Characteristics of children aged 2-17 years undergoing anaesthesia in Danish hospitals 2005-2015: a national observational study.

Provision of paediatric anaesthesia requires careful consideration of the child's cognitive state, unique body composition and physiology. In an observational cohort study, we describe the population characteristics and conduct of anaesthesia in children aged 2-17 years from 1 January 2005 to 31 December 2015. Children were identified from the Danish Anaesthesia Database. We recorded the following variables: age; sex; comorbidities; indications for anaesthesia; practice of anaesthesia; and complications. Results are presented for two age groups: 2-5 and 6-17 years. In total, 32,840 (61% male) children aged 2-5 years received 50,484 anaesthesia episodes and 91,418 (54% male) children aged 6-17 years received 141,082 anaesthesia episodes. The younger children, compared with the older children, were more frequently anaesthetised at a university hospital (50% vs. 36%) and for non-surgical procedures (24% vs. 8%). For both age groups, general anaesthesia was the primary choice of anaesthesia regardless of the reason for anaesthesia. For surgery, general anaesthesia using inhalational agents in addition to intravenous agents or alone was more frequently used in younger children (49% vs. 15%), whereas older children commonly received total intravenous anaesthesia (50% vs. 83%). Regional anaesthesia was infrequently utilised. Complications occurred in 3.3% of anaesthesia episodes among 2-5 year olds compared with 3.7% of anaesthesia episodes among children aged 6-17 years. In conclusion, we found younger children (aged 2-5), compared with older children (aged 6-17) were more frequently anaesthetised for non-surgical reasons, at a university hospital and using inhalational agents. Complications were rare.

Characteristics of children less than 2 years of age undergoing anaesthesia in Denmark 2005-2015: a national observational study.

There are few data available that describe the current anaesthetic management of children. We have analysed anaesthetic practice and peri-operative complications for children in Denmark aged less than two years. We conducted a population-based observational cohort study using the Danish Anaesthesia Database to identify children who received anaesthesia in hospital from 1 January 2005 until 31 December 2015. Data were combined with that from the Danish National Patient Registry and the Danish Civil Registration System. Age, sex, height, weight, ASA physical status, days in hospital before anaesthesia, number of anaesthetics per child, indications for anaesthesia, methods of anaesthesia, airway management and complications were all recorded. A total of 17,436 children (64% of whom were male) received 27,653 anaesthetics during the study period. In 58% of cases, the child had an ASA physical status score of 1. Thirty-seven percent had a previous anaesthetic episode. Seventy-nine percent were anaesthetised at a university hospital. The indications for anaesthesia were surgery (70%), diagnostic radiology (16%), non-surgical care (11%) and other indications (3%). General anaesthesia combining intravenous and inhalational agents was the most common approach for surgery (68%) and diagnostic radiology (47%). For non-surgical care, general anaesthesia using inhalational agents was the most common method (42%). Neuraxial blocks were used infrequently. The most common regional anaesthetic nerve block was an infraclavicular brachial plexus block (11%). Peri-operative complications occurred in 1.71% of cases. A large proportion of anaesthetics were conducted in children with comorbidities. Non-surgical indications for anaesthesia were frequent and peri-operative complications were rare.

Benefit and harm of pregabalin in acute pain treatment: a systematic review with meta-analyses and trial sequential analyses.

Pregabalin has demonstrated anti-hyperalgesic properties and was introduced into acute pain treatment in 2001. Our aim was to evaluate the beneficial and harmful effects of pregabalin in postoperative pain management. We included randomized clinical trials investigating perioperative pregabalin treatment in adult surgical patients. The review followed Cochrane methodology, including Grading of Recommendations Assessment, Development, and Evaluation (GRADE), and used trial sequential analyses (TSAs). The primary outcomes were 24 h morphine i.v. consumption and the incidence of serious adverse events (SAEs) defined by International Conference of Harmonisation Good Clinical Practice guidelines. Conclusions were based primarily on trials with low risk of bias. Ninety-seven randomized clinical trials with 7201 patients were included. The 24 h morphine i.v. consumption was reported in 11 trials with overall low risk of bias, finding a reduction of 5.8 mg (3.2, 8.5; TSA adjusted confidence interval: 3.2, 8.5). Incidence of SAEs was reported in 21 trials, with 55 SAEs reported in 12 of these trials, and 22 SAEs reported in 10 trials with overall low risk of bias. In trials with overall low risk of bias, Peto's odds ratio was 2.9 (1.2, 6.8; TSA adjusted confidence interval: 0.1, 97.1). Based on trials with low risk of bias, pregabalin may have a minimal opioid-sparing effect, but the risk of SAEs seems increased. However, the GRADE-rated evaluations showed only moderate to very low quality of evidence. Consequently, a routine use of pregabalin for postoperative pain treatment cannot be recommended.

Tracheal intubation in patients with anticipated difficult airway using Boedeker intubation forceps and McGrath videolaryngoscope.

BACKGROUND: Videolaryngoscopes with sharp angulated blades improve the view of the vocal cords but this does not necessarily result in higher success rates of intubation The aim of this study was to evaluate the efficacy of using Boedeker intubation forceps in conjunction with McGrath Series 5 Videolaryngoscope (MVL) in patients with predictors for difficult intubation. METHODS: The study was conducted at the Department of Anaesthesia, Copenhagen University Hospital from September to December 2013. Patients with one or more predictors of difficult intubation scheduled for general anaesthesia were assessed for eligibility. Patients were intubated using Boedeker intubation forceps and MVL. The primary endpoint was time to intubation. The secondary endpoints were intubation success rate, number of intubation attempts, intubation conditions and post-operative hoarseness. RESULTS: Thirty-three patients were assessed for eligibility, and 25 patients were included in the study with a median SARI score of 3 (IQR 3-4). Twenty-two (88%, 95% confidence interval [74-100%]) of the patients were successfully intubated by the method with a median time to intubation of 115 s (IQR 78-247). Steering and advancement of the tube were reported as acceptable in 21 (84%) and 22 cases (88%), respectively, and excellent in 10 cases (45%) for both measures. Ten cases (40%) were intubated on the first attempt. There were three cases (12%) of failed intubation; in these cases, successful intubation was obtained by using a styletted tube. CONCLUSION(S): Most patients with anticipated difficult intubation can be successfully intubated with Boedeker intubation forceps and MVL. However, endotracheal tube placement failed in 3/25 patients despite a good laryngeal view.

Challenges in anaesthesia for elderly.

The segment of elderly individuals comprises a growing proportion of the global population. Health care systems and health care providers worldwide need to understand the specific challenges related to treatment of this heterogeneous patient population. The process of ageing is complex and under constant influence by numerous factors, for which reason the way human age is extremely individual. It is important to understand and acknowledge how elderly differ from younger adults, and how management needs to be modified and tailored to the individual patient in order to improve outcomes. The goal of treatment of an elderly patient is not necessarily to increase human longevity regardless of the consequences, but to increase active longevity free from disability and functional dependence. For older people, deterioration in function can be devastating and is often precipitated by a stressful event such as an acute episode of illness or injury. Therefore a mainstay of treatment of the aged is prevention of functional decline. In this review, we will outline the extreme variability in the aging process, and its implications for tailoring the perioperative care for the elderly. We will provide an overview of the challenges, when dealing with the aged surgical population with emphasis on postoperative cognitive changes.

Should general anaesthesia be avoided in the elderly?

Surgery and anaesthesia exert comparatively greater adverse effects on the elderly than on the younger brain, manifest by the higher prevalence of postoperative delirium and cognitive dysfunction. Postoperative delirium and cognitive dysfunction delay rehabilitation, and are associated with increases in morbidity and mortality among elderly surgical patients. We review the aetiology of postoperative delirium and cognitive dysfunction in the elderly with a particular focus on anaesthesia and sedation, discuss methods of diagnosing and monitoring postoperative cognitive decline, and describe the treatment strategies by which such decline may be prevented.

Assessing health system performance: a model-based approach.

It is difficult to assess countries' relative success in addressing issues of public health because countries are subject to very different background conditions. To address this problem we offer a model-based approach for assessing health system performance. Specifically, an index of public health is regressed against a vector of variables intended to capture economic, educational, cultural, geographic, and epidemiological endowments. The residual from this model is regarded as a plausible measure of public health performance at the national level. We argue that a model-based approach to performance is informative for policymakers and academics as it focuses attention on those aspects of a country's health profile that are not constrained by structural factors. This sharpens comparisons across countries and through time, and also allows one to evaluate the degree to which health systems have lived up to their potential.

R-CHOEP-14 improves overall survival in young high-risk patients with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma compared with R-CHOP-14. A population-based investigation from the Danish Lymphoma Group.

BACKGROUND: Optimal treatment of young patients with high-risk diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) remains a matter of debate and requires improvement. The combination chemotherapy with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisone (CHOP) with addition of etoposide (CHOEP) has in other patient groups been shown to be effective. Further improvement has been accomplished with the use of rituximab in combination with the regimens every 2 weeks (R-CHOP-14, R-CHOEP-14). The aim of the present retrospective population-based study was to compare R-CHOP-14 with R-CHOEP-14 in a cohort of high-risk patients aged 18-60 years with two or more risk factors (stage III-IV, elevated lactate dehydrogenase levels, performance status 2-4). To our knowledge, this is the first study comparing these two regimens in this patient group. METHODS: We obtained data for the period 2004-2009 from the Danish Lymphoma Database. One hundred and fifty-nine patients were eligible to enter the study. Primary end point was overall survival (OS) and secondary end points were response to treatment, progression-free survival (PFS) and safety. RESULTS: Four-year OS was superior in the R-CHOEP-14 group: 75% compared with 62% for R-CHOP-14 (P=0.04). This superiority was also seen for PFS: 4-year PFS was 70% for the R-CHOEP-14 group compared with 58% for the R-CHOP-14 group (P=0.02). CONCLUSION: R-CHOEP-14 is a promising regimen for young patients with high-risk DLBCL with improved OS and PFS compared with R-CHOP-14.

The importance of ß globin deletion analysis in the evaluation of patients with ß thalassemia.

INTRODUCTION: Beta globin deletion/duplication analysis may serve as a useful adjunct to sequence analysis. Our purpose was to develop a robust assay for beta globin deletion/duplication analysis and determine its role in evaluating patients with beta thalassemia. METHODS: A single tube semi-quantitative fluorescent PCR assay capable of detecting deletions and duplications in the beta globin cluster and the associated locus control region (LCR) was developed and validated. RESULTS: Six hundred seventy one de-identified samples submitted for beta globin sequence analysis were tested for deletions and duplications of the beta globin cluster. Twenty-two deletions were detected (3%, 22/671). Seventeen of the 22 (82%) deletion samples were negative for mutations in the whole gene sequencing assay. For 5 of the samples, homozygous point mutations were inferred by beta globin sequencing. Among the deletions detected, 11 (50%) involved only the beta globin gene (5 covering the entire gene, 2 spanning the 5' end of the gene and 4 encompassing the 3' end of the gene). Ten samples (45%) were heterozygous delta-beta deletions spanning both the delta globin and beta globin genes. One patient with a single deletion had Hb Lepore. CONCLUSION: Beta globin deletion/duplication analysis is necessary to correctly identify the genotype in some patients being evaluated for beta thalassemia.

Involvement of phospholipase C and intracellular calcium signaling in the gonadotropin-releasing hormone regulation of prolactin release from lactotrophs of tilapia (Oreochromis mossambicus).

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is a potent stimulator of prolactin (PRL) secretion in various vertebrates including the tilapia, Oreochromis mossambicus. The mechanism by which GnRH regulates lactotroph cell function is poorly understood. Using the advantageous characteristics of the teleost pituitary gland from which a nearly pure population of PRL cells can be isolated, we examined whether GnRH might stimulate PRL release through an increase in phospholipase C (PLC), inositol triphosphate (IP3), and intracellular calcium (Ca(i)2+) signaling. Using Ca(i)2+ imaging and the calcium-sensitive dye fura-2, we found that chicken GnRH-II (cGnRH-II) induced a rapid dose-dependent increase in Ca(i)2+ in dispersed tilapia lactotrophs. The Ca(i)2+ signal was abolished by U-73122, an inhibitor of PLC-dependent phosphoinositide hydrolysis. Correspondingly, cGnRH-II-induced tPRL188 secretion was inhibited by U-73122, suggesting that activation of PLC mediates cGnRH-II's stimulatory effect on PRL secretion. Pretreatment with 8-(N,N-diethylamino)octyl-3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoate hydrochloride (TMB-8), an inhibitor of Ca2+ release from intracellular stores, impeded the effect of cGnRH-II on Ca(i)2+. To further address the possible involvement of intracellular Ca2+ stores, IP3 concentrations in the tilapia rostral pars distalis (RPD containing 95-99% PRL cells) was determined by a radioreceptor assay. We found that GnRH-II induces a rapid (<5min) and sustained increase in IP3 concentration in the RPD. Secretion of tPRL(188) in response to cGnRH-II was suppressed by Ca2+ antagonists (TMB-8 and nifedipine). These data, along with our previous findings that show PRL release increases with a rise in Ca(i)2+, suggest that GnRH may elicit its PRL releasing effect by increasing Ca(i)2+. Furthermore, the rise in Ca(i)2+ may be derived from PLC/IP3-induced mobilization of Ca2+ from intracellular stores along with influx through L-type voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.

Genotype-phenotype correlation and frequency of the 3199del6 cystic fibrosis mutation among I148T carriers: results from a collaborative study.

PURPOSE: We expect that the mutation panel currently recommended for preconception/prenatal CF carrier screening will be modified as new information is learned regarding the phenotype associated with specific mutations and allele frequencies in various populations. One such example is the I148T mutation, originally described as a severe CF mutation. After implementation of CF population-based carrier screening, we learned that I148T exists as a complex allele with 3199del6 in patients with clinical CF, whereas asymptomatic compound heterozygotes for I148T and a second severe CF mutation were negative for 3199del6. METHODS: We performed reflex testing for 3199del6 on 663 unrelated specimens, including I148T heterozygotes, compound heterozygotes, and a homozygous individual. RESULTS: Less than 1% of I148T carriers were also positive for 3199del6. Excluding subjects tested because of a suspected or known CF diagnosis or positive family history, 0.6% of I148T-positive individuals were also positive for 3199del6. We identified 1 I148T homozygote and 6 unrelated compound heterozygous individuals with I148T and a second CF variant (2 of whom also carried 3199del6). In addition, one fetus with echogenic bowel and one infertile male were heterozygous for I148T (3199del6 negative). CONCLUSIONS: Reflex testing for 3199del6 should be considered whenever I148T is identified. Reflex testing is of particular importance for any symptomatic patient or whenever one member of a couple carries a deleterious CF mutation and the other member is an I148T heterozygote. Further population data are required to determine if I148T, in the absence of 3199del6, is associated with mild or atypical CF or male infertility.

Differential G protein receptor kinase 2 expression in compensated hypertrophy and heart failure after myocardial infarction in the rat.

The onset of heart failure is associated with characteristic changes in myocardial expression of G protein receptor kinase 2 (GRK2). Although, GRK2 significantly contributes to the regulation of myocardial function in the failing heart, the GRK2 expression during cardiac hypertrophy without heart failure remains to be explored. We here report a differential expression of GRK2 in cardiac hypertrophy with or without heart failure in response to a myocardial infarction in the rat. Postmyocardial infarction animals were divided into two groups depending on the absence or presence of pulmonary edema, which is a manifestation of heart failure. Remarkably, cardiac GRK2 expression and activity were inhibited in animals with cardiac hypertrophy without heart failure, whereas animals with heart failure had elevated GRK2. Thus, three weeks after the infarction cardiac GRK2 expression in animals with hypertrophy alone was decreased to 0.34 of control, whereas in the group of animals with heart failure GRK2 expression was 1.89-fold higher than in sham-operated animals. GRK2 activity was affected in a similar way, three and nine weeks after the infarction cardiac GRK2 activity was reduced to 0.58 and 0.62 in animals with hypertrophy without heart failure when compared to sham operated animals. By contrast, GRK2 activity was increased by 1.32- and 1.21-fold three and nine weeks postinfarction in animals with heart failure when compared to sham animals. These data suggest that GRK2 expression is differentially regulated in hypertrophic, non-failing and hypertrophic, failing hearts.

Polar body-based preimplantation diagnosis for X-linked disorders.

Preimplantation diagnosis for X-linked disorders has been performed predominantly by gender determination, which, however, leads to the discarding of 50% unaffected male embryos. In an attempt to identify X-linked mutation-free embryos for transfer, the present authors introduced preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD), using a sequential first and second polar body analysis, as an alternative to gender determination. This method was offered to eight couples at risk for having children with X-linked disorders, including haemophilia B, fragile-X syndrome (FMR1), myotubular myotonic dystrophy (MTMD), ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency and X-linked hydrocephalus. The first and second polar bodies were removed following maturation and fertilization of oocytes in a standard IVF protocol and analysed using a multiplex nested polymerase chain reaction (PCR), involving testing for mutations simultaneously with linked markers. Overall, 13 PGD cycles were performed, resulting in the detection of 25 embryos with the predicted mutation-free maternal contribution; these embryos were transferred back to the patients in all cycles, yielding four clinical pregnancies. Four children were born following these pregnancies, including three unaffected and one with misdiagnosis as a result of allele dropout (ADO), which was predictable in the case of FMR1. Presented results demonstrate the clinical usefulness of the specific polar body testing for X-linked disorders as an alternative to PGD by gender determination.

Diabetic macular oedema: a comparison of vitreous fluorometry, angiography, and retinopathy.

AIM: To evaluate the relation between the quantitative measurement of vitreous fluorescein with fluorescein angiography and retinopathy in diabetic patients with and without clinically significant macular oedema (CSMO). METHODS: In a prospective cross sectional study, passive permeability and active, outward transport of fluorescein across the blood-retinal barrier were quantitated with vitreous fluorometry in 61 eyes from 48 patients with CSMO and 22 fellow eyes without CSMO, after exclusion of eyes with previous macular laser treatment and vitreous liquification. All patients were recruited from the university hospital's outpatient clinic. Retinopathy and fluorescein angiograms were evaluated on 60 degree photographs. RESULTS: The passive permeability in CSMO was significantly correlated with the severity of leakage on fluorescein angiograms (r=0.73), the level of retinopathy (r=0.61), and visual acuity (r=0.45). Significant differences between eyes with CSMO and eyes without CSMO were found for passive permeability (p<0.001), fluorescein leakage (p<0.001), visual acuity (p=0.02), and retinopathy (p=0.002). CONCLUSION: Passive permeability of fluorescein quantitated with vitreous fluorometry was correlated both with semiquantitative fluorescein angiography and retinopathy, and a significant increase in passive permeability was found when comparing eyes with CSMO to eyes without CSMO. No such pattern was found for the active transport indicating that passive and not the outward, active transport is the factor of most importance in the development of CSMO.

[Perioperative antiarrhythmic drug management]. / Perioperative antiarrhythmische Therapie.

Perioperative arrhythmias are common. In 2.5 % they result in a severe adverse outcome. This review discusses the normal physiology of the myocardial conduction system and the etiology and pathophysiology of the most common perioperative dysrhythmias. Subsequently some important antiarrhythmic drugs are described and treatment plans for the most frequent dysrhythmias are presented.

Preembryonic diagnosis for sickle cell disease.

Embryos found to be abnormal during preimplantation genetic diagnosis are discarded or analyzed to confirm the diagnosis. The destruction of affected embryos is ethically unacceptable to some couples. We developed a preembryonic genetic diagnosis, that uses sequential first and second polar body removal, followed by oocyte freezing at the pronuclear stage. This was applied in a patient at risk of having a child with sickle cell disease, who suffered hyper-stimulation syndrome. Fourteen oocytes were obtained and tested for the maternal sickle cell allele by PCR analysis of the first and second polar body. Immediately after procedure of polar body removal, the pronuclear-stage oocytes were frozen. Six mutation-free oocytes detected by polar body analysis were then thawed, allowed to cleave, and transferred in the two consecutive clinical cycles, both resulting in clinical pregnancies, one of which resulted in birth of a healthy child. The oocytes predicted to contain abnormal beta-globin gene were not further cultured, to avoid formation and discard of the affected embryos. The results demonstrate feasibility of preembryonic diagnosis for single gene disorders, avoiding the establishment and destruction of mutant embryos.

Chromosomal abnormalities in the first and second polar body.

Aneuploidy free oocytes may be pre-selected by testing the first and second polar bodies removed from oocytes following their maturation and fertilization. We present here our experience on the application of the method in IVF cycles from patients of advanced maternal age. Overall, 5590 oocytes were obtained from 917 cycles and tested by polar body sampling and fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) analysis using specific probes for chromosomes 13,16,18,21 and 22. FISH results were available in 4599 (82.2%) of 5590 oocytes studied, from which 2077(45.2%) were with aneuploidies. Thirty six point one percent of aneuploidies were of the first meiotic origin, and 29.3% of the second meiotic origin. Most errors in the first meiotic division were represented by chromatid errors. The transfer of embryos deriving from 2014 of 2520 aneuploidy free oocytes in 821 treatment cycles resulted in 182 (22.2%) clinical pregnancies and 140 healthy children born after confirmation of the polar body diagnosis. Polar body testing of oocytes provides an approach for pre-selection of aneuploidy free embryos, improving pregnancy rate in IVF patents of advanced maternal age.

Reliability of preimplantation diagnosis for single gene disorders.

Reliability of preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) depends on controlling one of the most important limitations of single cell PCR, undetected allele drop out (ADO), which may lead to misdiagnosis. To avoid this we introduced mutation analysis simultaneously with linked polymorphic markers, pre-selecting only those embryos whose unaffected status could be confirmed by at least one linked polymorphic marker. We applied this strategy for testing 1047 oocytes, from which 237 unaffected ones were pre-selected for transfer back to patients, resulting in 34 unaffected pregnancies and birth of 23 healthy children. Embryos originating from mutant oocytes and those with insufficient marker information were followed up by multiplex PCR to confirm single cell PCR diagnosis. Of 75 (8.5%) detected ADO, only seven (under 1%) were missed in the actual PGD, demonstrating high reliability of PGD (98%) based on multiplex single cell PCR.