diagnosis is usually first approached with serological methods, sometimes completed with PCR. In this study, we tested the VIDAS anti-HEV immunoglobulin M assay for its specificity on 181 serum samples from patients infected with selected pathogens possibly causing comparable symptoms or false-positive hepatitis E IgM, such as cytomegalovirus, enterovirus, or other hepatitis viruses. Additionally, serum samples were included from 29 patients who tested positive for autoantibodies in immune-mediated liver disease. We report 8 false-positives (specificity 96%), predominantly for hepatitis A, Epstein-Barr virus, and cytomegalovirus, with numbers that are generally lower than reported for comparable assays. A small sensitivity study showed that its use is limited in immunocompromised patients, for whom molecular detection is recommended as first-line test.

Short communication: Sensitivity of estrus alerts and relationship with timing of the luteinizing hormone surge.

Both the sensitivity of an estrus detection system and the consistency of alarms relative to ovulation determine its value for a farmer. The objective of this study was to compare an activity-based system and a milk progesterone-based system for their ability to detect estrus reliably, and to investigate how their alerts are linked to the time of the LH surge preceding ovulation. The study was conducted on an experimental research farm in Flanders, Belgium. The activity alerts were generated by a commercial activity meter (ActoFIT, DeLaval, Tumba, Sweden), and milk progesterone was measured using a commercial ELISA kit. Sensitivity and positive predictive value of both systems were calculated based on 35 estrus periods over 43 d. Blood samples were taken for determination of the LH surge, and the intervals between timing of the alerts and the LH surge were investigated based on their range and standard deviation (SD). Activity alerts had a sensitivity of 80% and a positive predictive value of 65.9%. Alerts were detected from 39 h before until 8 h after the LH surge (range: 47 h, SD: 16 h). Alerts based on milk progesterone were obtained from a recently developed monitoring algorithm using a mathematical model and synergistic control. All estruses were correctly identified by this algorithm, and the LH surge followed, on average, 62 h later. Using the mathematical model, model-based indicators for the estimation of ovulation time can be calculated. Depending on which model-based indicator was used, ranges of 33 to 35 h and SD of about 11 h were obtained. Because detection of the LH surge was very labor intensive, only a limited number of potential estrus periods could be studied.

Impact of particulate matter on mothers and babies in Antwerp (IPANEMA): a prospective cohort study on the impact of pollutants and particulate matter in pregnancy.

INTRODUCTION: Air pollution is a hot topic and is known to cause multiple health issues. Especially pregnant women seem to be vulnerable to environmental issues. There are data suggesting that exposure contributes to hypertensive disorders.This study aims to evaluate the effects of exposure to particulate matter (PM) and outdoor air pollutants on the clinical pregnancy outcome for mother and child and to determine which biochemical changes in maternal, placental and cord blood best explain this effect. METHODS AND ANALYSIS: This study is a prospective cohort study. We aim to recruit 200 pregnant women. The outcome measurements will include maternal parameters, labour parameters and neonatal parameters.Multiple samples will be analysed such as maternal urine samples (8-oxo-deoxyguanosine), maternal blood samples (routine blood sampling, biomarkers of pre-eclampsia and transcript markers), maternal hair samples, neonatal blood samples (transcript markers) combined with extensive questionnaires. ETHICS AND DISSEMINATION: We obtain informed consent from each participant prior to enrolment in the study.The study has received approval by the Ethical Committee of the Antwerp University Hospital (14/40/411).IPANEMA is the first prospective study to assess the impact of PM on mothers and babies in Antwerp, Belgium.Findings from this study will contribute to improve knowledge on the impact of exposure to air pollution on mothers and babies and will also define biomarkers as predictors for pregnant women at risk. TRIAL REGISTRATION: ClinicalTrials.gov: 14/40/411. Registered 22-10-2015.

Anti-streptavidin IgG antibody interference in anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) IgG antibody assays is a rare but important cause of false-positive anti-CCP results.

BACKGROUND: The detection of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) IgG antibodies in blood is mainly used for the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Falsely elevated anti-CCP IgG antibodies due to anti-streptavidin IgG antibodies were suspected in our laboratory. METHODS: In this study, we evaluated, in a standardized approach, the prevalence of anti-streptavidin IgG antibodies in a primary care setting and the effect of anti-streptavidin IgG antibodies on anti-CCP IgG assays from three different important commercial manufacturers (Abbott, Roche Diagnostics, Thermo Fisher Scientific). Three different populations were consecutively and prospectively studied: serum samples from 1000 ambulatory patients, 286 serum samples from patients for which anti-CCP was requested and 89 serum samples from patients which had previously given a positive anti-CCP result on Architect® i2000. RESULTS: The frequency of confirmed anti-streptavidin IgG-positive samples detected in this study was 0.6% (8/1375). Anti-CCP IgG was determined on the eight samples with confirmed anti-streptavidin IgG antibodies: with the Cobas® method, seven positive anti-CCP results were observed and five positive anti-CCP results with the Architect® method. No positive anti-CCP IgG results were obtained with the EliA™ method. Rheumatoid factor was negative in these eight samples. CONCLUSIONS: Anti-streptavidin IgG antibodies rarely cause false-positive results in some anti-CCP assays. However, despite being an infrequent assay problem, it could possibly lead to diagnostic confusion or even an incorrect diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.

The importance of detecting anti-DFS70 in routine clinical practice: comparison of different care settings.

BACKGROUND: Screening for antinuclear antibodies by indirect immunofluorescence (ANA-IIF) is essential in the diagnostic workup of ANA-associated autoimmune rheumatic diseases (AARDs). However, also healthy individuals may test positive, making the interpretation challenging. Recent reports suggest that dense fine speckled 70 antibodies (anti-DFS70) may facilitate this challenge. Here, we investigate their clinical importance based on data from four Belgian laboratories (one primary, two secondary and one tertiary care). METHODS: At least one specific DFS70 assay (DFS70 IgG ELISA or lineblot [Euroimmun, full length antigen] and/or DFS70 IgG CLIA [Inova Diagnostics, truncated antigen]) was performed on four consecutive cohorts of homogeneous-like ANA-IIF samples (n=697). Co-occurrence with AARD-specific ANA and clinical information were documented in the anti-DFS70-positive samples. RESULTS: Using a combination of solid phase techniques, we found between 7.6% and 26% anti-DFS70 in the different cohorts. Focusing on anti-DFS70 CLIA-positive samples without co-occurrence of AARD-specific ANA, we observed a trend towards lower frequency in tertiary (8% [p=0.0786]) and secondary care (12% [p=0.1275] and 6% [p<0.001]) compared to primary care (21%). Moreover, in this specific subpopulation, AARD was less frequent (0%-50% compared to 6%-77% in the total anti-DFS70-positive group). CONCLUSIONS: Anti-DFS70 prevalence depends on the applied assay and care setting. Our data suggest that, for an ANA-IIF-positive patient, it is rather the absence of AARD-associated ANA and clinical symptoms that contribute to the exclusion of AARD than the presence of anti-DFS70. Nevertheless, isolated anti-DFS70 helps to clarify positive ANA-IIF results, especially if pretest probability for AARD is low.

Non-esterified fatty acids in early luteal bovine oviduct fluid mirror plasma concentrations: An ex vivo approach.

We investigated whether and to which extent plasma non-esterified fatty acids (NEFAs) are reflected in oviduct fluid (OF) using an improved ex vivo flushing method. OF and plasma NEFA concentrations were respectively 0.29±0.19 and 0.31±0.14mmol/L, they didn't differ significantly (P=0.13) and tended to be positively correlated (Pearson correlation coefficient=0.56; P=0.07). Results suggest that OF NEFAs mirror the concentrations seen in plasma of healthy cattle.

A model-based analysis of the predictive performance of different renal function markers for cefepime clearance in the ICU.

OBJECTIVES: Several population pharmacokinetic models for cefepime in critically ill patients have been described, which all indicate that variability in renal clearance is the main determinant of the observed variability in exposure. The main objective of this study was to determine which renal marker best predicts cefepime clearance. METHODS: A pharmacokinetic model was developed using NONMEM based on 208 plasma and 51 urine samples from 20 ICU patients during a median follow-up of 3 days. Four serum-based kidney markers (creatinine, cystatin C, urea and uromodulin) and two urinary markers [measured creatinine clearance (CLCR) and kidney injury molecule-1] were evaluated as covariates in the model. RESULTS: A two-compartment model incorporating a renal and non-renal clearance component along with an additional term describing haemodialysis clearance provided an adequate description of the data. The Cockcroft-Gault formula was the best predictor for renal cefepime clearance. Compared with the base model without covariates, the objective function value decreased from 1971.7 to 1948.1, the median absolute prediction error from 42.4% to 29.9% and the between-subject variability in renal cefepime clearance from 135% to 50%. Other creatinine- and cystatin C-based formulae and measured CLCR performed similarly. Monte Carlo simulations using the Sanford guide dose recommendations indicated an insufficient dose reduction in patients with a decreased kidney function, leading to potentially toxic levels. CONCLUSIONS: The Cockcroft-Gault formula was the best predictor for cefepime clearance in critically ill patients, although other creatinine- and cystatin C-based formulae and measured CLCR performed similarly.

Elimination of complement interference can improve the diagnostic performance of the VIDAS CMV IgG assay in acute cytomegalovirus infections.

In this study we showed that complement factors are responsible for assay interference in the VIDAS cytomegalovirus (CMV) immunoglobulin G (IgG) assay. Three different serum treatments were applied to show the cause of interference: heat treatment (56 °C), adding cobra venom factor, and adding EDTA. Elimination of complement interference by EDTA treatment of serum was prospectively evaluated on 215 CMV IgM positive samples and a sensitivity increase of the VIDAS CMV IgG assay was noticed. On average the CMV IgG level increased 100% after EDTA treatment of the serum. In paired serum samples from 38 patients we could show that serum treatment with EDTA can make the CMV IgG level changes more obvious in recent CMV infections. Since the CMV IgG avidity II assay on VIDAS depends on the determination of CMV IgG, the CMV IgG avidity was also evaluated in this study but only a limited effect of the complement interference was observed.

Human Papillomavirus Positivity in Women Undergoing Intrauterine Insemination Has a Negative Effect on Pregnancy Rates.

BACKGROUND: Sexually transmitted infections are a major cause of infertility. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is one of the most common viral infections of the female genital tract. Only a limited number of studies have investigated the influence of HPV on fertility and its impact remains controversial. OBJECTIVE: We investigated the relationship between cervical HPV infection and pregnancy outcome after intrauterine insemination (IUI). Since other sexually transmitted infections could also influence outcome, we also analyzed the influence of Trichomonas vaginalis (TV) and Chlamydia trachomatis (CT) on pregnancy outcome. METHODS: We performed a retrospective analysis of 590 women who underwent 1,529 IUI cycles at AML between 2010 and 2014. Positivity of 18 different HPV types (6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 53, 56, 58, 59, 66, 67, 68) and TV was assessed by PCR in cervical cytology specimens. CT status was ascertained by detection of IgA/IgG antibodies on serum samples or by PCR on cervical swabs. RESULTS: The HPV prevalence per IUI cycle was 11.0 and 6.9% for CT; none of the women tested positive for TV. HPV-positive women were six times less likely to become pregnant after IUI (1.87 vs. 11.36%; p = 0.0041). There was no significant difference in pregnancy rates between women with or without a history of CT (8.51 vs. 11.10%; p > 0.05). CONCLUSION: Detection of HPV is associated with a negative IUI outcome.

Serial type-specific human papillomavirus (HPV) load measurement allows differentiation between regressing cervical lesions and serial virion productive transient infections.

Persistent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is strongly associated with the development of high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) or cancer. Not all persistent infections lead to cancer. Viral load measured at a single time-point is a poor predictor of the natural history of HPV infections. However the profile of viral load evolution over time could distinguish nonprogressive from progressive (carcinogenic) infections. A retrospective natural history study was set up using a Belgian laboratory database including more than 800,000 liquid cytology specimens. All samples were submitted to qPCR identifying E6/E7 genes of 18 HPV types. Viral load changes over time were assessed by the linear regression slope. Database search identified 261 untreated women with persistent type-specific HPV DNA detected (270 infections) in at least three of the last smears for a average period of 3.2 years. Using the coefficient of determination (R²) infections could be subdivided in a latency group (n = 143; R² < 0.85) and a regressing group (n = 127; R² ≥ 0.85). In (≥ 3) serial viral load measurements, serial transient infections with latency is characterized by a nonlinear limited difference in decrease or increase of type-specific viral load (R² < 0.85 and slopes between 2 measurements 0.0010 and -0.0010 HPV copies/cell per day) over a longer period of time (1553 days), whereas regression of a clonal cell population is characterized by a linear (R² ≥ 0.85) decrease (-0.0033 HPV copies/cell per day) over a shorter period of time (708 days; P < 0.001). Using serial HPV type-specific viral load measurements we could for the first time identify regressing CIN2 and CIN3 lesions. Evolution of the viral load is an objective measurable indicator of the natural history of HPV infections and could be used for future triage in HPV-based cervical screening programs.

Elevated non-esterified fatty acid concentrations during in vitro murine follicle growth alter follicular physiology and reduce oocyte developmental competence.

OBJECTIVE: To study how long-term elevated non-esterified fatty acid (NEFA) concentrations, typical in metabolic disorders such as obesity or type 2 diabetes, affect murine follicular development, follicle quality, and subsequent oocyte developmental competence in vitro. DESIGN: Experimental study. SETTING: In vitro culture setting. ANIMAL(S): Female and male 13-day old, B6CBAF1 mice of proven fertility were sacrificed for harvesting ovaries and epididymal sperm, respectively. INTERVENTION(S): Early secondary murine follicles were cultured in vitro in the presence of NEFAs until the antral stage (12 days). Treatments consisted of one or a mixture of NEFAs (stearic acid [SA], palmitic acid [PA], oleic acid [OA]) in physiological (basal) or pathological (high SA, high OA, high NEFA) concentrations. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURE(S): Follicular development; follicle and oocyte diameters; secretion of progesterone, estradiol, and inhibin B; and luteinized granulosa cell gene expression patterns were investigated. Oocytes from NEFA-exposed follicles were fertilized in vitro, and presumptive zygotes were cultured until the blastocyst stage. RESULT(S): Exposure to high SA reduced follicle diameters and day-12 antrum formation. Elevated NEFA concentrations changed luteinized granulosa cell messenger-ribonucleic acid abundance of genes related to energy/fatty acid/steroid metabolism, apoptosis, and oxidative stress. High NEFA and high SA treatments increased progesterone synthesis, compared with high OA follicles. Oocyte developmental competence was substantially reduced in oocytes retrieved from high OA-, high SA-, and high NEFA-exposed follicles compared with basal-treated follicles. CONCLUSION(S): This study showed, for the first time, that lipolysis-linked, elevated NEFA concentrations can potentially impair fertility, by altering follicular physiology and reducing oocyte developmental competence.

Comparative evaluation of the new ARCHITECT EBV assays considering different testing algorithms.

In the current evaluation, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) serology was performed on 1113 routine serum samples. Although the initial request for all samples from the general practitioner was EBV IgM testing, 80.9% were classified as past infections. The ARCHITECT(®) viral capsid antigen (VCA) IgM, VCA IgG, and EBV nuclear antigen (EBNA) 1 IgG assays showed good results for sensitivity and specificity, being 100.0%, 98.3%, and 100.0% and 99.9%, 95.4%, and 99.6%, respectively. Using an algorithm based on initial EBNA-1 IgG testing, followed by VCA IgG and IgM for samples that were not EBNA-1 IgG reactive, the number of tests per sample could be reduced to nearly 50% compared to parallel testing. The high sensitivity and specificity of the ARCHITECT(®) EBNA-1 IgG assay in combination with a low number of grayzone results are a precondition for the chosen test algorithm. Thus, the newly developed ARCHITECT(®) EBV panel is suitable for accurate and cost-efficient EBV serology in a routine clinical laboratory.

Sigma metrics used to assess analytical quality of clinical chemistry assays: importance of the allowable total error (TEa) target.

BACKGROUND: Six Sigma metrics were used to assess the analytical quality of automated clinical chemistry and immunoassay tests in a large Belgian clinical laboratory and to explore the importance of the source used for estimation of the allowable total error. Clinical laboratories are continually challenged to maintain analytical quality. However, it is difficult to measure assay quality objectively and quantitatively. METHODS: The Sigma metric is a single number that estimates quality based on the traditional parameters used in the clinical laboratory: allowable total error (TEa), precision and bias. In this study, Sigma metrics were calculated for 41 clinical chemistry assays for serum and urine on five ARCHITECT c16000 chemistry analyzers. Controls at two analyte concentrations were tested and Sigma metrics were calculated using three different TEa targets (Ricos biological variability, CLIA, and RiliBÄK). RESULTS: Sigma metrics varied with analyte concentration, the TEa target, and between/among analyzers. Sigma values identified those assays that are analytically robust and require minimal quality control rules and those that exhibit more variability and require more complex rules. The analyzer to analyzer variability was assessed on the basis of Sigma metrics. CONCLUSIONS: Six Sigma is a more efficient way to control quality, but the lack of TEa targets for many analytes and the sometimes inconsistent TEa targets from different sources are important variables for the interpretation and the application of Sigma metrics in a routine clinical laboratory. Sigma metrics are a valuable means of comparing the analytical quality of two or more analyzers to ensure the comparability of patient test results.