Effect of different location of atrial lead position on nearfield and farfield electrograms in dual chamber pacemaker-defibrillators.

The normal functioning of dual chamber pacemaker-cardioverter defibrillator (AV pacer/ICD) may be affected by oversensing of the farfield R wave (FFRW) by the atrial channel. This study aimed to investigate whether placement of the AV pacer/ICD's atrial lead at a lateral (LAT) wall location compared to a medial (MED) location i.e. the appendage of the right atrium, would reduce the amplitude of FFRWs but not the nearfield atrial electrograms (AEGMs) during sinus rhythm (SR) and ventricular fibrillation (VF). In 17 patients, real time electrograms were recorded during SR and induced VF through the atrial lead initially at the MED and subsequently at the LAT location. In 10 patients the electrograms in SR were also recorded on a computerized data acquisition and recording system at different band-pass filter settings. Although FFRWs were recorded both at MED and LAT locations, they were much smaller, 3.5+/-4.1mm during SR and 1.7+/-2.2mm during VF at the LAT location. At 30-500Hz band-pass filter, lower amplitudes of FFRWs 0.14+/-0.09 mV were recorded at the LAT location. The V/A ratios of the amplitudes of FFRWs and AEGMs were smaller at the LAT location during SR and VF. The nearfield AEGMs were of similar amplitudes at the MED and LAT locations. These data indicate that lower amplitudes of FFRWs are recorded by placement of the atrial lead at the lateral wall of the right atrium. Oversensing of FFRWs may be prevented to improve functioning of the AV pacer-ICD.

The effect of psychological intervention on patients' long-term adjustment to the ICD: a prospective study.

This study prospectively examined the role of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) in (1) alleviating psychological and somatic distress, and (2) lowering arrhythmic events requiring shocks. Forty-nine of 61 consecutive patients were randomized into therapy (CBT, n = 25) or no therapy (NT, n = 24) and completed a battery of self-report questionnaires at baseline and at 9-month follow-up. CBT was administered at preimplant, predischarge, and at seven routine follow-up visits. Patients were 65 +/- 10 years old, 65% were men, and 92% Caucasian. Eighteen (72%) CBT patients and 18 (75%) NT patients were retained at follow-up. Compared to CBT patients, NT patients reported higher levels of depression (P = 0.046), more anxiety (P = 0.013), more psychological distress (P = 0.015), poorer overall adjustment (P = 0.009), and poorer sexual functioning (P = 0.003). Mean number of shocks did not differ between the CBT and NT groups (2.85 vs 2.30, respectively); however, more patients in the CBT group (61%) than the NT group (33%) received shocks (P = 0.070). At follow-up, a subgroup analysis revealed that the significant differences observed between the CBT and NT groups were attributable to the patients who received shocks in both groups. In conclusion, CBT was associated with decreased depression, decreased anxiety, and increased adjustment for ICD recipients, particularly among those patients receiving shocks. CBT can be administered effectively at routine follow-up visits or transtelephonically with little added inconvenience to the ICD recipient.

Efficacy and safety of catheter ablation in octogenarians.

OBJECTIVES: To determine whether catheter ablation is safe and effective in patients over the age of 80. BACKGROUND: There is a tendency to withhold invasive therapy in the elderly until it has been proven safe and effective. METHODS: Over a two-year period from February 1, 1996 to February 1, 1998, 695 consecutive patients underwent 744 catheter ablation procedures of supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias. These patients were divided into three groups based on age: > or =80 years, 60 to 79 years and <60 years. Acute ablation success, using standard criteria and complication rates for these three groups were determined. RESULTS: There were 37 patients > or =80 years, 275 patients 60 to 79 years and 383 patients <60 years old. The overall acute ablation success rate for the entire group was 95% with no difference in rates among the three groups (97%, > or =80 years; 94%, 60-79 years; 95%, <60 years). The percentage of patients undergoing His bundle ablation was greatest in the > or =80-year-old group (43% vs. 19% vs. 2%, p < 0.01), and the percentage of patients undergoing accessory pathway ablation was greatest in the <60-year-old patients (0% vs. 4% vs. 25%, p < 0.01). The overall complication rate for the entire group was 2.6%, and there was only one major/life-threatening complication. There was no difference in complication rates among the groups (0%, > or =80 years; 2.2%, 60 to 79 years; 3.1%, <60 years). Based on the sample size, the 95% confidence interval is 0% to 7.8% for an adverse event in the octogenarian. CONCLUSIONS: Catheter ablative therapy for the arrhythmias attempted in the very elderly appears to be effective with low risk. Ablation results appear to be comparable with those noted in younger patients.

Interactions between implantable cardioverter-defibrillators and class III agents.

Although implantable cardioverter-defibrillators (ICDs) can successfully terminate ventricular arrhythmias, antiarrhythmic drugs are often required to prevent recurrent events. Class III antiarrhythmic agents have emerged as the safest, most effective, and widely used agents in the 40-70% of ICD patients who require concomitant antiarrhythmic medication. Antiarrhythmic agents can influence the effectiveness of ICDs to terminate arrhythmias through their effect on defibrillation threshold. All class III agents share the ability to prolong ventricular refractoriness and those with "pure" class III activity consistently decrease defibrillation threshold in the normal canine heart model. Sotalol, amiodarone, and bretylium all have other Vaughan Williams class actions that influence their respective effects on defibrillation threshold. Sotalol has been associated with a decrease in defibrillation threshold in both animal and in clinical studies, whereas amiodarone has been associated with variable effects in animal models and an increase in defibrillation threshold in clinical studies. Additionally, antiarrhythmic agents may prolong ventricular tachycardia (VT) cycle length, which may affect the ability to pace terminate or cardiovert VT. Amiodarone has a moderate slowing effect on the VT cycle length. Finally, class III drugs also have proarrhythmic potential that may affect the defibrillator's function. Sotalol can be associated with dose-related torsade de pointes, whereas amiodarone may slow the VT cycle length below the tachycardia detection rate cutoff. In conclusion, class III pharmacotherapy can be safely administered in conjunction with ICD therapy as long as the interaction between these therapeutic modalities is appreciated.

Conduction block in the inferior vena caval-tricuspid valve isthmus: association with outcome of radiofrequency ablation of type I atrial flutter.

OBJECTIVES: We sought to 1) correlate conduction block in the isthmus of the right atrium between the inferior vena cava and the tricuspid annulus with the efficacy of catheter ablation of type I atrial flutter, and 2) characterize the effects of ablative lesions on the properties of isthmus conduction. BACKGROUND: There are few data on the mechanism of persistent suppression of recurrence of atrial flutter by catheter ablation. METHODS: Thirty-five patients with type I atrial flutter underwent catheter mapping and ablation. Radiofrequency lesions were applied in the isthmus. Transisthmus conduction before and after the lesions was assessed during atrial pacing in sinus rhythm from the medial and lateral margins of the isthmus at cycle lengths of 600, 400 and 300 ms and the native flutter cycle length. Isthmus conduction block was defined using multipolar recording techniques. There were three treatment groups: group 1 = radiofrequency energy applied during flutter, until termination (n = 14); group 2 = radiofrequency energy applied during atrial pacing in sinus rhythm from the proximal coronary sinus at a cycle length of 600 ms, until isthmus conduction block was observed (n = 14); and group 3 = radiofrequency energy applied until an initial flutter termination, after which further energy was applied during atrial pacing in sinus rhythm until isthmus conduction block was observed (n = 7). RESULTS: In group 1, after the initial flutter termination, isthmus conduction block was observed in 9 of the 14 patients. In each of these nine patients, flutter could not be reinitiated. In each of the remaining five patients, after the initial flutter termination, isthmus conduction was intact and atrial flutter could be reinitiated. Ultimately, successful ablation in each of these patients was also associated with isthmus conduction block. In groups 2 and 3, isthmus conduction block was achieved during radiofrequency energy application, and flutter could not subsequently be reinitiated. Before achieving conduction block, marked conduction slowing or intermittent block, or both, was observed in some patients. In some patients, isthmus conduction block was pacing rate dependent. In addition, recovery from conduction block was common in the laboratory and had a variable time course. At a mean follow-up interval of 10 months (range 1 to 21), the actuarial incidence of freedom from type I flutter was 80% (recurrence in three patients at 7 to 15 months). CONCLUSIONS: Isthmus conduction block is associated with flutter ablation success. Conduction slowing or intermittent block, or both, in the isthmus can occur before achieving persistent block. Recovery of conduction after achieving block is common. Follow-up has revealed a low rate of flutter recurrence after achieving isthmus conduction block, whether the block was achieved in conjunction with termination of flutter.

The results of atrial flutter ablation in patients with and without a history of atrial fibrillation.

To determine the impact of atrial flutter radiofrequency catheter ablation on recurrence of atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation, 32 patients with atrial flutter (18 with a history of atrial fibrillation) were followed for a mean of 8.6 months; atrial flutter has not recurred after 1 (26 patients) or 2 (5 patients) successful ablation procedures. Atrial flutter did not appear proarrhythmic for atrial fibrillation, with only 1 of 15 patients without a history of atrial fibrillation developing the arrythmia in the absence of an alcohol binge or cocaine use.

Idiopathic right ventricular outflow tract tachycardia: narrowing the anatomic location for successful ablation.

Pace mapping used to locate the site for ablation of idiopathic right ventricular outflow tract (RVOT) ventricular tachycardia remains difficult and time-consuming. A method to facilitate pace mapping and the most common site of ablation of this tachycardia are reported. In 18 consecutive patients with RVOT ventricular tachycardia, electrocardiographic criteria based on the QRS orientation in lead 1 and the R wave progression in the precordial leads were used to find pace maps matching the arrhythmia. Identical pace maps were obtained on the septum of the RVOT in 16 patients and resulted in successful ablations. These sites were concentrated in the anterior superior aspect of the RVOT determined by fluoroscopic imaging. In the remaining two cases identical pace maps could not be found in this area. The results of this study narrow the anatomic location for radiofrequency ablation of idiopathic RVOT ventricular tachycardia. This is the first description of an electrocardiography-guided approach to finding an identical pace map in the RVOT.

Left ventricular diastolic response to exercise in valvular aortic stenosis.

Exercise produces profound alterations in symptoms and hemodynamics in patients with valvular aortic stenosis (AS). Prior studies have demonstrated marked increases in late left ventricular (LV) diastolic filling pressure with exercise. Little information is available on the exercise response of indexes of early LV diastolic performance. Catheter-tip manometer recordings in 11 patients with AS and 5 age-matched controls were obtained at rest and with supine bicycle exercise at the time of cardiac catheterization. Pressure-derived indexes of LV diastolic performance, isovolumic relaxation rate, and diastolic interval data were examined. At rest, early (patients 22 +/- 6 mm Hg, controls 12 +/- 3 mm Hg; p < 0.01), minimal (patients 9 +/- 4 mm Hg, controls 4 +/- 1 mm Hg; p < 0.01), and late (patients 28 +/- 10 mm Hg, controls 13 +/- 3 mm Hg; p < 0.002) LV diastolic pressures were elevated in patients with AS. The time to onset of isovolumic relaxation (patients 422 +/- 31 ms, controls 363 +/- 40 ms; p < 0.01) and minimal LV diastolic pressure (patients 608 +/- 57 ms, controls 448 +/- 52 ms; p < 0.002) at rest were prolonged in patients with AS. With exercise, early (patients 45 +/- 14 mm Hg, controls 15 +/- 3 mm Hg; p < 0.002), minimal (patients 15 +/- 6 mm Hg, controls 2 +/- 1 mm Hg; p < 0.01), and late (patients 38 +/- 10 mm Hg, controls 18 +/- 5 mm Hg; p < 0.002) LV diastolic pressures were elevated, and the time to minimal LV diastolic pressure (patients 528 +/- 26 ms; controls 393 +/- 56 ms) and peak first derivative of LV pressure decline (-LV dP/dt) patients 395 +/- 41 ms, controls 326 +/- 59 ms) were prolonged in AS. Furthermore, patients with AS failed to comparably increase the rate of LV pressure decay and isovolumic relaxation with exercise. The LV diastolic response to exercise in patients with AS is distinguished from the control response by suboptimal and prolonged relaxation and a diminished rate of LV pressure decay. These abnormal responses in early diastolic function coupled with the known abnormal chamber distensibility in AS contribute to significant elevations in early, mid-, and late diastolic pressures with exercise.

Discrete subaortic valvular stenosis: the clinical utility and limitations of transesophageal echocardiography.

Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) is a useful technique in the diagnosis and intraoperative assessment of discrete subaortic stenosis (DSS). It allows clear visualization of the subaortic membrane, which may be missed by transthoracic echocardiography, differentiates DSS from other causes of left ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and accurately detects the presence of associated aortic regurgitation and bacterial endocarditis. Limitations in its use include inadequate visualization of the left ventricular outflow tract by TEE in the presence of a prosthetic mitral valve or mitral annular calcification, and improper alignment of the Doppler cursor across the outflow tract.

Significant mitral regurgitation is protective against left atrial spontaneous echo contrast and thrombus as assessed by transesophageal echocardiography.

This retrospective study examines whether a relationship exists between the severity of mitral regurgitation (MR) and the presence of left atrial spontaneous echo contrast and/or thrombus (SEC/THR) as assessed by transesophageal echocardiography in 427 consecutive patients. Clinical data were evaluated in 316 of these patients. Nine percent of patients with MR < or = 2+ versus < 1% of those with MR > or = 3+ had SEC/THR (p < 0.03). Atrial fibrillation, left ventricular dysfunction, mitral stenosis, and mitral valve prosthesis were demonstrated to be independent positive predictors of left atrial SEC/THR, whereas MR > or = 3+ was an independent negative predictor of SEC/THR. SEC/THR was less common in patients with MR > or = 3+ than in patients with MR < or = 2+ for any given number of independent positive predictors of SEC/THR. This relationship did not hold true in patients with a mechanical mitral prosthetic valve. Clinical data revealed a trend towards a lower prevalence of stroke or transient ischemic attacks in patients with MR > or = 3+. Stroke and transient ischemic attacks were significantly more common in patients with SEC/THR (p < 0.001). We suggest that significant MR may be protective against the formation of left atrial SEC/THR.

Pitfalls in the echo-Doppler diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

While Doppler echocardiography has become the gold standard for the diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, there are many pitfalls in its use. Some of these pitfalls are technical in nature resulting from inadequate image quality, incorrect transducer angulation, and improper equipment settings. Other pitfalls relate to the diversity and heterogeneity in defining hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and to the host of disorders that may mimic it by echocardiography. The pattern and extent of ventricular hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve, and Doppler determination of left ventricular outflow tract obstruction, diastolic dysfunction, and mitral regurgitation are discussed, as are wall-motion abnormalities and myocardial echo reflectivity. While these echocardiographic features of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are nonspecific when seen in isolation, their combined presence in the appropriate clinical setting makes the diagnosis likely.

Transesophageal echocardiographic evaluation of a transthoracic echocardiographic pitfall: a diaphragmatic hernia mimicking a left atrial mass.

Diaphragmatic hernia may mimic a left atrial mass when imaged by transthoracic echocardiography. In this case study we emphasize the value of transesophageal echocardiography in clarifying the cause of this apparent atrial mass.

Patent foramen ovale: a nonfunctional embryological remnant or a potential cause of significant pathology?

A patent foramen ovale (PFO) is an embryological remnant found in 27% of adults. It is a potential right-to-left intracardiac shunt. Shunting may be the result of reversal in the interatrial pressure gradient or abnormal streaming of blood in the right atrium. The pathologic consequences of right-to-left shunting include hypoxemia and paradoxical embolism. PFO may exacerbate preexisting hypoxemia or be its primary cause. Paradoxical embolism through a PFO is well documented. Its role in cryptogenic stroke remains controversial. A PFO may be detected by both invasive and noninvasive techniques. Contrast transesophageal echocardiography with provocative maneuvers is the diagnostic method of choice allowing visualization of the shunt. Patients with cryptogenic stroke should be screened for a PFO. If detected, noninvasive studies for deep vein thrombosis are recommended. Treatment must be tailored to the presentation. Surgical or transcatheter closure is recommended for hypoxemia. Prevention of venous embolism (air or thrombus) with or without closure of the PFO is recommended for paradoxical embolism.

Evidence that cyclosporine G is less deleterious to rat bone in vivo than cyclosporine A.

We have previously shown that CsA administration to rats causes a high turnover bone loss with bone resorption exceeding bone formation. Similar findings have been reported in renal and cardiac transplantation patients administered CsA. Cyclosporine-G (CsG), a natural equipotent immunosuppressive analogue of CsA, has been shown to be less nephrotoxic than CsA. We therefore compared the effects of CsG and CsA on bone mineral metabolism. Sixty male Sprague-Dawley rats were divided into 3 equal groups as follows: group A (n = 20) was the control; group B (n = 20) received CsA 15 mg/kg by daily gavage; and group C received CsG 15 mg/kg by daily gavage for 28 days. Rats were bled weekly for measurement of circulating biochemical parameters of bone mineral metabolism and after sacrifice on day 28, the tibiae were removed for histomorphometric analysis. The tibial bone histomorphometry revealed that the percentage of bone volume was significantly reduced, and the osteoclast count increased in both the CsA and CsG group, but significantly less so in the CsG than the CsA group. Parameters reflecting bone formation in the CsG group were similar to controls but significantly different from the CsA group. Bone Gla protein levels in the CsA group were significantly increased compared with the control and CsG groups from day 14. Serum 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D was increased significantly in the CsA group on days 14 and 28 compared with both control and CsG groups, and was significantly elevated in the CsG group compared with controls on the same days. We conclude that CsG is significantly less deleterious to bone mineral metabolism than CsA in the rat in vivo.

Combined treatment with cyclosporin A and cortisone acetate minimizes the adverse bone effects of either agent alone.

Although cyclosporin A (CsA) and cortisone acetate (CRT) adversely affect bone, their combined effect on bone is unknown. Sprague Dawley rats were therefore administered either vehicle or CsA (7.5 mg/kg/day) by gavage and saline or CRT (2 mg/100 mg/day) by s.c. injection for 28 days. Group A received vehicle plus saline, group B CsA plus saline, group C vehicle plus CRT, and group D CsA/CRT. Serial bloods were sampled over a 28-day period for ionized calcium (Ca), PTH, 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D (1,25(OH)2D), and bone gla protein (BGP osteocalcin) and tibia were examined on day 28 for histomorphometry. Results were compared with group A. Ca and PTH levels in groups B, C, and D were similar to those in group A during the study period. Group B had lower body weights, elevated levels of BGP, and an increase in 1,25(OH)2D. Group C developed weight loss and a decrease in BGP and 1,25(OH)2D. Group D had weight loss, BGP levels between those of group A and group C, and 1,25(OH)2D values similar to group A. Bone histomorphometry revealed high turnover osteopenia in group B and hyperostosis in group C with a decrease in bone formation and osteoclastlike cells. Combination therapy returned these to control values. In conclusion, the adverse effects of either CsA or CRT on bone in rats are minimized by combined therapy.

1,25 Dihydroxyvitamin D3 modifies cyclosporine-induced bone loss.

We have previously shown that cyclosporin A (CsA) produces high bone remodeling with resorption exceeding formation and loss of bone volume in the rat. This may have important clinical implications where CsA is widely used in organ transplantation. 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3 (1,25(OH)2D3) is a bone mineralizing hormone which also has immune modifying properties. Consequently, we studied the effect of combined CsA and 1,25(OH)2D3 administration over 28 days in four groups of rats. Group A received vehicle (n = 10), group B CsA (15 mg/kg) (n = 10) alone, group C 1,25(OH)2D3 plus CsA (n = 15), and group D 1,25(OH)2D3 alone (20 ng/100 g) (n = 15). Rats were bled periodically at day 0, 7, 14, and 28 and Ca, parathyroid hormone (PTH), 1,25(OH)2D, osteocalcin (bone Gla-protein, BGP), BUN, and creatinine were measured. Rats were sacrificed on day 28 and bones were examined histomorphometrically. Compared to controls, CsA resulted in significant elevation of BGP and a transient increase in 1,25(OH)2D with excess bone remodeling and loss of bone volume. 1,25(OH)2D3 administration produced hypercalcemia, a significant rise in BGP, with suppression of PTH and increased osteoid volume. Combined therapy prevented the loss of bone volume probably due to increased osteoid tissue and enhanced osteoblast activity. Renal dysfunction, a side-affect of CsA, was not a factor. In conclusion, 1,25(OH)2D3 combined with CsA restores bone volume which is accompanied by increases in serum calcium and BGP.