Distinct physiological states of Plasmodium falciparum in malaria-infected patients.

Infection with the malaria parasite Plasmodium falciparum leads to widely different clinical conditions in children, ranging from mild flu-like symptoms to coma and death. Despite the immense medical implications, the genetic and molecular basis of this diversity remains largely unknown. Studies of in vitro gene expression have found few transcriptional differences between different parasite strains. Here we present a large study of in vivo expression profiles of parasites derived directly from blood samples from infected patients. The in vivo expression profiles define three distinct transcriptional states. The biological basis of these states can be interpreted by comparison with an extensive compendium of expression data in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae. The three states in vivo closely resemble, first, active growth based on glycolytic metabolism, second, a starvation response accompanied by metabolism of alternative carbon sources, and third, an environmental stress response. The glycolytic state is highly similar to the known profile of the ring stage in vitro, but the other states have not been observed in vitro. The results reveal a previously unknown physiological diversity in the in vivo biology of the malaria parasite, in particular evidence for a functional mitochondrion in the asexual-stage parasite, and indicate in vivo and in vitro studies to determine how this variation may affect disease manifestations and treatment.

Defining the origin of Plasmodium falciparum resistant dhfr isolates in Senegal.

We previously reported a high baseline prevalence of mutations in the dhfr and dhps genes of Plasmodium falciparum throughout Senegal. The highest prevalence of the triple dhfr pyrimethamine associated mutations were found in isolates obtained in the western part of the country near the capital city of Dakar. In this study, we sought out to determine the relatedness of dhfr wild type and mutated strains by analyzing three microsatellite regions upstream of the dhfr locus. Twenty-six of the 31 wild type strains had a unique microsatellite pattern. In contrast, of the 17 isolates containing the triple mutation in dhfr, 11 had an identical microsatellite pattern. Diverse geographical isolates in Senegal containing the triple dhfr mutation have arisen from a limited number of ancestral strains. In addition, we demonstrate that these isolates have shared ancestry with the previously reported triple mutation haplotype found in Tanzania, South Africa, and southeast Asia. This common ancestry may have implications for the malaria control strategy for reducing the spread of sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine resistance in Senegal and elsewhere in Africa.

Mutations in Plasmodium falciparum dihydrofolate reductase and dihydropteroate synthase genes in Senegal.

Senegal recently (2004) switched to sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine (SP) with amodiaquine as first line therapy for malaria in response to increasing chloroquine resistance. In anticipation of emerging resistance to SP as a result of this change in drug pressure, we set out to define the baseline prevalence of SP-associated mutations in the dhfr and dhps genes in Plasmodium falciparum using geographically diverse and longitudinally collected samples. A total of 153 blood samples were analysed from patients (5 years or older) with mild malaria after informed consent was obtained. Longitudinal samples were collected between 2000 and 2003 in Pikine, a suburb of Dakar. Geographically diverse site sampling was carried out in 2003. The mutation prevalence in DHFR codons 51, 59 and 108 is 65%, 61% and 78% in Pikine, 2003. The overall prevalence of the triple mutation that is associated with high-level pyrimethamine resistance is 61%. The mutation prevalence rate in DHPS codons 436 and 437 is 21% and 40%, respectively. There is significant geographic variation in genotypic resistance, as samples from Pikine in 2003 had higher mutation prevalence in the pfdhfr and pfdhps genes compared to samples from Tambacounda (P < 0.015). In summary, this study demonstrates a high background prevalence of SP resistance mutations already present in P. falciparum in Senegal.

Prevalence of Plasmodium falciparum pfcrt polymorphisms and in vitro chloroquine sensitivity in Senegal.

Mutations in pfcrt K76T are associated with chloroquine resistance in Plasmodium falciparum. Previous studies of K76T mutations in Senegal reported the association of T76 with in vitro-resistant isolates, but this mutation was also prevalent in chloroquine-sensitive isolates. This suggests involvement of additional genetic loci in modulating chloroquine resistance. Additional pfcrt polymorphisms at codons A220S, Q271E, N326S and R371I have been found in chloroquine-resistant isolates. We wanted to test if sequential acquisition of mutations at these codons leads to in vitro chloroquine resistance. Stepwise accumulation of mutations was not detected, rather there was almost complete linkage between the pfcrt K76T mutation and polymorphisms in these codons. Therefore these additional polymorphisms do not enhance the correlation between pfcrt T76 and chloroquine resistance in Senegal. These data suggest that in vitro chloroquine resistance requires the genetic background of the pfcrt K76T mutation and additional mutations in genetic loci outside the pfcrt gene.

Inhibition of human cytochrome P450 isoforms by nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors.

The capacity of three clinically available nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) to inhibit the activity of human cytochromes P450 (CYPs) was studied in vitro using human liver microsomes. Delavirdine, nevirapine, and efavirenz produced negligible inhibition of phenacetin O-deethylation (CYP1A2) or dextromethorphan O-demethylation (CYP2D6). Nevirapine did not inhibit hydroxylation of tolbutamide (CYP2C9) or S-mephenytoin (CYP2C19), but these CYP isoforms were importantly inhibited by delavirdine and efavirenz. This indicates the likelihood of significantly impaired clearance of CYP2C substrate drugs (such as phenytoin, tolbutamide, and warfarin) upon initial exposure to these two NNRTIs. Delavirdine and efavirenz (but not nevirapine) also were strong inhibitors of CYP3A, consistent with clinical hazards of initial cotreatment with either of these drugs and substrates of CYP3A. The in vitro microsomal model provides relevant predictive data on probable drug interactions with NNRTIs when the mechanism is inhibition of CYP-mediated drug biotransformation. However, the model does not incorporate interactions attributable to enzyme induction.

Differential impairment of triazolam and zolpidem clearance by ritonavir.

BACKGROUND: The viral protease inhibitor ritonavir has the capacity to inhibit and induce the activity of cytochrome P450-3A (CYP3A) isoforms, leading to drug interactions that may influence the efficacy and toxicity of other antiretroviral therapies, as well as pharmacologic treatments of coincident or complicating diseases. METHODS: The inhibitory effect of ritonavir on the biotransformation of the hypnotic agents triazolam and zolpidem was tested in vitro using human liver microsomes. In a double-blind clinical study, volunteer study subjects received 0.125 mg triazolam or 5.0 mg zolpidem concurrent with low-dose ritonavir (four doses of 200 mg), or with placebo. RESULTS: Ritonavir was a potent in vitro inhibitor of triazolam hydroxylation but was less potent as an inhibitor of zolpidem hydroxylation. In the clinical study, ritonavir reduced triazolam clearance to < 4% of control values (p < .005), prolonged elimination half-life (41 versus 3 hours; p < .005), and magnified benzodiazepine agonist effects such as sedation and performance impairment. In contrast, ritonavir reduced zolpidem clearance to 78% of control values (p < .08), and slightly prolonged elimination half-life (2.4 versus 2.0 hours; NS). Benzodiazepine agonist effects of zolpidem were not altered by ritonavir. CONCLUSION: Short-term low-dose administration of ritonavir produces a large and significant impairment of triazolam clearance and enhancement of clinical effects. In contrast, ritonavir produced small and clinically unimportant reductions in zolpidem clearance. The findings are consistent with the complete dependence of triazolam clearance on CYP3A activity, compared with the partial dependence of zolpidem clearance on CYP3A.

Human immunodeficiency virus-specific circulating CD8 T lymphocytes have down-modulated CD3zeta and CD28, key signaling molecules for T-cell activation.

Although human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected subjects without AIDS have a high frequency of HIV-specific CD8 T lymphocytes, cellular immunity is unable to control infection. Freshly isolated lymphocytes often do not lyse HIV-infected targets in 4-h cytotoxicity assays. A large fraction of circulating CD8 T cells from HIV-infected donors down-modulate CD3zeta, the signaling component of the T-cell receptor complex, which is reexpressed in vitro coincident with the return of cytotoxic function. To investigate further the link between CD3zeta down-modulation and possible CD8 T-cell functional defects, we used flow cytometry to characterize further the properties of the CD3zeta-down-modulated subset. HIV-specific CD8 T cells, identified by tetramer staining, are CD3zeta(-). CD8 T cells with down-modulated CD3zeta also do not express the key costimulatory receptor CD28 and have the cell surface phenotype of activated or memory T cells (HLA-DR(+) CD62L(-)). After T-cell activation, CD3zeta-down-modulated cells express the activation marker CD69 but not the high-affinity interleukin 2 (IL-2) receptor alpha-chain CD25 and produce gamma interferon but not IL-2. Therefore HIV-specific CD8 T cells have down-modulated key signaling molecules for T-cell activation and costimulation and require exogenous cytokine stimulation. The typical impairment of HIV-specific CD4 T helper cells, which would normally provide specific CD8 T-cell stimulation, means that in vivo CTL function in vivo is compromised in most HIV-infected individuals. In AIDS patients, the functional defect is more severe, since CD3zeta is not reexpressed even after IL-2 exposure.

Alprazolam-ritonavir interaction: implications for product labeling.

BACKGROUND: Pharmacokinetic interactions involving antiretroviral therapies may critically influence the efficacy and toxicity of these drugs, as well as pharmacologic treatments of coincident or complicating diseases. The viral protease inhibitor ritonavir is of particular concern since it both inhibits and induces the activity of cytochrome P450 3A (CYP3A) isoforms. METHODS: The inhibitory effect of ritonavir on the metabolism of alprazolam, a CYP3A-mediated reaction in humans, was tested in vitro using human liver microsomes. In a double-blind clinical study, volunteer subjects received 1.0 mg of alprazolam concurrent with low-dose ritonavir (four doses of 200 mg) or with placebo. RESULTS: Ritonavir was a potent in vitro inhibitor of alprazolam hydroxylation. The 50% inhibitory concentration was 0.11 micromol/L (0.08 microg/mL); this is below the usual therapeutic plasma concentration range (generally exceeding 2 microg/mL). In the clinical study, ritonavir reduced alprazolam clearance to 41% of control values (P < .001), prolonged elimination half-life (mean values, 30 versus 13 hours; P < .005), and magnified benzodiazepine agonist effects such as sedation and performance impairment. CONCLUSION: Consistent with in vitro results, administration of low doses of ritonavir for a short duration of time resulted in large impairment of alprazolam clearance and enhancement of clinical effects. Removal from product labeling of a warning against coadministration of ritonavir and alprazolam was based on a previous study only of extended exposure to ritonavir, in which CYP3A induction offset inhibition. Kinetic interactions involving antiretroviral therapies may be complex and time dependent. Product labeling should reflect this complexity.

Inhibition of desipramine hydroxylation (Cytochrome P450-2D6) in vitro by quinidine and by viral protease inhibitors: relation to drug interactions in vivo.

Pharmacokinetic drug interactions with viral protease inhibitors are of potential clinical importance. An in vitro model was applied to the quantitative identification of possible interactions of protease inhibitors with substrates of cytochrome P450-2D6. Biotransformation of desipramine (DMI) to hydroxydesipramine (OH-DMI), an index reaction used to profile activity of human cytochrome P450-2D6, was studied in vitro using human liver microsomes. Quinidine and four viral protease inhibitors currently used to treat human immunodeficiency virus infection were tested as chemical inhibitors in this system. Formation of OH-DMI from DMI was consistent with Michaelis-Menten kinetics, having a mean Km value of 11.7 microM (range: 9.9-15.3 microM). Quinidine, a highly potent and relatively selective inhibitor of P450-2D6, strongly inhibited OH-DMI formation with an apparent competitive mechanism, having a mean inhibition constant of 0.16 microM (range: 0.13-0.18 microM). All four protease inhibitors impaired OH-DMI formation; the pattern was consistent with a mixed competitive-noncompetitive mechanism. Mean inhibition constants (small numbers indicating greater inhibiting potency) were as follows: ritonavir, 4.8 microM; indinavir, 15.6 microM; saquinavir, 24.0 microM; nelfinavir, 51.9 microM. In a clinical pharmacokinetic study, coadministration of ritonavir with DMI inhibited DMI clearance by an average of 59%. The in vitro findings, together with observed plasma ritonavir concentrations, provided a reasonable quantitative forecast of this interaction, whereas estimated unbound plasma or intrahepatic ritonavir concentrations yielded poor quantitative forecasts. Thus the in vitro model correctly identifies ritonavir as a potent and clinically important inhibitor of human P450-2D6. Other protease inhibitors may also inhibit 2D6 activity in humans, but with lower potency than ritonavir.

Protease inhibitors as inhibitors of human cytochromes P450: high risk associated with ritonavir.

Four protease inhibitor antiviral agents (ritonavir, indinavir, nelfinavir, saquinavir) were evaluated as in vitro inhibitors of the activity of six human cytochromes using an in vitro model based on human liver microsomes. Ritonavir was a highly potent inhibitor of P450-3A activity (triazolam hydroxylation), having inhibitory potency slightly less than ketoconazole. Indinavir was also a potent 3A inhibitor, while nelfinavir and saquinavir were less potent. Ritonavir had high inhibition potency against cytochrome P450-2C9 (tolbutamide hydroxylation), -2C19 (S-mephenytoin hydroxylation), and -2D6 (dextromethorphan O-demethylation and desipramine hydroxylation), while the other protease inhibitors had one or more orders of magnitude lower inhibitory activity against these reactions. None of the protease inhibitors had important inhibitory potency against P450-1A2 (phenacetin O-deethylation) or -2E1 (chlorzoxazone hydroxylation). Thus, among available protease inhibitors, ritonavir carries the highest risk of incurring drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 activity.

Postexposure prophylaxis for HIV.

AIDS: Postexposure prophylaxis represents an advance in the management of percutaneous exposure to HIV in the workplace, but its efficacy in other settings needs further study. Three types of occupational exposure, percutaneous, mucous membrane, skin contact or loss of skin integrity, the postexposure prophylaxis to be used or offered, and the risk data and assessment for HIV acquisition are examined. Analysis of HIV transmission through percutaneous exposure reveals that occupational risk for health care workers is increased by deep injury to the exposed worker, visible blood on the injuring device, exposure of the device to source patients' vein or artery, and source patient's death from AIDS within 60 days of the accident. Prophylaxis for percutaneous exposure, if indicated, should be initiated within 1 to 2 hours to be effective. HIV antibody titers should be measured immediately and at 6 weeks, 12 weeks, and 6 months after exposure. AZT prophylaxis following percutaneous occupational exposure has dramatically decreased transmission in this setting and multiple drug regimens have become the standard of care to further increase efficacy. Sexual contact is the most frequent means of transmitting HIV infection and reducing exposure is the mainstay of public health efforts. Prophylaxis after non-occupational exposures such as sexual intercourse or sharing needles could potentially decrease transmission, although efficacy has not yet been demonstrated. Routine prophylaxis after sexual exposure may be an ineffective strategy.^ieng