Validation of an RNA cell cycle progression score for predicting death from prostate cancer in a conservatively managed needle biopsy cohort.

BACKGROUND: The natural history of prostate cancer is highly variable and difficult to predict accurately. Better markers are needed to guide management and avoid unnecessary treatment. In this study, we validate the prognostic value of a cell cycle progression score (CCP score) independently and in a prespecified linear combination with standard clinical variables, that is, a clinical-cell-cycle-risk (CCR) score. METHODS: Paraffin sections from 761 men with clinically localized prostate cancer diagnosed by needle biopsy and managed conservatively in the United Kingdom, mostly between 2000 and 2003. The primary end point was prostate cancer death. Clinical variables consisted of centrally reviewed Gleason score, baseline PSA level, age, clinical stage, and extent of disease; these were combined into a single predefined risk assessment (CAPRA) score. Full data were available for 585 men who formed a fully independent validation cohort. RESULTS: In univariate analysis, the CCP score hazard ratio was 2.08 (95% CI (1.76, 2.46), P<10(-13)) for one unit change of the score. In multivariate analysis including CAPRA, the CCP score hazard ratio was 1.76 (95% CI (1.44, 2.14), P<10(-6)). The predefined CCR score was highly predictive, hazard ratio 2.17 (95% CI (1.83, 2.57), χ(2)=89.0, P<10(-20)) and captured virtually all available prognostic information. CONCLUSIONS: The CCP score provides significant pretreatment prognostic information that cannot be provided by clinical variables and is useful for determining which patients can be safely managed conservatively, avoiding radical treatment.

Prognostic value of a cell cycle progression signature for prostate cancer death in a conservatively managed needle biopsy cohort.

BACKGROUND: The natural history of prostate cancer is highly variable and it is difficult to predict. We showed previously that a cell cycle progression (CCP) score was a robust predictor of outcome in a conservatively managed cohort diagnosed by transurethral resection of the prostate. A greater need is to predict outcome in patients diagnosed by needle biopsy. METHODS: Total RNA was extracted from paraffin specimens. A CCP score was calculated from expression levels of 31 genes. Clinical variables consisted of centrally re-reviewed Gleason score, baseline prostate-specific antigen level, age, clinical stage, and extent of disease. The primary endpoint was death from prostate cancer. RESULTS: In univariate analysis (n=349), the hazard ratio (HR) for death from prostate cancer was 2.02 (95% CI (1.62, 2.53), P<10(-9)) for a one-unit increase in CCP score. The CCP score was only weakly correlated with standard prognostic factors and in a multivariate analysis, CCP score dominated (HR for one-unit increase=1.65, 95% CI (1.31, 2.09), P=3 × 10(-5)), with Gleason score (P=5 × 10(-4)) and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) (P=0.017) providing significant additional contributions. CONCLUSION: For conservatively managed patients, the CCP score is the strongest independent predictor of cancer death outcome yet described and may prove valuable in managing clinically localised prostate cancer.

Manual versus target-controlled infusions of propofol.

Target-controlled infusion systems have been shown to result in the administration of larger doses of propofol, which may result in delayed emergence and recovery from anaesthesia. The aim of this study was to investigate if this was due to a difference in the depth of hypnosis (using the bispectral index monitoring) between the manual and target controlled systems of administration. Fifty unpremedicated patients undergoing elective surgery were randomly allocated to have their anaesthesia maintained with manual or target-controlled propofol infusion schemes. In both groups, the rate of propofol administration was adjusted according to standard clinical criteria while bispectral index scores were recorded by an observer not involved in the delivery of anaesthesia. The total dose of propofol used was higher in the target controlled group (mean 9.9 [standard deviation 1.6] compared with 8.1 [1.0] mg.kg(-1).h(-1) in the manual group [p < 0.0001]). The times to emergence and recovery end-points were comparable between the two groups. The difference in the total dosage of propofol was mainly due to higher rate of propofol administration in the first 30 min in the target controlled infusion group. The bispectral index scores were lower in the target controlled group during this time, being significantly so over the first 15 min of anaesthesia. We conclude that propofol administration by a target controlled infusion system results in the administration of higher doses of propofol and lower bispectral index values mainly in the initial period of anaesthesia.

The use of consumption data to assess exposure to biotechnology-derived foods and the feasibility of identifying effects on human health through post-market monitoring.

The pre-market safety assessment of foods derived through biotechnology provides a scientific basis for concluding reasonable certainty of no harm and ensuring safety. At a minimum, the outcome of such an assessment provides sufficient information to estimate the likelihood of adverse effects on consumers, generally precluding the need for post-market monitoring. Post-market monitoring (PMM) may be appropriate under certain conditions where a better estimate of dietary exposure and/or nutritional consequence of a biotechnology-derived food is required, when a potential safety issue, such as allergenicity, cannot be adequately addressed through pre-market studies, or to corroborate dietary intakes of a nutritionally improved food with beneficial effects on human health. Monitoring programs must be hypothesis-driven, and are dependent upon the availability of accurate consumption data. Exposure assessment methods include both deterministic and probabilistic estimates of intakes using food supply data, individual dietary surveys, household surveys, or total diet studies. In the development of a monitoring approach, resource allocation should be dependent upon both the desired level of conservatism and the endpoint of interest. However, the cost of monitoring varies substantially, and the potential to determine causation may be limited.

Sheep lumbar intervertebral discs as models for human discs.

OBJECTIVE: To determine the water content, collagen content and collagen orientation angle in different regions of sheep lumbar discs. DESIGN: A laboratory study of sheep discs obtained from an abattoir. METHODS: A total of 21 sheep lumbar discs were obtained from three lumbar spines. Water content was determined by oven drying (60 degrees C) to constant mass. Collagen content was determined by hydroxyproline analysis. Fibre orientation angles were determined by X-ray diffraction. RESULTS: Water content increased from 74% of total tissue mass in the outer annulus, to 82% in the inner annulus, to 86% in the nucleus. Collagen content decreased from 30% of total tissue mass in the outer region to 20% in the inner region of the anterior and lateral annulus; it was 16% in the posterior annulus. The orientation angle of the collagen fibres decreased from 59 degrees in the outer region to 56 degrees in the inner region of the anterior and lateral annulus; it was 51 degrees in the posterior annulus. CONCLUSIONS: Sheep lumbar intervertebral discs provide a reasonable model for human lumbar intervertebral discs. RELEVANCE: Sheep lumbar discs have been used to investigate the effects of removing and replacing the nucleus. These studies indicate that removal of nucleus may lead to further disc degeneration and indicate the material properties required for an implant material. The relevance of these previous studies is increased if human and sheep lumbar discs have a similar composition and structure.

Experimental rabies virus infection in Artibeus jamaicensis bats with CVS-24 variants.

An experimental model of rabies was established in the fruit-eating bat species Artibeus jamaicensis. The infections caused by CVS-N2c and CVS-B2c, which are both stable variants of CVS-24, were compared after inoculation of adult bats in the right masseter muscle. CVS-N2c produced neurologic signs of rabies with paresis, ataxia, and inability to fly, while CVS-B2c did not produce neurologic signs. Bats were sacrificed and the distribution of rabies virus antigen was assessed in tissue sections with immunoperoxidase staining. Both viruses spread to the brain stem and bilaterally to the trigeminal ganglia by days 2 to 3. CVS-N2c had disseminated widely in the central nervous system (CNS) by day 4 and had involved the spinal cord, thalamus, cerebellum, and cerebral cortex. CVS-B2c had infected neurons in the spinal cord on day 5 and in the cerebellum, thalamus, and cerebral cortex on day 6. Infected pyramidal neurons of the hippocampus were observed on day 5 in CVS-N2c infection, but infected neurons were never noted in the hippocampus in CVS-B2c infection. CVS-N2c infected many more neurons and more prominently involved neuronal processes than CVS-B2c. CVS-N2c spread more efficiently in the CNS than CVS-B2c. Morphologic changes of apoptosis or biochemical evidence of DNA fragmentation were not observed in neurons with either virus after this route of inoculation. The different neurovirulent properties of these CVS variants in this model were not related to their in vivo ability to induce apoptosis.

Recovery from propofol anaesthesia supplemented with remifentanil.

We have examined the effects on recovery end-points of supplementation of a propofol-based anaesthetic with remifentanil. After induction of anaesthesia with propofol and remifentanil 1.0 microg kg(-1), 15 patients each were randomly allocated to target plasma propofol concentrations of 2, 3, 4 or 5 microg ml(-1) for maintenance of anaesthesia. Remifentanil was administered by infusion for supplementation in doses required for maintenance of adequate anaesthesia. All patients received 50% nitrous oxide in oxygen and ventilation was controlled. The total amount of drugs used and times to different recovery end-points were recorded. Cognitive function was also assessed using a Mini-Mental State questionnaire. The median dose of remifentanil for maintenance of adequate anaesthesia (excluding the initial bolus dose) in the four groups was 0.21, 0.15, 0.11 and 0.13 microg kg(-1) min(-1) respectively (P=0.0026). The median times to eye opening and orientation were shortest in the 2 microg ml(-1) group [6.0 and 6.5 min, 8.5 and 10.8 min, 13.4 and 15.8 min, and 14.2 and 19.5 min respectively in the propofol 2, 3, 4, and 5 microg ml(-1) groups respectively (P<0.001)]. The times to discharge from the recovery ward and the Mini-Mental State scores were not significantly different.

Replacing the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc.

OBJECTIVE: To determine whether replacement of the nucleus with a synthetic material would prevent the effects of nucleus removal. DESIGN: Laboratory experiments on excised tissues and a finite element model. BACKGROUND: Removal of the nucleus from the intervertebral disc causes the inner margins of the annulus to bulge inwards, instead of outwards, during compression. This may cause the annulus to degenerate further. METHODS: Video recordings of sheep discs, sectioned in the sagittal plane, were obtained during compression in a materials testing machine; the cut face of the disc was sealed with a Perspex window. Experiments were repeated with the nucleus removed and then replaced by a synthetic implant. A finite element model of an intact disc was also used to investigate the effect of nucleus replacement. RESULTS: When the nucleus of sectioned discs was replaced with the polymer materials, the inward bulging of the annulus was not observed. The predictions from the finite element model of the intact disc were consistent with this result. CONCLUSIONS: Replacement of the nucleus with a synthetic material can prevent the changes in annulus behaviour that result from removal of the nucleus. RELEVANCE: A suitable implant to replace the nucleus after surgical removal may help prevent inward bulging of the inner layers of the annulus.

Frequency of haemoglobin desaturation with the use of succinylcholine during rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia.

BACKGROUND: The perceived safety of the use of succinylcholine is based on the fact that recovery from its effects will occur before oxygen desaturation occurs in case of failure to intubate or ventilate. The purpose of this study was to examine the incidence of oxygen desaturation after the use of succinylcholine prior to resumption of spontaneous ventilation following four different preoxygenation techniques. METHODS: Twenty-five patients each were randomly allocated to preoxygenation with 4 deep breaths of 100% oxygen or by breathing oxygen for 1, 3 or 5 min following which they received a rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with fentanyl 1 microg kg(-1), a sleep dose of thiopentone and succinylcholine 1 mg kg(-1). Oxygen saturation was monitored continuously using a finger probe. Ventilation was not assisted unless the saturation decreased to

Neostigmine antagonism of rocuronium block during anesthesia with sevoflurane, isoflurane or propofol.

PURPOSE: To examine the influence of continuing administration of sevoflurane or isoflurane during reversal of rocuronium induced neuromuscular block with neostigmine. METHODS: One hundred and twenty patients, divided into three equal groups, were randomly allocated to maintenance of anesthesia with sevoflurane, isoflurane or propofol. Neuromuscular block was induced with rocuronium and monitored using train-of-four (TOF) stimulation of the ulnar nerve and recording the force of contraction of the adductor pollicis muscle. Neostigmine was administered when the first response in TOF had recovered to 25%. At this time the volatile agent administration was stopped or propofol dosage reduced in half the patients in each group (n = 20 in each group). The times to attain TOF ratio of 0.8, and the number of patients attaining this end point within 15 min were recorded. RESULTS: The times (mean +/- SD) to recovery of the TOF ratio to 0.8 were 12.0 +/- 5.5 and 6.8 +/- 2.3 min in the sevoflurane continued and sevoflurane stopped groups, 9.0 +/- 8.3 and 5.5 +/- 3.0 min in the isoflurane continued and isoflurane stopped groups, and 5.2 +/- 2.8 and 4.7 +/- 1.5 min in the propofol continued and propofol stopped groups (P < 0.5-01). Only 9 and 15 patients in the sevoflurane and isoflurane continued groups respectively had attained a TOF ratio of 0.8 within 15 min (P < 0.001 for sevoflurane). CONCLUSIONS: The continued administration of sevoflurane, and to a smaller extent isoflurane, results in delay in attaining adequate antagonism of rocuronium induced neuromuscular block.

Postoperative residual block after intermediate-acting neuromuscular blocking drugs.

The frequency and duration of postoperative residual neuromuscular block on arrival of 150 patients in the recovery ward following the use of vecuronium (n = 50), atracurium (n = 50) and rocuronium (n = 50) were recorded. Residual block was defined as a train-of-four ratio of <0.8. An additional group of 10 patients received no neuromuscular blocking drugs during anaesthesia. The incidence of postoperative residual neuromuscular block was 64%, 52% and 39% after the use of vecuronium, atracurium and rocuronium, respectively. Similar numbers of patients were not able to maintain a sustained head or leg lift for 5 s on arrival in the recovery ward. The mean [range] times to attaining a train-of-four ratio of > or =0.8 after arrival in the recovery ward were 9.2 [1-61], 6.9 [1-24] and 14.7 [1.5-83] min for vecuronium, atracurium and rocuronium, respectively. None of the 10 patients who did not receive neuromuscular blocking drugs had train-of-four ratios <0.8 on arrival in the recovery ward. It is concluded that a large proportion of patients arrive in the recovery ward with a train-of-four ratio <0.8, even with the use of intermediate-acting neuromuscular blocking drugs. Although the residual block is relatively short lasting, it may occasionally be prolonged, requiring close observation and monitoring of such patients in the recovery ward.

Identification of a common variant in the lipoprotein lipase gene in a large Utah kindred ascertained for coronary heart disease: the -93G/D9N variant predisposes to low HDL-C/high triglycerides.

Defects in the lipoprotein lipase (LPL) gene are associated with dyslipidemia in the general population. Several rare mutations in the gene, as well as two common coding region polymorphisms, D9N and N291S, exhibit deleterious effects on circulating lipid levels. Using a linkage-based approach, we have identified a large Utah kindred segregating the D9N variant in the LPL gene. The kindred was ascertained for premature coronary heart disease and was expanded based on familial dyslipidemia. A genomic scan identified a region of linkage including LPL, and mutation screening identified the segregating variant. In the kindred, the variant shows high penetrance for a hypoalphalipoproteinemia phenotype, but is also associated with hypertriglyceridemia and elevated insulin levels. The strength of linkage was dependent on the combination of phenotype definition and model parameters, favoring the use of a MOD score approach. Most other studies of LPL have proceeded by mutation screening of randomly chosen individuals or selected affected probands; this is the first example identifying a segregating LPL mutation using direct linkage.

Sevoflurane--nitrous oxide anaesthesia supplemented with remifentanil: effect on recovery and cognitive function.

The aim of this study was to compare recovery and psychomotor performance after maintenance of anaesthesia with sevoflurane or sevoflurane supplemented with remifentanil. Sixty-six per cent nitrous oxide was used in all patients. Twenty patients each were randomly allocated to maintenance of anaesthesia with sevoflurane only in concentrations necessary to maintain adequate anaesthesia or with 1.5, 1.0 or 0.5 MAC (end-tidal) of sevoflurane supplemented with remifentanil. The median dosage of remifentanil required in the last three groups was 0.21, 0.25 and 0.34 microg x kg(-1) x min(-1), respectively (p < 0.05). The median times to eye opening were 10.3, 12.7, 11.0 and 6.5 min in the four groups (p < 0.05 between the 0.5 MAC and the other groups) and for orientation 12.1, 14.9, 12.3 and 8.3 min, respectively (p < 0.05 between 0.5 and 1.5 MAC groups). There was no significant difference in the mini-mental state assessment scores or the actual discharge times from the recovery ward among the groups. Significantly greater numbers of patients could perform the critical flicker fusion test at 15 min in the group receiving the lowest concentration of sevoflurane and the highest dosage of remifentanil (p < 0.05). Patients in this group also showed the highest incidence of chest wall rigidity (p < 0.003). We conclude that, while the use of remifentanil with lower concentrations of sevoflurane facilitates early recovery, it does not influence discharge time from recovery ward and may be associated with side-effects such as chest wall rigidity.

A candidate prostate cancer susceptibility gene at chromosome 17p.

It is difficult to identify genes that predispose to prostate cancer due to late age at diagnosis, presence of phenocopies within high-risk pedigrees and genetic complexity. A genome-wide scan of large, high-risk pedigrees from Utah has provided evidence for linkage to a locus on chromosome 17p. We carried out positional cloning and mutation screening within the refined interval, identifying a gene, ELAC2, harboring mutations (including a frameshift and a nonconservative missense change) that segregate with prostate cancer in two pedigrees. In addition, two common missense variants in the gene are associated with the occurrence of prostate cancer. ELAC2 is a member of an uncharacterized gene family predicted to encode a metal-dependent hydrolase domain that is conserved among eukaryotes, archaebacteria and eubacteria. The gene product bears amino acid sequence similarity to two better understood protein families, namely the PSO2 (SNM1) DNA interstrand crosslink repair proteins and the 73-kD subunit of mRNA 3' end cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF73).

The predictive value of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation testing.

Genetic testing for mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2, two genes predisposing to breast and ovarian cancers, is available to women with a relevant family history. The aim of this study was to estimate the positive and negative predictive value of clinical sequence analysis of these genes. A reference graph showing positive and negative predictive values over a range of pre-test risk was derived, taking into account the sensitivity and specificity of a full-sequence analysis test. High positive and negative predictive values were found for women with pre-test risk between 4% and 40%, a range of risk commonly seen in clinical testing. The predictive value of full sequence and single-site analysis of BRCA1 and BRCA2, therefore, compares favorably with other diagnostic medical tests. Our results provide a numerical estimate of the predictive value of BRCA testing, and as such, provide a valuable tool to healthcare providers and families as they interpret BRCA1 and BRCA2 test results.

Factors that influence cutaneous reactions following administration of thiopentone and atracurium.

Atracurium was administered by a variety of techniques to determine whether these influence the onset or duration of muscular relaxation, and the frequency of cutaneous reactions, after a standard induction dose of thiopentone. One-hundred-and-fifty patients were allocated randomly to receive the drug by one of five methods: into a fast-flowing crystalloid infusion in the antecubital fossa; into a winged needle in the antecubital fossa with flushing after the thiopentone; into a winged needle in the antecubital fossa without flushing; into a winged needle in the dorsum of the hand without flushing. The above groups received atracurium freshly removed from the refrigerator whereas the fifth group were given atracurium which had been maintained at room temperature for at least 2 weeks. The frequency of cutaneous reactions was between 60 and 70% overall and there were no significant differences either in this or in the onset or duration of action between the groups. A further 25 patients with a history of drug allergy were also investigated by the first method and showed no significant differences in response, but 25 patients aged over 70 years had a significantly lower frequency of cutaneous reactions with a higher frequency of hypotension than the other groups.

Diagnosis and carrier detection of Tay-Sachs disease: direct determination of hexosaminidase A using 4-methylumbelliferyl derivatives of beta-N-acetylglucosamine-6-sulfate and beta-N-acetylgalactosamine-6-sulfate.

4-Methylumbelliferyl-6-sulfo-2-acetamido-2-deoxy derivatives of beta-D glucopyranoside and beta-D-galactopyranoside were prepared by direct sulfation of the commonly used unsulfated derivatives. Both sulfated substrates were highly specific for hexosaminidase A, and in fractionated serum, cells, and tissue preparations, less than 2.5% of these activities were associated with hexosaminidase B and the intermediate isozyme fractions. Serum and leukocytes from patients with infantile Tay-Sachs disease, including a patient with thermolabile hexosaminidase B, had less than 2% of noncarrier activities. Carrier values were clearly separated from those of noncarriers, and no problems were encountered in utilizing sera from pregnant women. The % hexosaminidase A values as derived from the ratio between the activities toward the sulfated and unsulfated substrates in the same specimen were comparable to those obtained by the heat-inactivation method (except for subjects with thermolabile hexosaminidase B) and may be helpful in genotype determination in borderline cases.