Possible selection of viable human blastocysts after vitrification by monitoring morphological changes.

PURPOSE: Morphological assessment of human blastocysts has been effective for selecting embryos with high potential. However, they often show repeated shrinkage and expansion toward their hatching. Here we assessed whether capturing morphological changes over time of vitrified-warmed blastocysts could lead to a better selection of viable embryos from shrunken blastocysts. METHODS: The implantation rates of vitrified-warmed blastocysts that were shrunken or expanded (developing) at the time of loading for transfer were compared among 2,729 cycles that were subjected to single blastocyst transfer. Vitrified (107) and fresh blastocysts (17) were donated for the experimental study. To assess the relationship between morphology (expanded vs. shrunken) and the mitochondrial respiration of blastocysts, the oxygen consumption rate (OCR) was analyzed for 55 specimens using an uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation. The remaining 69 blastocysts were used for recording morphological changes every 15 min for 48 h after warming. RESULTS: Because there were no surplus embryos, 7 % of the vitrified-warmed blastocysts were shrunken and transferred. The shrunken embryos had sufficient implantation ability (40 %). The OCR of the shrunken embryos was significantly lower than that of their expanded counterparts. Upon exposure to the uncoupler, the OCR of some shrunken embryos increased to levels similar to the expanded specimens. Time-lapse images revealed some shrunken embryos which formed blastocoel by 5 h following warming exhibited developmental competence to the hatched stage. CONCLUSIONS: Data of the present study suggest a group of shrunken blastocysts contains many viable and clinically available embryos and time-lapse observation of vitrified-warmed blastocysts is a potential method to distinguish viable embryos from shrunken blastocysts.

[Low dose CVD chemotherapy as a tumor dormancy therapy for extra-adrenal malignant pheochromocytoma: a case report].

A 38 year-old man presented with upper abdominal mass and hypertension pointed out at a medical examination. Blood pressure was 170/90 under medication of an alpha-blocker. Abdominal CT scan showed an 8 x 8 cm inter-aortocaval mass displacing pancreas head ventrally, and further a 4 x 4 cm mass at the aortic bifurcation, but there was no tumorous lesion in bilateral adrenal glands. Plasma nor-epinephrine level and urinary VMA excretion were excessive but plasma adrenaline level was within normal limits. MIBG scintigram showed hot spots in the 4th and 9th thoracic vertebrae. The destructive change of the 9th vertebra on magnetic resonance imaging strongly suggested metastasis of the tumor. Histologic and immunohistochemical findings of the biopsy specimen taken from the lower abdominal tumor in addition to the above clinical data led to the diagnosis of extra-adrenal malignant pheochromocytoma with spinal metastases. Since 2 cycles of full dose CYVADIC chemotherapy had no effects on lowering the high blood pressure and reducing the tumor size, low dose (60% of the full dose) CVD (cyclophosphamide, vincristine and dacarbazine) was given as a palliative chemotherapy on an out-patient clinic approximately every 4 weeks. After 4 cycles of the chemotherapy, his backache due to spinal metastasis markedly improved, hypertension as well as the plasma dopamine level was normalized and nor-epinephrine level was markedly decreased, though the tumor size was not reduced. Thereafter, no medication for hypertension was necessary. During 3 years and 6 months until now, 36 cycles of the chemotherapy has been repeated with no significant side effects. He has been at full-time work with quality of life being well preserved. Low dose CVD regimen appears to be an effective tumor dormancy therapy for advanced extra-adrenal pheochromocytoma.

Ulcer in the gastric tube for esophageal replacement: a comparison of 12 esophageal cancer patients with or without postoperative radiotherapy.

BACKGROUND AND AIMS: Ulcer in the gastric tube for esophageal replacement, which was caused by peptic factors or postoperative radiotherapy (Rx), are occasionally reported. The aim of this study was to clarify the clinicopathologic features of the ulcers in the gastric tube. METHODS: In 62 patients with a reconstructed gastric tube, after esophagectomy for esophageal cancer, esophagogastroduodenoscopy was performed. Ulcers of the gastric tube were detected in 12 patients: six with postoperative Rx and six without Rx. The 12 patients with gastric tube ulcers (GU-group) were reviewed and compared to the remaining 50 patients without ulcers of the gastric tube (Control-group). Clinicopathologic features of gastric tube ulcers were compared between the patients with and without Rx. RESULTS: There was no difference in any parameter between the patients of the GU- and Control-groups. Comparing the patients of the GU-group with and without Rx, the ulcers of the gastric tube in the patients without Rx were frequently located in the lower part of the gastric tube (P = 0.067), detected in a later period after surgery (P = 0.055), associated with cervical esophagitis (P = 0.03), and less associated with gastritis (P = 0.03). In three patients of the GU-group without Rx, Helicobacter pylori was detected in the gastric tube. Two of the three patients had a history of peptic ulcers before surgery, and had recurrence of the gastric tube ulcers. CONCLUSIONS: Gastric tube ulcers without postoperative Rx may have different characteristics compared to those induced by Rx.

Retroperitoneal cystic metastasis from a small clear cell renal carcinoma.

A 39-year-old housewife was referred to our hospital for the treatment of a small renal tumor. A 25 x 35 mm cystic mass that had been detected by computerized tomography scan just caudal to the renal hilus proved to be a metastasis from the renal carcinoma of clear cell type. The pathogenesis may have been due to tumor cells obstructing a lymphatic vessel draining the kidney. Cystic metastasis from renal cell carcinoma is very rare and this appears to be the second published case in the world.

[Clinical evaluation of an immunochromatography test for rapid diagnosis of influenza].

We evaluated a rapid diagnostic kit that detects influenza type A and B viral antigens by immunochromatography, Quick Vue Influenza Test (Quidel Corp., San Diego, CA, USA), with 425 specimens collected from patients with influenza-like symptoms at three hospitals between January and March 2001. The specimens included 184 nasal aspirates, 140 nasal swabs, and 101 throat swabs. The test correctly identified 179 of the 204 culture positive specimens and 203 of the 221 culture negative specimens; the sensitivity and specificity compared with the culture were 87.7% and 91.9%, respectively. The sensitivity of the test was 92.6% (112/121) for nasal aspirates, 83.7% (41/49) for nasal swabs, and 76.5% (26/34) for throat swabs, which is similar to the results for conventional rapid enzyme immunoassay kits for influenza virus infection. The sensitivity and specificity of the QuickVue Influenza Test were equivalent to those of Flu OIA (BioStar, Inc., Boulder, CO, USA), with the agreement of 84.2%. Although the QuickVue Influenza Test does not differentiate between influenza A and B viruses, the easy-to-use kit detects both types in the physician's office, allowing physicians to make a decision on prescription of neuraminidase inhibitor therapy during the initial visit.

[Clinical evaluation of rapid diagnostic kit detecting separately influenza A and B viruses].

The Directigen Flu A + B kit, a rapid diagnostic device for influenza virus A and B was evaluated. The nasopharyngeal aspirates were obtained from 239 patients who visited our hospital, between January and March, 2000, presenting flu-like symptoms. Influenza virus AH1: 77 and AH3: 51 were isolated from 128 specimens and none from 111 specimens. Directigen Flu A + B showed 115 specimens positive and 106 specimens negative. The sensitivity and specificity of this kit were 89.8% (115/128) and 95.5% (106/111) compared with viral isolation. Agreement on positive and negative interpretations between Direction Flu A and this kit was 97.9% (234/239). In the evaluation of this kit for influenza B virus, 60 frozen nasopharyngeal aspirates collected from February to April, 1999 were used. The sensitivity and specificity of this kit were 88.9% (16/18) and 88.1% (37/42) compared with viral isolation. Agreement on positive and negative interpretations between FLU OIA and this kit was 91.7% (55/60). The Directigen A + B demonstrated sensitivity and specificity equivalent to the conventional kits in nasopharingeal aspirates. This kit can also differentiate influenza A and B viruses, a feature which is useful for treatment using anti-viral agents such as amantadine and neuraminidase inhibitor. To date, the kit is the most effective tool for the rapid diagnosis of influenza.

[Use of a rapid detection assay for influenza virus, on nasal aspirate specimens].

We investigated the usefulness of a rapid antigen detection kit using optical immunoassay for influenza virus (FLU OIA, BioStar, USA). Nasal aspirates were taken from 92 influenza suspected outpatients between March to April of 1999. Compared with virus isolation and PCR, the sensitivity of FLU OIA was 88.5% and 81.6%, and the specificity was 65.2% and 72.2%. All isolated viruses were influenza type B virus. It was difficult to differentiate the weak-positive and negative cases, leading to the rather low specificity, although the assay procedure was easy and quick. FLU OIA may be a useful rapid diagnosis kit for influenza in pediatric outpatient clinics and wards, because it can detect both influenza type A and type B viruses.